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8th grade Science EOC review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 2hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The diameter of Saturn is almost 10 times that of the Earth, yet its density is much less. Which of the following best explains this difference?

a)

Saturn has multiple rings

b)

Saturn is a gaseous planet

c)

Saturn rotates at a different speed than Earth

d)

Saturn is farther from the sun than Earth

2.

When a ball bounces, it has changing amounts of potential energy and kinetic energy. Eventually, however, the ball will stop bouncing. Why does the ball stop bouncing?

a)

the ball's energy get used up during the bouncing process

b)

the mass of the ball is probably too small to allow the ball to continue on it's own

c)

the pull of gravity is stronger than the energy in the ball, which makes the ball slow down

d)

the ball's energy gets transformed to other types of energy

3.

Which of the following procedure BEST represents the Law of Conservation of Mass?

a)

evaporating sugar water leaves 5 grams of sugar and turns the water into water vapor

b)

combining 2 grams of copper and 4 grams of sulfer to make 6 grams of copper sulfate

c)

burning 2 kilograms of wood from a pine tree leaves 0.4 kilograms of ash and soot

d)

using filter paper to separate 2 grams of solid powder from 10 grams of water

4.

Sea turtles hatch on the beach. Scientists have discovered that larger turtle hatchlings are more likely to survive than smaller hatchlings. They found that the larger hatchlings could move more quickly toward the water. This reduced the chances that predators would catch them. Which of the following describes the survival advantage for smaller hatchlings?

a)

competition

b)

natural selection

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

5.

Megan ran tests on a mystery substance and found that it has a definite volume, high density, and flows easily. Which of the following statements BEST explains the mystery substance?

a)

a solid because it has a definite volume and flows easily

b)

a solid because it has a definite volume and high density

c)

a liquid because it has a definite volume and high density

d)

a liquid because it has a definite volume and flows easily

6.

Which type of rock is most likely to form by process 2?

a)

magma

b)

igneous rock

c)

sedimentary rock

d)

metamorphic rock

7.

The Earth is made of layers including the core, mantle, and crust. Which of the following BEST describes the Earth's core?

a)

a hot mass of metal

b)

less dense than the crust

c)

less dense than the mantle

d)

a cold mass of metal

8.

You are part of a class that is investigating acceleration. You are responsible for designing and experiment to determine how mass affects the acceleration of different objects. All of the groups in the class will use your plan to investigate different objects and then the class will combine all of the results. Which of the following describes the most important part of your job?

a)

you need to create the same data tables and graphs for all the groups so that the class can easliy compare the result

b)

you need to make sure each group collects the same data and reaches the same conclusion

c)

you need the class to write as many scientific questions about acceleration as possible

d)

you need to plan a single procedure for all groups to follow

9.

Different cell organelles have different functions. Which type of cells would most likely have the most mitochondria.

a)

cells in the stomach lining that make digestive enzymes

b)

nerve cells that transmit signals to the brain stem

c)

muscle cells in the leg muscles of a runner

d)

red blood cells that transport oxygen

10.

If a geologist thinks that they have uncovered a location that contains ancient rocks, which of the following methods would be the BEST way to measure the age of rocks?

a)

measure the amount of weathering present on the surface of the rocks

b)

measure the amount of each radioactive element present in the rocks

c)

measure the percentage of each mineral that makes up the rocks

d)

measure the thickness of rock layers that cover the rocks

11.

There are eight planets in our solar system. Those planets orbit the sun at varying speeds and distances. Venus and Mercury are the only planets in our solar system that do not have moons. Which of the following BEST explains why Venus and Mercury do not have moons?

a)

Venus and Mercury have no gravity

b)

Venus and Mercury are too hot to keep moons in orbit

c)

Venus and Mercury travel too quickly around the Sun to attract moons

d)

Venus and Mercury are too close to the Sun's gravity at attract moons

12.

Rust is the process of iron combining with oxygen. Why is the formation of rust considered a chemical change?

a)

rust has greater chemical reactivity than oxygen

b)

rust has properties that differ from both iron and oxygen

c)

rust has the same chemical composition as iron

d)

rust has a very high melting point

13.

Which is the best example of a pure substance?

a)

peanuts

b)

milk

c)

gold

d)

air

14.

Which statement best explains how periods on the periodic table are organized?

a)

increasing atomic number from left to right

b)

increasing number of neutrons from left to right

c)

decreasing number of electrons from left to right

d)

decreasing atomic mass number from left to right

15.

