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Strategic Management Accounting

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which TWO of the following would be data rather than information?

a. Sales increase/decrease per product in last quarter

b. Total sales value per product

c. Total material usage

d. Sales staff commission as a percentage of total sales

a)

a & d

b)

b & c

c)

a & b

d)

b & d

2.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Management accounting systems provide information for use in fulfilling legal requirements.

b)

Management accounting systems provide information for the use of decision-makers within an organisation.

c)

Management accounting systems provide information for use by shareholders.

d)

Management accounting systems provide information for use by tax authorities.

3.

Use the drop down list to select which of the following processes occurs at the business planning stage.

(a) Obtaining data about actual results

(b) Taking corrective action

(c) Comparing actual performance with budget

(d) Establishing objectives

a)

(b)

b)

(d)

4.

Monthly variance reports are an example of which one of the following types of management information?

a)

Tactical

b)

Strategic

c)

Non-financial

d)

Operational

5.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) Information for decision-making should incorporate uncertainty in some way. (ii) The data used to prepare financial accounts and management accounts are the same.

a)

(i) is true and (ii) is false

b)

(ii) is true and (i) is false

c)

Both are true

d)

Both are false

6.

Good information should have certain qualities.

Which TWO of the following are required as qualities of good management information?

1. Complete

2. Extensive

3. True and fair

4. Accurate

a)

1 & 3

b)

2 & 4

c)

2 & 3

d)

1 & 4

7.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) A management control system is a term used to describe the hardware and software used to drive a database system which produces information outputs that are easily assimilated by management.

(ii) An objective is a course of action that an organisation might pursue in order to achieve its strategy.

(iii) Information is data that has been processed into a form meaningful to the recipient.

a)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

b)

(i) and (iii)

c)

(ii) and (iii)

d)

(iii) only

8.

Which TWO of the following statements about management accounting information are true?

(a) They may include non-financial information

(b) They are required by law to be produced

(c) They are used to aid planning

(d) They are for use by parties external to the organisation

a)

a & c

b)

b & d

c)

c & d

d)

a & b

9.

The sales manager has prepared a manpower plan to ensure that sales quotas for the forthcoming year are achieved.

This is an example of what type of planning?

a)

Strategic planning

b)

Tactical planning

c)

Operational planning

d)

Corporate planning

10.

Which TWO of the following statements about qualities of good information are true?

(a) It should be relevant for its purposes

(b) It should be communicated to the right person

(c) It should be completely accurate

(d) It should be provided whatever the cost

a)

a & c

b)

b & d

c)

a & b

d)

c & b

11.

Which TWO of the following would be classified as data rather than information?

a)

Sales increase/decrease per product in last quarter

b)

Total sales value per product

c)

Total material usage

d)

Sales staff commission as a percentage of total sales

12.

Which of the following processes occurs at the business planning stage?

a)

Obtaining data about actual results

b)

Taking corrective action

c)

Comparing actual performance with budget

d)

Establishing objectives

13.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) Information for decision-making should incorporate uncertainty in some way

(ii)The data used to prepare financial accounts and management accounts are the same.

a)

(i) true and (ii) is false

b)

(ii) is true and (i) is false

c)

Both are true

d)

Both are false

14.

Monthly variance reports are an example of which one of the folowing types of management information?

a)

Tactical

b)

Strategic

c)

Non-financial

d)

Operational

15.

Good information should have certain qualities.

Which TWO of the folowing are required as qualities of good management information?

a)

Complete

b)

Extensive

c)

True and fair

d)

Accurate

16.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) A management control system is a term used to describe the hardware and software used to drive a database system which produces information outputs that are easily assimilated by management.

(ii) An objective is a course of action that an organisation might pursue in order to achieve its strategy.

(iii) Information is data that has been processed into a form meaningful to the recipient.

a)

All of the above

b)

(i) and (ii)

c)

(ii) and (iii)

d)

(iii) only

17.

Which TWO of the following statements about management accounting information are true?

a)

They may include non-financial information

b)

They are required by law to be produced

c)

They are used to aid planning

d)

They are for use by parties external to the organisation

18.

