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Law and Justice 2 Final Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the core function of the protection officer?

a)

Asset protection

b)

Customer service

c)

Marketing

d)

Public relations

2.

There are four classifications of assets. A list of clients for a company would be an example of which asset?

a)

People

b)

Property

c)

Information

d)

Reputation

3.

What must the officer do to maintain being the first line of protection for the people they serve?

a)

Participate in regular training and education

b)

Earn a college degree in security management

c)

Build close relationships with company leadership

d)

Political involvement with local groups

4.

When is the best time to write a report?

a)

Immediately after the incident

b)

At least a day later to allow time to process

c)

Once an arrest has been made

d)

Only when directed by a supervisor

5.

Which is an example of a civil law trial that a protection officer could be a witness for?

a)

Breach of contract

b)

Theft

c)

Trespassing

d)

Disorderly conduct

6.

In a criminal trial, the prosecutor brings charges; however, in a civil trial, who brings the complaint to court?

a)

Victim

b)

Defendant

c)

Judge

d)

Solicitor

7.

There are four conditions in which a security officer can lawfully conduct a search. Which is an example of implied consent to search?

a)

A condition of employment

b)

After an arrest is made

c)

Termination of employment

d)

Boarding an aircraft

8.

The origin of our concept of trespass comes from:

a)

common law

b)

local ordinance

c)

federal statutes

d)

civil law

9.

What is an “actionable cause under common law so that someone who suffers damages as a result of the negligence of another may sue to recover their losses”?

a)

Negligence

b)

Culpability

c)

Torts

d)

Common law

10.

“Whatever is contained in the communicator’s original message is both received and understood by the targeted receiver” describes:

a)

faithful reproduction.

b)

received and delivered.

c)

superior directive.

d)

chain of command.

11.

What is one of the most important tools that any security officer can have at his or her disposal?

a)

Phone

b)

Computer

c)

Handcuffs

d)

Taser

12.

There are four channels of communication in any organization: top-down, bottom-up, horizontal, and the grapevine. An outgrowth of informal and casual groupings of employees is an example of which one?

a)

Grapevine

b)

Top-down

c)

Bottom-up

d)

Horizontal

13.

What is the primary mobile communications device that almost all security officers use to communicate with the control center and between other officers?

a)

Two-way radio

b)

Mobile data terminal

c)

Landline

d)

Cell phone app

14.

Who is the most valuable, but most often overlooked, member of a system dedicated to maximizing benefits through loss control?

a)

Professional protection officer

b)

Security manager

c)

Company CEO

d)

Local law enforcement

15.

Which of the following levels is the highest level?

a)

Basic Physical Security Officer (BPSO)

b)

Certified Security Officer (CPO)

c)

Certified in Security Supervision and Management (CSSM)

d)

Certified Protection Officer (CPO)

16.

Which of the following are considered stakeholders in a security awareness team?

a)

Employees

b)

Insurance providers

c)

Local law enforcement

d)

All of the above

17.

The need to focus attention on security, and keep security in the forefront of every employee’s mind throughout the organization, to insure they are making more secure decisions is the definition of:

a)

security awareness

b)

physical security

c)

contingency plan

d)

standard operating procedures

18.

Which of the following is a key element to creating a sustainable culture of security?

a)

Security master plan

b)

Visitor log system

c)

Leadership vision statement

d)

Corporate mission report

19.

In order to develop a sustainable culture of security in an organization, what must you first develop to ensure employees understand what security is and how important it is to the organization?

a)

Security awareness

b)

Corporate mission statement

c)

Employment policy

d)

Company by-laws

20.

Which of the following is NOT an example of critical infrastructure?

a)

Power grid

b)

Cell phone towers

c)

Oil pipelines

d)

Theme parks

21.

Below are three examples identified by the NIPP as one of the five evolving threats that protection officers can encounter. Which is NOT an example?

a)

Extreme weather

b)

Acts of terrorism

c)

Cyber threats

d)

Employee theft

22.