Which best explains why the total mass of the product(s) would be less than the total weight of the reactant(s) after a chemical reaction?

a)

A physical change occurred.

b)

Atoms involved in the reaction lost mass.

c)

Precipitates were created in the new solution.

d)

Gases were released to the atmosphere.

16.

Which is an example of a renewable energy resource?

a)

biomass

b)

coal

c)

gas

d)

oil

17.

Which best determines the health of a lake used as a source of freshwater?

a)

its depth and width

b)

its temperature and pH

c)

its location and depth

d)

its temperature and depth

18.

A scientist finds the bones of a dinosaur. What could help the scientist determine the approximate age of the dinosaur bones?

a)

the birds living in the area of the bones

b)

the weather conditions in the area of the bones

c)

the kinds of trees living in the area of the bones

d)

the index fossils in the area of the bones

19.

Chemical XX  has a mass of 5 grams, and chemical YY   has a mass of 10 grams. If the two chemicals are mixed and a complete chemical reaction takes place, what is MOST LIKELY the mass of the product?

a)

5 grams

b)

15 grams

c)

10 grams

d)

50 grams

20.

What characteristic of aluminum allows it to be made into aluminum foil?

a)

It is dense.

b)

It is soluble.

c)

It is magnetic.

d)

It is malleable.

21.

Which BEST explains the importance of dissolved gases in the ocean?

a)

They help control pollution.

b)

They help provide oxygen for aquatic animals.

c)

They help maintain a constant water temperature.

d)

They help maintain constant levels of salinity.

22.

Which is an example of a physical change?

a)

boiling

b)

burning

c)

rotting

d)

rusting

23.

Where is the majority of Earth's freshwater located?

a)

clouds

b)

Pacific Ocean

c)

polar ice caps

d)

rivers

24.

Which example BEST represents an interconnection between an aquatic food web and a terrestrial food web?

a)

Fish eat insects that land on the surface of a pond.

b)

Snakes eat bird eggs.

c)

Bats eat mosquitos.

d)

Mountain lions catch and eat deer.

25.
Where are earthquakes most likely to occur?
a)
In the middle of plates
b)
In the oceans
c)
Along plate boundaries
d)
Anywhere on the Earth
26.
Some resources are renewable and will not run out.  Some are finite and can't be renewed.  Which of these resources is non-renewable?
a)
solar
b)
hydroelectric
c)
wind
d)
oil
27.
In order to be an index fossil the fossil must
a)
exist for a short period of time over a large area.
b)
exist for a long period of time over a small area.
c)
exist in spotty areas around the world.
d)
exist, die out,  and come back into existence.
28.
            are observations from which a
conclusion can be drawn.
a)
Predictions
b)
Inventions
c)
Data
d)
Discoveries 
29.
Which energy source is described as having the greatest impact on Earth's living environments?
a)
moving air
b)
moving water
c)
geothermal
d)
the Sun
30.

The table shows the number of neutrons, protons, and electrons for two atoms. How are the two atoms alike?

a)

They have the same charge.

b)

They have the same mass number.

c)

They have the same atomic number

d)

They are atoms of the same element.

31.

The diagram shows the arrangement of electrons in a neon atom. How many protons are present in this atom's nucleus?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

2

d)

There is not enough information to answer this question.

32.

In the diagram, the arrows labeled III point to the atom's ______________.

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Nucleus

d)

Electrons

33.

Elements with seven valence electrons —

a)

are highly reactive

b)

are highly stable

c)

have a high mass

d)

have a low mass

34.

The atoms of a certain element each contain 11 protons and 1 valence electron. Which statement correctly identifies this element and describes its chemical reactivity?

a)

The element is sodium, and it is highly reactive

b)

The element is fluorine, and it is highly reactive

c)

The element is sodium, and it is not very reactive

d)

The element is fluorine, and it is not very reactive

35.

Which of these elements would have properties most similar to arsenic (As)?

Use the periodic table and your notes slides.

a)

Silicon (Si)

b)

Selenium (Se)

c)

Tin (Sn)

d)

Phosphorus (P)

36.

Sulfur is a nonmetal. Of the following, the physical characteristic that is most

likely to describe a sample of sulfur is —

a)

a shiny appearance

b)

brittleness

c)

malleability

d)

ductility

37.