The sales manager has prepared a manpower plan to ensure that sales quotas for the forthcoming year are achieved. This is an example of what type of planning?

a)

Strategic planning

b)

Tactical planning

c)

Operational planning

d)

Corporate planning

19.

Which TWO of the following statements about qualities of good information are true?

a)

It should be relevant for its purposes

b)

It should be communicated to the right person

c)

It should be completely accurate

d)

It should be provided whatever the cost

20.

Which of the following describes the role of tactical objectives?

a)

Middle tier objectives to facilitate the planning and control of individual functions within the organisation

b)

Day-to-day performance targets related to the organization's operations

c)

A clear vision of the organisation's reason for existing

d)

Long-term objectives for the organization as a whole

21.

Which of the following describes the role of strategic objectives?

a)

Middle tier objectives to facilitate the planning and control of individual functions within the organisation

b)

Day-to-day performance targets related to the organisations operations

c)

A clear vision of the organisation's reason for existing

d)

Long term objectives for the organization as a whole

22.

Information systems can facilitate supply chain management by:

a)

a. Tracking the status of orders.

b)

b. Rapidly communicating orders.

c)

c. Providing product specifications.

d)

d. all of the above

23.

Enterprise Resource Planning (ERPs) support:

a)

a. Manufacturing processes.

b)

b. Financial and accounting processes.

c)

c. Human resource processes.

d)

d. All of the above.

24.

Customer numbers and their names would be an example of the __________________ component of an order management information system.

a)

a. software

b)

b. hardware

c)

c. data

d)

d. procedure

25.

The quality of your ____________is a large part of the quality of your information system.

a)

a. computer

b)

b. decision

c)

c. time

d)

d. challenges

26.

A human data operator can be bypassed for basic data entry when using a(n) .

a)

a. Office automation system

b)

b. Management information system

c)

c. Transaction processing system

d)

d. Decision support system

27.

Batch processing is preferred over on-line transaction processing when i) processing efficiency is important ii) the volume of data to be processed is large iii) only periodic processing is needed

a)

a. i ,ii

b)

b. i, iii

c)

c. ii ,iii

d)

d. i , ii ,iii

28.

Management information systems usually:

a)

a. Serve managers interested in weekly, monthly, and yearly results, not day-to-day activities.

b)

b. Help managers make decisions that are unique, rapidly changing, and not easily specified in advance.

c)

c. Provide managers with a generalized computing and telecommunications capacity that can be applied to a changing array of problems.

d)

d. Perform and record the daily routine transactions necessary to the conduct of business.

29.

Which of the following individuals typically have less formal, advanced educational degrees and tend to process rather than create information?

a)

a. Knowledge workers

b)

b. Chief Executives

c)

c. System analysts

d)

d. Data operators

30.

Sales Projections and responses to queries are information output characteristics associated with a(n):

a)

a. DSS

b)

b. MIS

c)

c. OAS

d)

d. TPS

31.

Q1. Information systems that monitor the elementary activities and transactions of the organizations are:

a)

a. Management-level system

b)

b. Operational-level system

c)

c. Knowledge-level system

d)

d. Strategic level system

32.

Two people from different cultures could have the same need, but also could have different satisfiers for that need?

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Are customer needs and satisfiers the same?

a)

False

b)

True

34.

A Quality Culture means having concepts, values, and norms that allow an organizations to be in a continuos improvement process!

a)

True

b)

False

35.

The following qualities are important in an ethical quality management system.

a)

Trust

b)

Integrity

c)

Responsibility

d)

All of them

36.

Ethics is not that important in quality management!

a)

False

b)

True

37.

A strategic planning process involves the following steps?

a)

Vision and mission definition.

b)

Defining Objectives and plan of action

c)

Swot analysis

d)

All of the above

38.

Two major components of strategic management are?

a)

Budgeting and accounting

b)

Customer and customer satisfaction

c)

Customer and budgeting

d)

Strategic planning and strategic execution

39.