The fire triangle is made up of fuel, heat, and what other component?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Gas

d)

Flame

23.

The two methods of fire detection are human observation and __________.

a)

electronic systems

b)

thermal imaging

c)

robotic operations

d)

fire plans

24.

The most comprehensive information available on the majority of hazards comes from which of the following?

a)

Office of Safety and Health Administration

b)

Department of Transportation

c)

Environmental Protection Agency

d)

Your security corporation

25.

For hazardous materials incidents, a good practical tool to use is the most current version of the __________.

a)

Emergency Response Guidebook

b)

Employee Handbook

c)

Hazardous Materials Data Sheet

d)

Post Orders

26.

There are four components of physical security. Which is not one of them?

a)

detain

b)

detect

c)

deny

d)

delay

27.

What is the most common type of security patrol?

a)

foot patrol

b)

stationary patrol

c)

mobile patrol

d)

bicycle patrol

28.

What can a protection officer do to best be prepared for their shift?

a)

get the proper amount of rest

b)

know the area

c)

eat a balanced diet

d)

dress comfortably

29.

What is the most important reason for scene integrity?

a)

Protecting evidence

b)

Ensure privacy

c)

To keep out the media

d)

For report purposes

30.

What is the initial fact-finding component of the investigative process?

a)

Preliminary investigation

b)

Supplementary investigation

c)

Securing the scene

d)

Evidence collection

31.

When testifying in court, a security professional should:

a)

project a positive, affirmative image.

b)

give opinion on all answers given during testimony.

c)

argue your point with the attorney.

d)

show your knowledge and superior intellect.

32.

In most cases, which phase of the investigative process is the security officer involved in?

a)

Preliminary investigation

b)

Follow-up investigation

c)

Arrest of suspect

d)

Interrogation of suspects

33.

What can be used to record information as soon as possible after an incident, ensuring a more accurate incident report?

a)

Field notes

b)

Witness statements

c)

Crime scene log

d)

Visitor log

34.

From which perspective, or point of view, should an incident report be written?

a)

First person

b)

Third person

c)

Narrator form

d)

Bullet format

35.

Which of these is NOT one of the three C's of report writing?

a)

Clear

b)

Concise

c)

Complete

d)

Comprehensive

36.

The most cost-effective tool for gathering information during an investigation is which of the following?

a)

conducting interviews

b)

mobile surveillance

c)

monitoring cameras

d)

working undercover

37.

Which of the following is a way to develop rapport with a person being interviewed?

a)

be empathetic with interviewee

b)

assure them the interview will be quick

c)

challenge inaccuracy by sharing what you know

d)

coach the person with their answer

38.

What is a thorough, comprehensive, and ongoing evaluation of conditions that may create a weakness in the security or safety of the facility?

a)

Vulnerability assessment

b)

Incident report

c)

Hazardous materials evaluation

d)

Investigational monitoring

39.

The protection officer is trained to observe and identify potential hazards. Which activity provides the protection officer with the most likely way to report and correct unsafe acts and conditions?

a)

Performing routine patrols

b)

Monitoring camera systems

c)

Networking with employees

d)

Attending staff meetings

40.

"Many factors acting together to cause an accident", is the definition of:

a)

accident causation

b)

risk factors

c)

hazardous situations

d)

threat of harm

41.

The U.S. Department of Homeland Security (DHS) has developed a training program to prepare for an active assailant. What is the name of this training program?

a)

Run, Hide, Fight

b)

Hide, Quiet, Wait

c)

Call, Repel, Fight

d)

Report, Monitor, Flee

42.

What should all organizations consider developing in order to help reduce mass shootings and assaults?

a)

Workplace violence prevention and intervention policies

b)

Assailant reduction, mental health and response guides

c)

Active shooter tactical response team

d)

New training for all security officers in public spaces

43.