How many of each atom are in the compound above?

a)

1 magnesium atom, 2 iron atoms, and 4 oxygen atoms

b)

3 magnesium atoms, 2 iron atoms, and 4 oxygen atoms

c)

6 magnesium atoms, 6 iron atoms, and 12 oxygen atoms

d)

3 magnesium atoms, 6 iron atoms, and 12 oxygen atoms

38.

Potassium nitrate is a compound used in some fertilizers. Its chemical formula

is KNO3. How many TOTAL atoms are in each unit of potassium nitrate?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

3

d)

9

39.

Look at the pictures above. A shows the bag before the vinegar and baking soda are mixed together, and B shows it after they are mixed together. In which picture do the contents of the bag have the greater mass?

a)

The mass is greater in A—before they are mixed.

b)

The mass is greater in B—after they are mixed.

c)

The mass is the same in both.

d)

The mass depends on the temperature.

40.

Which of the following is the best clue that a chemical reaction has taken place?

a)

Change in color

b)

Change in state

c)

Change in particle size

d)

Change in volume

41.

A student uses a magnet to move a .04 kg ball bearing. The magnet exerts a force of 4N, which causes the ball bearing to begin moving. What is the acceleration of the ball bearing when it begins to move?

a)

.01 m/s2

b)

.16 m/s2

c)

3.96 m/s2

d)

100 m/s2

42.

While practicing in a simulator, an astronaut experienced an acceleration of 26 m/s2. The astronaut's mass was 63.0 kg. In Newtons, what force did the astronaut experience?

a)

2.42 N

b)

37 N

c)

1638 N

d)

42,588 N

43.

In this model, which particle determines the reactivity of this atom?

a)

Particle W

b)

Particle X

c)

Particle Y

d)

Particle Z

44.

Which table is correct? (use your periodic table and notes slides)

a)
b)
c)
d)
45.

In this model, which particle determines the reactivity of this atom?

a)

Particle W

b)

Particle X

c)

Particle Y

d)

Particle Z

46.

How many of each atom are in the compound above?

a)

1 magnesium atom, 2 iron atoms, and 4 oxygen atoms

b)

3 magnesium atoms, 2 iron atoms, and 4 oxygen atoms

c)

6 magnesium atoms, 6 iron atoms, and 12 oxygen atoms

d)

3 magnesium atoms, 6 iron atoms, and 12 oxygen atoms

47.

The atoms of a certain element each contain 11 protons and 1 valence electron. Which statement correctly identifies this element and describes its chemical reactivity?

a)

The element is sodium, and it is highly reactive

b)

The element is fluorine, and it is highly reactive

c)

The element is sodium, and it is not very reactive

d)

The element is fluorine, and it is not very reactive

48.

In the diagram, the arrows labeled III point to the atom's ______________.

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Nucleus

d)

Electrons

49.
Which planet is the smallest?
a)
Mercury
b)
Venus
c)
Earth
d)
Mars
50.

Which organelle is only found in a plant cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

chloroplast

c)

mitochondria

d)

cell membrane

51.

What organelle do plants have surrounding their cells that animals lack?

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Woody Stems

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Sharp Thorns

52.

What is the volume of the following object?

a)

16.5 cubic inches

b)

136.5 cubic inches

c)

150 cubic inches

d)

136.5 cubic centimeters

53.

Newton's Third Law States:

a)

F=ma

b)

An object in motion will stay in motion and an object at rest will stay at rest unless acted on by an unbalanced force.

c)

A regularly occurring or apparently inevitable phenomenon observable in human society.

d)

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

54.
Jack has a rock. The rock has a mass of 14g and a volume of 2cm3. What is the density of the rock?
a)
7 mL
b)
7 g/cm3
c)
28 g/cm3
d)
1/7 g/cm3
55.

Which object below has the most inertia when at rest?

a)

A pencil

b)

A golf ball

c)

A 10 pound weight

d)

A school bus

56.

A 80 kg person was running at 2 m/s2. How much force does the person have?

F=ma

a)

40 N

b)

91 N

c)

160 N

d)

82 N

57.

In physics, what is a wave?

a)

A friendly way to say hello to another person

b)

A process to transfer electrons

c)

A disturbance that carries energy

58.

A compression of a wave can be described as...

a)

the part of a sound wave where the particles are close together

b)

the part of a sound wave where the particles are spread apart

c)

The resting point of the wave

59.

The color of objects that we see is the color of the wavelength that is _______ from its surface.

a)

opaque

b)

absorbed

c)

reflected

d)

shined

60.

Name the moon phase

a)

waning crescent

b)

waxing crescent

c)

waning gibbous

d)

waxing gibbous