Core competencies are things an organization does so we'll that they can be viewed as providing competence in the marketplace

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Strategic management bases actions, activities, and decisions on what is most likely to ensure successful performance

a)

True

b)

False

41.
Good strategy combined with good strategy execution:
a)
offers a surefire guarantee for avoiding periods of weak financial performance.
b)
are the two best signs that a company is a true industry leader.
c)
are more important management functions than forming a strategic vision and setting objectives.
d)
are the most telling signs of good management.
42.
Rivalry increases when:
a)
buyer demand is increasing.
b)
when there is excess supply of unused production capacity.
c)
as the products of rival sellers become more strongly differentiated.
d)
all of these.
43.
The nature & strength of the competitive forces that prevail in an industry is generally a joint product of:
a)
competition from rival sellers.
b)
competition from producers of substitute products.
c)
competitive pressures stemming from the bargaining power of suppliers and buyers.
d)
all of these.
44.
Competitive pressures on companies within an industry come from those:
a)
companies in other industries attempting to win buyers over to their substitute products.
b)
associated with the market maneuvering that goes on among rival firms in the industry.
c)
associated with the threat of new entrants into the marketplace.
d)
all of these.
45.

WHICH OF THESE STRATEGIES ENSURES SELECTION OF RIGHT PERSON FOR THE RIGHT JOB?

a)

FINANCE

b)

HUMAN RESOURCES

46.

STRATEGY FORMULATION IS A ____ PROCESS.

a)

ANALYTICAL

b)

INTERNAL

47.

SWOT ANALYSIS IS USED AT ______ INTERVAL.

a)

INFREQUENT

b)

REGULAR

48.

SWOT ANALYSIS CONVERTS THREATS INTO ______.

a)

ADVANTAGES

b)

DISADVANTAGES

49.

_______ & THREATS ARE EXTERNAL FACTORS OVER WHICH THE BUSINESS HAS NO CONTROL.

a)

OPPORTUNITIES

b)

WEAKNESSES

50.

WHICH ENVIRONMENT CONSISTS OF LARGER FACTORS LIKE POLITICAL, ECONOMIC & SOCIAL THAT AFFECT THE FIRMS?

a)

MICRO

b)

MACRO

51.

STRATEGY _________ IS THE MAPPING THE BUSINESS LANDSCAPE.

a)

FORMULATION

b)

IMPLEMENTATION

52.

WHICH INTEGRATION OCCURS WHEN A PRODUCING FIRM STARTS UNDERTAKING THE MARKETING AND DISTRIBUTION OF THE SAME PRODUCT?

a)

FORWARD

b)

BACKWARD

53.

WHICH LEVEL STRATEGIES INCLUDES AREAS LIKE MARKETING, HR, FINANCE & OPERATIONS?

a)

FUNCTIONAL

b)

BUSINESS

54.

A _____ STRATEGY MEANS TO PRODUCE GOODS & SERVICES THAT FULFILL THE NEEDS OF A NICHE GROUP OF CUSTOMERS.

a)

DIFFERENTIATION

b)

FOCUSSED COST LEADERSHIP

55.

WHICH STRATEGIES HELP TAKE DECISIONS ON THE ADVERTISING OF THE PRODUCTS AND ITS SALE?

a)

OPERATIONAL

b)

MARKETING

56.

FINANCE STRATEGY BALANCES THE FUND BETWEEN_______ & CURRENT ASSETS.

a)

FIXED

b)

MOVABLE

57.

WHICH STRATEGY IS THE OPPOSITE OF INVESTMENT?

a)

INTEGRATION

b)

DIVESTMENT

58.

STABILITY, GROWTH , RETRENCHMENT ARE TYPES OF WHICH STRATEGIES?

a)

BUSINESS

b)

CORPORATE

59.

WHICH OF THESE IS A COMPETITIVE STRATEGY IN NATURE?

a)

DIFFERENTIATION

b)

FOCUS

60.

WHICH OF THESE IS AN EXPANSION STRATEGY?

a)

PROFIT

b)

INTERNATIONAL

61.