What is a common name for a situation where an assailant attempts to force a responding officer to shoot them?

a)

"Suicide by Cop"

b)

"Trigger by Police"

c)

"Forced Suicide"

d)

"Cop Drop"

44.

During an active violent assailant incident, which is NOT a role of the protection officer?

a)

Initiate lockdowns and alarms

b)

Control center operation

c)

Relaying information to emergency responders

d)

Collect data and evidence

45.

All aspects of the security policies and procedures should be reviewed and evaluated for updates:

a)

once annually.

b)

once monthly.

c)

every week.

d)

every five years.

46.

What is a nationwide first aid training campaign that protection officers should participate in that would be helpful in medical emergencies during a crisis?

a)

“Stop the Bleed”

b)

“First Aid, First Right”

c)

“Breathe 1, 2, 3”

d)

“Cardio and Pump”

47.

What is referred to as the “silent killer” for law enforcement?

a)

Stress

b)

Injury

c)

Substance abuse

d)

Mental illness

48.

Understanding disruptive, or violent behavior, is essential in determining what steps to take to safely resolve an incident. What is the first stage in managing these behaviors?

a)

Evaluate

b)

Implement

c)

Document

d)

Plan

49.

During crisis intervention, it is important to remember that 85% of communication is:

a)

non-verbal.

b)

verbal.

c)

paraverbal.

d)

proxemics.

50.

Which of the following is a psychological change that could be a sign of dementia?

a)

Hallucinations

b)

Hyperactive tension

c)

Clairvoyance

d)

Eidetic memory

51.

What is considered the first step on which to build an effective drug-free workplace program?

a)

Company policy

b)

Rehabilitation programs

c)

State laws

d)

Identify drug users

52.

What policy can companies put in place to deter substance abuse, prevent the hiring of substance abusers, and provide for the early identification and referral to treatment of employees with a substance abuse problem?

a)

Drug testing

b)

Scanning interviews

c)

Background investigations

d)

Hire from career fairs

53.

What is the most well-known theory of criminal behavior?

a)

deterrence

b)

positivism

c)

restoration

d)

familiarization

54.

Opportunities for employee theft come about because of:

a)

ease of immediate access

b)

greed

c)

financial benefit

d)

previous criminal activity

55.

What is defined as the means to control privileges or rights to an asset, resource, or an individual?

a)

Access control

b)

Entry protocol

c)

Security plan

d)

Risk mitigation

56.

The most common and simplest form of access control is:

a)

a uniformed guard at the property’s entry point

b)

a security officer monitoring the camera system

c)

a security officer performing foot patrols

d)

a lookout positioned on the roof

57.

Which is an example of an electronic access control system?

a)

Using a name badge to gain entry to a locked door

b)

Using a traditional passcode, lock, and key

c)

Motion detection system in most hallways

d)

Facial recognition software at each egress

58.

Which type of technology can include the use of hand, eye, voice, or facial recognition for access control?

a)

Biometric

b)

Keypad

c)

Ergonomic

d)

Electronic

59.

There are five basic components of an explosive device. Which of the following is NOT one of those components?

a)

liquid in a small container

b)

power sources such as a battery

c)

triggering device

d)

explosive material such as C-4

60.

There are many metal detection technologies in use today. Which of the following is NOT one of those technologies?

a)

Field Strength Meters

b)

Magnetometers

c)

Continuous Wave Ferromagnetic Detectors

d)

Pulse-Field Detectors

61.

Which type of detection technology is typically used in retail businesses, and uses electronic sensors attached to merchandise to set off an alarm if passed through sensors?

a)

Electronic article surveillance

b)

RFP pulse scanning devices

c)

Infrared scatter detectors

d)

Radio frequency identification

62.

Which type of explosive detection technology uses a computer program and provides 3D images to automatically scan packages for explosives?

a)

Computed tomography

b)

Chemiluminescence detectors

c)

Canine detection

d)

Backscattering technology

63.

