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EOY Physics

Total questions: 46

Worksheet time: 4hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Refer to the diagram showing the position vs. time graph for runner 1 and runner 2. At which moment in time (represented by letters A through D) will the two runners represented in this graph have the same speed?

a)

The entire time

b)

Between B - C

c)

Between C - D

d)

They will never have the same speed.

2.

A bicyclist starts from rest and accelerates along a straight path to a speed of 12.15 m/s in a time of 4.5 seconds. What is the bicyclist's acceleration to the nearest tenth of a m/s²? Record your answer and fill in the bubbles on your answer document. Be sure to use the correct place value.

4 lines
3.

Motion sensors recorded the following data about a runner during a cross-country race. Refer to the diagram provided. During which segment of the race did the runner have the greatest speed?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

4.

A race car accelerates from the starting line at an average rate of 8 m/s² for 5 seconds. How far does the race car travel in those 5 seconds?

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5.

A tennis ball is hit by a tennis player and travels 20 meters to a wall. Then, the ball rebounds off the wall and travels 5.0 meters back toward the tennis player. How does the total horizontal distance traveled by the tennis ball compare to the magnitude of the tennis ball's displacement from the tennis player?

a)

The total distance is 5.0 m shorter than the displacement.

b)

The total distance is 10 m shorter than the displacement.

c)

The total distance is 5.0 m longer than the displacement.

d)

The total distance is 10 m longer than the displacement.

6.

Which graph best represents the motion of an object that was initially at rest and is accelerating uniformly?

a)

Distance vs. Time graph showing a straight line increasing steeply.

b)

Distance vs. Time graph showing a horizontal line.

c)

Speed vs. Time graph showing a straight line increasing steeply.

d)

Speed vs. Time graph showing a horizontal line.

7.

A baseball was thrown with an initial velocity of 14 m/s at an angle above the horizontal. It remained in the air for 2 seconds. Which of the following quantities was constant while the baseball was in the air?

a)

acceleration

b)

displacement

c)

position

d)

velocity

8.

A tennis ball rolled off the edge of a table that has a height of 1.00m. The ball took 0.45 s to hit the ground 0.72 m from the table. What was the horizontal velocity of the ball as it rolled off the table?

a)

A) 0 m/s

b)

B) 0.63 m/s

c)

C) 1.6 m/s

d)

D) 2.2 m/s

9.

Two people each have a mass of 55 kg. They are both in an elevator that has a mass of 240 kg. When the elevator begins to move, the people and the elevator have an upward acceleration of 1.00 m/s². What is the net force that acts on the elevator as it accelerates upward at 1.00 m/s²?

a)

F) 9.8 N

b)

G) 110 N

c)

H) 130 N

d)

J) 350 N

10.

A boat travels 12.0 m while it reduces its velocity from 9.5 m/s to 5.5 m/s. What is the magnitude of the boat's acceleration while it travels the 12.0 m?

a)

A) 1.3 m/s²

b)

B) 2.5 m/s²

c)

C) 3.0 m/s²

d)

D) 7.5 m/s²

11.

A nurse applies a horizontal force of 147 N on a bed that has a mass of 152 kg, as shown below. What is the magnitude of the normal force acting on the bed?

a)

F: 0.967 N

b)

G: 5.00 N

c)

H: 1440 N

d)

J: 1490 N

12.

Before 1820, magnetism and electricity were believed to be different types of forces caused by different physical processes. In 1820 Hans Christian Ørsted conducted an experiment with compasses and wire. The diagram above shows the results of his experiment. This experiment was important because it —

a)

A: showed how to make a compass point in a direction other than north

b)

B: was the first to show electric current flowing in a straight wire

c)

C: showed that electricity and magnetism are related

d)

D: proved that magnetism is an extremely weak force compared with electricity

13.

The picture shows a diver with a mass of 93.0 kg diving from a 25.0 m high cliff. Earth's gravity is acting on the diver. Which statement best describes the reaction force to Earth’s gravity in this situation?

a)

The diver is pulling on Earth with a force of 911 N

b)

The sun is pulling on Earth with a force of 5.97 x 10^24 N

c)

Earth is pulling on the water with a force of 5.97 x 10^25 N

d)

Earth is pulling on the air with a force of 2.28 x 10^4 N

14.

Based on the table showing lunar data with mass 7.36 x 10^22 kg and radius 1.74 x 10^6 m, what is the gravitational force on a 1.00 kg rock on the surface of the moon?

a)

1.62 N

b)

9.81 N

c)

1.28 x 10^29 N

d)

4.91 x 10^12 N

15.