INTEGRATION STRATEGY _______SUPPLIER COSTS.

a)

BALANCES

b)

REDUCES

62.

WHICH STRATEGY REVERSES THE PROCESS OF DECLINE IN BUSINESS?

a)

DIVESTMENT

b)

TURNAROUND

63.

RETRENCHMENT STRATEGY SUPPORTS __________.

a)

TURNAROUND

b)

RESTRUCTURING

64.

DIVERSIFICATION IS AN EXAMPLE OF WHICH GROWTH STRATEGY?

a)

INTERNAL

b)

EXTERNAL

65.

Strategic management focuses on integrating management, , and information systems to achieve organizational success.

a)

marketing

b)

finance and accounting

c)

production and operations

d)

research and development

e)

all of these

66.

The price and quality of a firm’s products and services must be competitive on a worldwide basis, not just on a local basis.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Whenever a firm acquires a foreign firm and adopts that firm’s lower tax rate or establishes a holding company in a foreign country and adopts that firm’s lower tax rate, the transaction is called an _________.

a)

Inversion

b)

Evasion

c)

Tax avoidance

d)

Tax fraud

e)

Tax exception

68.

In 2015 a country that charges the highest tax rate is

a)

Chad

b)

UK

c)

USA

d)

UAE

e)

Philippines

69.

Papua New Guinea speak a total of (a)   languages

70.

The following are Cultural Pitfalls That May Help You Be a Better Manager. Which one is not?

a)

Do not eat with your left hand when dining with clients from Malaysia or India.

b)

Making a “good-bye” wave in Europe can mean “No,” but it means “Come here” in Peru.

c)

Direct eye contact is impolite in Japan.

d)

Nodding or tossing your head back in southern Italy, Malta, Greece, and Tunisia means “No.” In India, this body motion means “Yes.”

e)

In Finland, touching your thumb and first finger—an American “Okay” sign—is the equivalent of raising your middle finger.

71.

Globalization includes designing, producing, and marketing products with global needs in mind, instead of considering individual countries alone.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The following are the Top 10 Nations That Are Easiest To Do Business With in the world, except (You may click multiple answers)

a)

Singapore

b)

New Zealand

c)

Denmark

d)

Colombia

e)

Turkey

73.

Things to do before entering international markets

(You may check more than one)

a)

Scan relevant journals and patent reports

b)

seek the advice of academic and research organizations

c)

participate in international trade fairs

d)

form partnerships

e)

conduct extensive research

74.

The business people in this country embodies individualism, achievement, competition, curiosity, pragmatism, informality, spontaneity, and doing more than expected on the job

a)

Mexico

b)

USA

c)

India

d)

Philippines

e)

Brazil

75.

A vision statement answers the question, "What is our business?" whereas a mission statement answers, "What do we want to become?"

a)

True

b)

False

76.

In the last five years, the position of chief strategy officer (CSO) has diminished so drastically that today it is almost unheard of for companies to have such a position on staff.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Commitment and understanding are the most important benefits of strategic management.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

Making many intuitive decisions that conflict with the formal plan is one pitfall to avoid in strategic planning.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

According to Greenley, strategic management offers all of the following benefits EXCEPT

a)

increased discipline.

b)

enhanced communication.

c)

increased resistance to change.

d)

increased synergy.

e)

None of these

80.

According to Webster's New World Dictionary, is "the science of planning and directing large-scale military operations, of maneuvering forces into the most advantageous position prior to actual engagement with the enemy."

a)

competitive advantage

b)

war

c)

strategy

d)

formulation

e)

attack

81.

Both business and military organizations must and to be successful.

a)

be impervious to change; continually improve

b)

adapt to change; continually improve

c)

shun change; stay the course

d)

be impervious to change; stay the course

82.

Organizations should take a(n) approach in their industry.

a)

adversarial rather than a collegial

b)

collegial rather than an adversarial

c)

reactive rather than a proactive

d)

proactive rather than a reactive

e)

cooperative rather than a competitive

83.