Ground security cameras in a fixed position can leave blind spots. What recent technology, with the ability to move, can be used to search around corners and get a closer look to avoid blind spots?

a)

Drones

b)

Patrol car

c)

Closed circuit cameras

d)

Police dogs

64.

Below are three examples of security applications for drones, which is NOT an example of a security application for drones?

a)

Aerial patrol of large open area

b)

Continuous monitoring of intruder

c)

Surveillance of large crowds

d)

Delivering equipment

65.

What is the minimum age requirement for obtaining a pilot's license for operation of a commercial or small Unmanned Aircraft System?

a)

16

b)

18

c)

21

d)

30

66.

What is the recommended minimum height for perimeter fencing?

a)

7 feet

b)

4 feet

c)

9 feet

d)

11 feet

67.

Physical security planning allows for:

a)

The selection of security countermeasures

b)

Continuous inventory calibration

c)

Allocation of human assets in a centralized location

d)

A centralized evaluation model

68.

What are the three main objectives of security lighting?

a)

illumination, intelligence, integrity

b)

detection, delay, deterrence

c)

vision, viability, vigilance

d)

lights, limits, legality

69.

Which of the following is bullet resistant glass made from?

a)

layers of laminate

b)

galvanized silicon

c)

ceramic clays

d)

tempered sodium silicate

70.

A “Direct Monitoring” system is one that:

a)

dials directly to the local police department or fire department.

b)

dials directly to your home to alert you when someone has broken into your business.

c)

dials a pre-set message directly to your cell phone when someone intrudes into your protected areas.

d)

sends a text message to notify the police.

71.

A glass-break sensor is a device that:

a)

operates on ultra-sound level noise heard through microphone transducers.

b)

is not a dual-tech type sensor but a single source single purpose sensor.

c)

is usually too expensive for the average system and therefore is almost never used.

d)

is mostly used in private homes, and almost never in commercial properties.

72.

Which type of alarm monitoring consists of a company that is paid to provide monitoring services for a variety of clients?

a)

Local monitoring

b)

Central station monitoring

c)

Proprietary monitoring

d)

Direct fire or police monitoring

73.

Which type of alarm sensor detects an intruder coming in close proximity to, touching, or lifting an object, and serves as the final protective layer of a typical alarm system?

a)

Proximity sensor

b)

Capacitance sensor

c)

Pressure sensor

d)

Balanced magnetic switch

74.

What is the most significant loss that risk management seeks to address?

a)

Life

b)

Property

c)

Resources

d)

Information

75.

How do we measure the likelihood of an event occurring?

a)

Risk assessment

b)

Risk mitigation

c)

Risk acceptance

d)

Risk avoidance

76.

Which of the following are two key risk management elements?

a)

Assessment and mitigation

b)

Loss event occurrence and critical thinking

c)

Inductive and deductive reasoning

d)

Pro-active prevention and response

77.

A central concept in the field of security, which is used to help conserve limited resources, apply the right solutions in the right places, and keep up with changes in our operational environment is:

a)

Risk management

b)

Security assessment

c)

Hazard mitigation

d)

Vulnerability survey

78.

In which step of risk management does the assessor put all of the information on assets, threats, and vulnerabilities together, and then consider the potential impact or consequences of a loss event?

a)

Risk analysis

b)

Hazard survey

c)

Security assessment

d)

Risk planning

79.

Who is responsible for overseeing an emergency?

a)

incident commander

b)

operations commander

c)

safety officer

d)

planning officer

80.

What national agency is responsible for coordinating responses to multistate disasters like hurricanes?

a)

Federal Emergency Management Agency

b)

Department of the Interior

c)

Civil Response and Relief Agency

d)

National Department of Disaster Response

81.

What is the centralized location for managing emergency incidents?

a)

emergency operations center

b)

emergency response armory

c)

local fire departments

d)

designated points of operations

82.