Which set of objects from the table could be used together to induce a magnetic force?

a)

Battery, Wooden nail, String

b)

Battery, Wooden nail, Wire

c)

Battery, Metal nail, Rope

d)

Battery, Metal nail, Wire

16.

The center of a 910 kg satellite is 9.9 x 10^6 m from Earth’s center. What is the gravitational force between the satellite and Earth?

a)

4.5 x 10^3 N

b)

3.7 x 10^3 N

c)

8.9 x 10^3 N

d)

1.7 x 10^6 N

17.

Suppose Earth orbited a star whose mass was double the mass of the Sun. If the radius of Earth’s orbit remained the same as it is now, then compared with the gravitational force between Earth and the Sun, the gravitational force between Earth and the star would be —

a)

half as much

b)

the same

c)

two times as much

d)

four times as much

18.

Two charged spheres are 0.2 m apart and exert an attractive force of 8 x 10^-9 N on each other. What will the force of attraction be when the spheres are moved to 0.1 m apart (half the distance)?

a)

2 x 10^-9 N

b)

4 x 10^-9 N

c)

1.6 x 10^-8 N

d)

3.2 x 10^-8 N

19.

Which statement is most likely to be true when the results are obtained and analyzed?

a)

The ebonite rod and the copper cylinder provide the greatest resistance to current in the circuit.

b)

The copper cylinder, the brass washer, and the iron nail allow electrons to move freely.

c)

The iron nail, the copper cylinder, and the brass washer allow protons to move freely.

d)

Both the wood dowel and the ebonite rod have the lowest resistance to current in the circuit.

20.

Which action makes use of a magnetic force?

a)

A person puts a bank card in an electronic reader to buy an item.

b)

A store clerk finds the price of an item by moving the item over a laser light.

c)

A parent measures a child’s temperature by touching a thermometer to the child’s head.

d)

A student measures the mass of a book using a spring scale.

21.

Calculate the total resistance of the circuit shown above.

a)

6.7 ohms

b)

10 ohms

c)

30 ohms

d)

35 ohms

22.

A student makes a graph that shows the electric current through a resistor over time. Refer to the graph titled "Electric Current Through Resistor". Which of the following conclusions does the graph best support?

a)

The voltage across the resistor decreases until it becomes zero.

b)

The voltage across the resistor increases until it reaches a constant value.

c)

A fuse in the circuit blows after approximately 30 seconds.

d)

The resistance decreases as the voltage increases.

23.

The ammeter below shows the current produced by a series of solar cells that contain zinc plates being used to power a simple series circuit. If the circuit’s resistance is 0.2 Ω, what voltage is supplied by the cells?

a)

750 V

b)

15 V

c)

3 V

d)

25 V

24.

Which of the following is the best evidence that work has been done on or by an object?

a)

The energy of the object has changed.

b)

The velocity of the object remains constant.

c)

The mass of the object has changed.

d)

The direction the object is moving remains constant.

25.

A warehouse employee is pushing a 30.0 kg desk across a floor at a constant speed of 0.50 m/s. How much work must the employee do on the desk to change the speed to 1.00 m/s?

a)

A) 3.75 J

b)

B) 7.50 J

c)

C) 8.44 J

d)

D) 11.25 J

26.

A student releases a ball from a height of 1.5 m above the floor. Which of the following statements best describes the energy of the ball as it falls?

a)

F) Its potential energy is changed to kinetic energy

b)

G) The total amount of its mechanical energy increases

c)

H) Its kinetic energy is changed to potential energy

d)

J) The total amount of its mechanical energy decreases.

27.

Which of the following does not contribute to the potential energy of an object?

a)

A) Height of the object above the Earth's surface

b)

B) Gravitational constant, or g, of the Earth

c)

C) Velocity of the object

d)

D) Mass of the object

28.

A ball's gravitational potential, kinetic, and total mechanical energies are plotted in the graph below. What is the behavior of the ball?

a)

The ball is falling toward the ground.

b)

The ball is at rest.

c)

The ball is slowing down from a horizontal roll.

d)

The ball is thrown upwards into the air.

29.

What is the impulse on a 45,000 kg airplane when it changes its velocity from 242 m/s to 258 m/s?

a)

16 kg·m/s

b)

2,800 kg·m/s

c)

440,000 kg·m/s

d)

720,000 kg·m/s

30.

For an object to have a higher temperature it must have a -

a)

higher mass

b)

higher average internal potential energy

c)

higher average internal kinetic energy

d)

higher specific heat

31.