During what stage of strategic management are a firm's specific internal strengths and weaknesses determined?

a)

Formulation

b)

Implementation

c)

Evaluation

d)

Feedback

e)

Goal-setting

84.
Well-stated objectives are:
a)
quantifiable or measurable, and contain deadlines for achievement.
b)
clear, succinct, and concise so as to identify the company’s risk and return options.
c)
directly related to the dividend payout ratio for stockholder returns.
d)
all of these.
85.
A company’s strategic vision describes:
a)
why the company does certain things in trying to please its customers.
b)
management’s storyline of how it intends to make a profit with the chosen strategy.
c)
management’s aspirations for the future and delineates the company’s strategic course and long-term direction.
d)
what future actions the enterprise will likely undertake to outmaneuver rivals and achieve a sustainable competitive advantage.
86.

An external analysis is the process of scanning and evaluating an organization's various external environmental sectors to determine positive and negative trends that could impact on organizational performance.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

The internal business environment consists of...

a)

factors that directly impact the organisation

b)

factors that influence the operations of the business

c)

factors that influence the wider environment in which the business operates

88.
What is the last step of the Strategic Management Process?
a)
Formulating Strategies
b)
Implementing Strategies
c)
Evaluating Results
d)
Evaluating Weakness
89.

When developing strategy for organization, which questions should we ask first?

a)

How we will get there on a daily to weekly basis?

b)

How are our departmental operational plans?

c)

What are our short-term goals and operational objectives? How do we break down a larger strategic goal into workable tasks?

d)

Where do we compete? What unique value do we bring to market? Which resources do we have or need? How do we sustain our value?

90.
Well-stated objectives are:
a)
quantifiable or measurable, and contain deadlines for achievement.
b)
clear, succinct, and concise so as to identify the company’s risk and return options.
c)
directly related to the dividend payout ratio for stockholder returns.
d)
all of these.
91.

What does the "S" stand for in PESTLE?

a)

Support

b)

Short term

c)

Social

d)

Subsidiary

92.

In the BCG matrix , which of the following the strategy is sell off (divest)?

a)

Star

b)

Cow

c)

Question mark

d)

Dog

93.

Which is the FIRST step in the strategic Management process?

a)

Monitoring and evaluating strategies

b)

Developing the vision and mission

c)

Strategy formulation

d)

Goals and Objectives

94.

Which is NOT a part of Porters 5 forces?

a)

Bargaining power of Suppliers

b)

Threat of New entrants

c)

Bargaining power of customers

d)

Financial threat

95.

Strategic planning is....

a)

Long term planning

b)

Short term planning

c)

General planning

d)

Seasonal planning

96.

A company’s strategic plan:

a)

links the company’s financial targets to control mechanisms.

b)

maps out the company’s history.

c)

outlines the competitive moves and approaches to be used in achieving the desired business results

d)

All the above

97.
A company’s strategic plan:
a)
maps out the company’s history.
b)
links the company’s financial targets to control mechanisms.
c)
outlines the competitive moves and approaches to be used in achieving the desired business results.
d)
all of these.
98.
Which of the following is generally NOT considered a barrier to entry?
a)
The reaction of incumbent firms to rapid market growth.
b)
Strong brand preferences and a high degree of customer loyalty.
c)
High capital requirements and restrictive government policies.
d)
Strong “network effects” in customer demand.
99.
The most widely used tool for diagnosing the principle competitive pressures in a market is the:
a)
SWOT.
b)
Competitor Profiling.
c)
Five Forces Model.
d)
Market analysis.
100.
Which of the following is NOT part of a company's macro-environment?
a)
The company's resource strengths, weaknesses and competitive capabilities.
b)
Economic factors.
c)
Political and Socio-Cultural factors.
d)
Technological factors and Legal conditions.
101.

A formal written statement of management’s plans for a specified future time period, expressed in financial terms.

a)

Budget

b)

Proposal

c)

Quotation

d)

Management Letter

102.