What is one thing that all emergencies have in common?

a)

they all have the potential to impact people

b)

they are costly

c)

they result in large amounts of damage

d)

they all occur without warning

83.

What training should all security officers take first to prepare for disasters?

a)

National Incident Command System

b)

National Domestic Preparedness

c)

National Incident Management System

d)

Emergency Operations Center management

84.

Below are three of the things that a security professional must do in any crisis which is NOT one of these requirements?

a)

assume to role of a police officer

b)

assessing the threat

c)

deciding policies that should be followed

d)

selecting crisis team personnel

85.

Below are three types of emergencies the security professional has to be prepared to handle. Which of the following is not a type of emergency the security professional has to be prepared to handle?

a)

Fires and evacuation responses

b)

Invading foreign military

c)

Civil disobedience suppression

d)

Hazardous material (HAZMAT) spill response

86.

When directing traffic, what is crucial for an officer's ability to ensure prompt compliance to hand signals?

a)

Use uniform, clearly defined hand signals

b)

Blow the whistle loud enough

c)

Quickly assess traffic flow needs

d)

Anticipate the driver’s needs

87.

Which description fits a crowd that is a casual or temporary assemblage without a leader or cohesive group behavior?

a)

Onlookers at the scene of an accident

b)

Workers in a picket line

c)

Members of a union strike

d)

Participants in a riot

88.

What is an example of a crowd that assembles for a deliberate purpose with cohesive group behavior?

a)

Shoppers in a crowded mall

b)

Employees participating in a picket line

c)

Onlookers at a car accident

d)

Customers in line at a bank

89.

What is appropriate personal behavior for a protection officer during large crowd events?

a)

Avoid all unnecessary conversation

b)

Exchange pleasantries with crowd members

c)

Yell into the crowd to gain control

d)

Blend in with the crowd

90.

What is a work stoppage called where participants often use homemade or premade signs, march, and chant slogans to draw attention to a grievance?

a)

Wildcat

b)

Walk off

c)

Picket line

d)

Lock out

91.

During VIP security operations, what is a main mitigation consideration for protecting VIPs?

a)

Proper route movement

b)

Choosing cell or radio

c)

Assessing alternative entrances

d)

Accurate weapon choice

92.

What type of operation involves a man in an unmarked car and in street clothes?

a)

Decoy diversion

b)

Covert personal

c)

Imitation observation

d)

Secret electronic

93.

What type of surveillance operations are performed out in the open and can usually be easily identified as a surveillance activity?

a)

Overt

b)

Covert

c)

Static

d)

Digital

94.

What type of surveillance operations are those done in secret without the knowledge of the target?

a)

Covert

b)

Overt

c)

Static

d)

Digital

95.

What is a "trade secret"?

a)

information not generally known or readily accessible

b)

information password protected on the company website

c)

information that has no commercial value

d)

information that is in the process of being patented

96.

Terrorists use violence, or threat of violence, to accomplish their goals. Which of these is generally the least important goal in a terroristic act?

a)

Cause fear

b)

Intimidate

c)

Kill

d)

Recruit

97.

What is an element of human-based security that makes humans superior to technology?

a)

Humans detect subtle changes in behavior and have intuition

b)

Humans can monitor camera systems and evaluate for hours at the time

c)

Humans do not require an electricity

d)

Humans can use various types of technology at once with accuracy

98.

What is, "the unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, civilian population, or any segment thereof, in furtherance of political or social objectives" referred to as?

a)

Terrorism

b)

Rioting

c)

Striking

d)

Protesting

99.

In the event of a bomb threat, what is one consideration when deciding if an evacuation of the building is the appropriate action to take?

a)

The likely location of the explosive device

b)

The type of explosive device

c)

The number of floors in the building

d)

The likelihood of surviving the explosion if not evacuated

100.

What is a strategy of deception used by an attacker to draw the target into an area more conducive to attack?

a)

Diversionary attack

b)

Secondary device

c)

Improvised explosive device

d)

Primary attack