A skateboarder travels back and forth on a U-shaped track during a time trial at a competition. The graph shows the skateboarder’s speed as a function of time during the trial. Which labeled point on the graph identifies the time during the trial that the skateboarder most likely has equal amounts of kinetic energy and potential energy?

a)

P

b)

Q

c)

R

d)

S

32.

A car traveling on a level road initially has 440 kJ of mechanical energy. After the brakes are applied for a few seconds, the car has only 110 kJ of mechanical energy. What best accounts for the missing mechanical energy?

a)

F) Half the missing mechanical energy has been converted to heat energy, and the other half has been destroyed.

b)

G) Most of the missing mechanical energy has been converted to gravitational potential energy.

c)

H) Half the missing mechanical energy has been converted to kinetic energy, and the other half has been converted to potential energy.

d)

J) Most of the missing mechanical energy has been converted to heat energy through friction.

33.

Which of the following best describes the differences between transverse and longitudinal waves?

a)

A) Transverse waves vibrate in a direction parallel to the direction of wave propagation.

b)

B) Transverse waves vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.

c)

C) Longitudinal waves vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.

d)

D) Longitudinal waves vibrate in little circles in the direction of wave propagation.

34.

Lab carts A and B, shown below, are initially at rest with a compressed spring between them. Which of the following statements best describes the motion of the carts after the spring is released?

a)

Cart A has twice the momentum of cart B.

b)

Cart B has twice the momentum of cart A.

c)

Cart A has twice the velocity of cart B.

d)

Cart B has twice the velocity of cart A.

35.

The pressure of a gas is increasing within a sealed container of fixed volume. Four students are asked to explain what must be happening on a molecular level for this to occur. Which student best explains the increase in gas pressure?

a)

Student 1 - The average size of the molecules has increased.

b)

Student 2 - The average kinetic energy of the molecules has increased.

c)

Student 3 - The average speed of the molecules has increased.

d)

Student 4 - The average potential energy of the molecules has decreased.

36.

A student pushed a box 27.0 m across a smooth, horizontal floor using a constant force of 113 N. If the force was applied for 9.0 s, how much power was developed, to the nearest whole watt?

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37.

Students set up a simple pendulum to observe oscillatory motion. What is considered the amplitude of the pendulum’s motion?

a)

The mass of the pendulum

b)

The length of the pendulum

c)

The maximum angle from equilibrium

d)

The time it takes for one complete back and forth swing

38.

A string has a fixed length, L. If there is a standing wave along the string with four antinodes and the frequency applied to the string changes so that the string now has five antinodes, does the wavelength increase or decrease?

a)

cannot be determined

b)

increase

c)

decrease

d)

stays the same

39.

A musical note has a frequency of 512 Hz. If the wavelength of the note is 0.685 m, what is the speed of the sound of that note?

a)

345 m/s

b)

351 m/s

c)

841 m/s

d)

0.00120 m/s

40.

A train passes a stationary observer. Which of the following best describes how the amplitude and the apparent frequency of the sound waves heard by the observer change as the train moves away?

a)

Both the amplitude and the apparent frequency increase.

b)

Both the amplitude and the apparent frequency decrease.

c)

The amplitude of the sound waves increases, and the apparent frequency decreases.

d)

The amplitude of the sound waves decreases, and the apparent frequency increases.

41.

Students set up a water tray with a barrier placed halfway from the ends. The barrier has two openings in it. The students then generate waves that propagate toward the barrier, as shown.

a)

The waves interfere with one another constructively and destructively.

b)

The waves refract as they travel through the openings.

c)

The waves reflect back and forth as they travel through the openings.

d)

The waves change in frequency when they meet one another.

42.

Sound travels through air at a speed of 342 m/s at room temperature. What is the frequency of a sound wave with a wavelength of 1.8 m, to the nearest whole Hz?

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43.

Students use the setup shown below for a lab activity. The setup is most useful for demonstrating —

a)

absorption

b)

diffraction

c)

resonance

d)

refraction

44.

Which of the following best determines the amount of energy of a single photon of light?

a)

The speed of the photon

b)

The material the photon moves through

c)

The time it takes the photon to reach a destination

d)

The frequency of the photon

45.

A light source illuminates a photoelectric surface with ultraviolet light, causing the lightbulb on the right to glow. The lightbulb glows because the ultraviolet light —

a)

reflects toward the lightbulb from the photoelectric surface

b)

releases electrons from the photoelectric surface

c)

absorbs electrons from the photoelectric surface

d)

causes electrons to move from the lightbulb toward the photoelectric surface

46.

What is the energy equivalence of an object with a mass of 37kg?

a)

3.3 x10^18

b)

anything else