The selling price that will provide the desired profit on a product when the seller has the ability to determine the product’s price.

a)

Target Selling Price

b)

Negotiated Selling Price

c)

Transfer Price

d)

Cost-based transfer Price

103.

The process used to identify the financial data that change under alternative courses of action is called:

a)

Cost Volume Analysis

b)

Break-even Analysis

c)

Marginal Analysis

d)

Incremental Analysis

104.

The amount of revenue remaining after deducting variable costs.

a)

Contribution Margin

b)

Net Revenue

c)

Net Profit

d)

Residual Income

105.

A key relationship in CVP analysis is the level of activity at which total revenues equal total costs (both fixed and variable). This is called:

a)

Cost Volume Profit Analysis

b)

Break-even Analysis

c)

Marginal Analysis

d)

Incremental Analysis

106.

A study of the effects of changes in costs and volume on a company’s profits.

a)

Cost Volume Profit Analysis

b)

Break-even Analysis

c)

Marginal Analysis

d)

Incremental Analysis

107.

A rate based on the relationship between estimated annual overhead costs and expected annual operating activity, expressed in terms of a common activity base.

a)

Predetermined Overhead Rate

b)

Underapplied Overhead

c)

Overapplied Overhead

d)

Fixed Overhead Rate

108.

A performance-measurement approach that uses both financial and non-financial measures to evaluate all aspects of a company’s operations in an integrated fashion. The performance measures are linked in a cause and effect fashion to ensure that they all tie to the company’s overall objectives.

a)

Balanced Scorecard

b)

Theory of Constraints

c)

Strategic Audit

d)

Total Quality Management

109.

This type of product costing applies to manufactures with a large volume of similar products.

a)

Job Order Costing

b)

Process Costing

c)

Hybrid Costing

d)

Activity Based Costing

110.

Under this type of product costing, the company assigns costs to each job or to each batch of goods.

a)

Job Order Costing

b)

Process Costing

c)

Hybrid Costing

d)

Activity Based Costing

111.

Companies allocate overhead based on each product’s use of activities in making the product. For example, companies can keep track of their cost of setting up machines for each batch of a production process. Then companies can allocate part of the total set-up cost to a particular product based on the number of set-ups that product required. This type of product costing is called.

a)

Job Order Costing

b)

Process Costing

c)

Hybrid Costing

d)

Activity Based Costing

112.

This refers to all activities associated with providing a product or service.

a)

Value Chain

b)

Production

c)

Sales and Marketing

d)

Customer Relation

113.

A report that provides details on cost elements used in calculating cost of goods manufactured.

a)

Cost of Goods Manufactured

b)

Cost of Goods Sold

c)

Job Cost Sheet

d)

None of the above

114.

A costs that are matched with the revenue of a specific time period rather than included as part of the cost of a salable product. These are non manufacturing costs which includes selling and administrative expenses.

a)

Period Cost

b)

Product Cost

c)

Fixed Cost

d)

Variable Cost

115.

The work of factory employees that can be physically and directly associated with converting raw materials into finished goods is called:

a)

Direct Labor

b)

Indirect Labor

c)

Variable Cost

d)

Manufacturing Overhead

116.

Raw materials that can be physically and directly associated with the finished product during the manufacturing process are called:

a)

Direct Materials

b)

Indirect Materials

c)

Variable Cost

d)

Manufacturing Overhead

117.

Manufacturing consists of activities and processes that convert raw materials into finished goods. Manufacturing costs are typically classified into Direct Materials, Direct Labor and Manufacturing Overhead

a)

True

b)

False

118.

As a result of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, managerial accounting reports must now comply with generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP).

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Involves the measuring, recording, and reporting of product costs. From the data accumulated, companies determine both the total cost and the unit cost of each product.

a)

Managerial Accounting

b)

Financial Accouting

c)

Cost Accouting

d)

Management Services

120.

A field of accounting that provides economic and financial information for managers and other internal user is called:

a)

Managerial Accounting

b)

Financial Accounting

c)

Cost Accounting

d)

Auditing

121.

Beginning finished goods inventory + Cost of Goods Manufactured - Ending finished goods inventory =

a)

Purchases

b)

Work in Process End

c)

Work in Process, Beg

d)

Cost of Good Sold

122.

Primary users are internal managers

a)

Financial Accounting

b)

Management Accounting

c)

Responsibility Accounting

d)

Cost Accounting

123.

Variance if the actual costs is less than the budget

a)

Unfavorable Variance

b)

No Variance

c)

Favorable Variance

d)

Cannot be determined

124.

Is the assignment of accountability for costs or production results

a)

Responsibility Accounting

b)

Cost Accounting

c)

Management Accounting

d)

Financial Accounting

125.

Financial accounting is concerned primarily with:

a)

external reporting to investors, creditors, and government authorities

b)

cost planning and cost controls

c)

profitability analysis

d)

providing information for strategic and tactical decisions

126.

Management accounting includes all of the following EXCEPT

a)

implementing strategies

b)

developing budgets

c)

preparing special studies and forecasts

d)

preparing the statement of cash flows

127.

Is the process of monitoring the company’s operations

a)

Motivating

b)

Planning

c)

Supervising

d)

Controlling

128.

This process involves the conversion of direct (raw) materials, direct labor, and factory overhead into finished goods.

a)

Merchandising Process

b)

Cost Accounting Process

c)

Manufacturing Process

d)

Trading Process

129.

It provides the detailed cost data that management needs to control current operations and plan for the future.

a)

Cost Accounting

b)

Management Accounting

c)

Financial Accounting

d)

Financial Analysis

130.

The following are the inventories in Manufacturing, except

a)

Cost of Good Sold

b)

Raw Materials

c)

Finished Goods

d)

Work in Process

131.

Which of the following groups would be LEAST likely to receive detailed management accounting

reports?

a)

stockholders

b)

sales representatives

c)

production supervisors

d)

managers

132.

Which of the following descriptors refers to management accounting information?

a)

It is verifiable and reliable.

b)

It is driven by rules.

c)

It is prepared for shareholders.

d)

It provides reasonable and timely estimates.

133.

Compensation of all manufacturing labor that can be traced to the cost object.

a)

Direct Materials

b)

Indirect Labor

c)

Salary Expense

d)

Direct Labor

134.

The benefit given up when one alternative is chosen over another.

a)

Standard Cost

b)

Differential Cost

c)

Opportunity Cost

d)

Standard Cost

135.

Inventoriable Cost

a)

Period Cost

b)

Non-Inventoriable Cost

c)

Non-Manufacturing Cost

d)

Product Cost

136.

Which TWO of the following would be data rather than information?

a)

Sales increase/decrease per product in last quarter

b)

Total sales value per product

c)

Total material usage

d)

Sales staff commission as a percentage of total sales

137.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Management accounting systems provide information for use in fulfilling legal requirements.

b)

Management accounting systems provide information for the use of decision-makers within an organisation.

c)

Management accounting systems provide information for use by shareholders.

d)

Management accounting systems provide information for use by tax authorities.

138.

Which of the following processes occurs at the business planning stage?

a)

Obtaining data about actual results

b)

Taking corrective action

c)

Comparing actual performance with budge

d)

Establishing objectives

139.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) Information for decision-making should incorporate uncertainty in some way.

(ii) The data used to prepare financial accounts and management accounts are the same.

a)

(i) is true and (ii) is false

b)

(ii) is true and (i) is false

c)

Both are true

d)

Both are false

140.

Monthly variance reports are an example of which one of the following types of management information?

a)

Tactical

b)

Strategic

c)

Non-financial

d)

Operational

141.

Good information should have certain qualities.

Which TWO of the following are required as qualities of good management information?

a)

Complete

b)

Extensive

c)

True and fair

d)

Accurate

142.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(i) A management control system is a term used to describe the hardware and software used to drive a database system which produces information outputs that are easily assimilated by management.

(ii) An objective is a course of action that an organisation might pursue in order to achieve its strategy.

(iii) Information is data that has been processed into a form meaningful to the recipient.

a)

(i), (ii) and (iii)

b)

(i) and (iii)

c)

(ii) and (iii)

d)

(iii) only

143.

Which TWO of the following statements about management accounting information are true?

a)

They may include non-financial information

b)

They are required by law to be produced

c)

They are used to aid planning

d)

They are for use by parties external to the organisation

144.

The sales manager has prepared a manpower plan to ensure that sales quotas for the forthcoming year are achieved. This is an example of what type of planning?

a)

Strategic planning

b)

Tactical planning

c)

Operational planning

d)

Corporate planning

145.

Which TWO of the following statements about qualities of good information are true?

a)

It should be relevant for its purposes

b)

It should be communicated to the right person

c)

It should be completely accurate

d)

It should be provided whatever the cost

146.

How does management accounting contribute to strategic planning and control?

a)

By ignoring financial information and analysis

b)

By providing valuable financial information and analysis for formulating strategic plans and monitoring performance.

c)

By providing inaccurate financial information and analysis

d)

By focusing only on short-term goals and neglecting long-term strategic planning

147.

What are the different methods of costing used in management accounting?

a)

Fixed costing, variable costing, and standard costing

b)

Direct costing, indirect costing, and differential costing

c)

Job costing, process costing, activity-based costing, and marginal costing

d)

Historical costing, absorption costing, and uniform costing

148.

Discuss the role of management accounting in decision-making.

a)

Management accounting only provides irrelevant financial information

b)

Management accounting is only used for record-keeping purposes

c)

Management accounting has no role in decision-making

d)

Management accounting provides relevant financial information to help management make informed decisions.

149.

What are the key performance indicators (KPIs) used in management accounting?

a)

Number of employees

b)

Customer satisfaction

c)

Financial and non-financial metrics

d)

Company's mission statement

150.

Explain the concept of variance analysis in management accounting.

a)

Variance analysis is the method of comparing actual costs and revenues with industry averages to identify and explain differences.

b)

Variance analysis involves comparing actual costs and revenues with budgeted or standard amounts to identify and explain differences.

c)

Variance analysis is the process of comparing actual costs and revenues with competitors' data to identify and explain differences.

d)

Variance analysis involves comparing actual costs and revenues with historical data to identify and explain differences.

151.

What is a budget and how is it used in management accounting?

a)

A budget is a type of financial report used to track employee attendance in management accounting.

b)

A budget is a financial plan used to set targets, allocate resources, monitor performance, and make strategic decisions in management accounting.

c)

A budget is a form of legal documentation used to file taxes in management accounting.

d)

A budget is a tool used to measure customer satisfaction in management accounting.

152.

Describe the concept of cost-volume-profit analysis in the context of a manufacturing company.

a)

Cost-volume-profit analysis is a financial accounting technique that examines the relationship between revenue and expenses.

b)

Cost-volume-profit analysis is a human resources technique that examines the relationship between employee costs and productivity.

c)

Cost-volume-profit analysis is a management accounting technique that examines the relationship between costs, volume of production, and profit.

d)

Cost-volume-profit analysis is a marketing technique that examines the relationship between costs and sales volume.

153.

What are the different types of costs in management accounting?

a)

Direct costs, indirect costs, fixed costs, variable costs, and semi-variable costs

b)

Total costs, average costs, and marginal costs

c)

Operating costs, production costs, and administrative costs

d)

Direct costs, indirect costs, variable costs, and fixed costs

154.

Explain the difference between financial accounting and management accounting in the context of a business scenario.

a)

Financial accounting focuses on reporting past financial performance to external stakeholders, while management accounting focuses on providing information for internal decision-making and planning.

b)

Financial accounting focuses on future financial performance, while management accounting focuses on reporting past performance.

c)

Financial accounting and management accounting are the same and can be used interchangeably.

d)

Financial accounting is used for internal decision-making, while management accounting is used for external reporting.

155.

What is the primary purpose of management accounting?

a)

Conducting market research and analysis

b)

Managing human resources within the organization

c)

Preparing financial statements for external stakeholders

d)

Internal decision-making and planning