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J6 End-of-Year Exams Revision

Total questions: 135

Worksheet time: 2hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

24.1% of all the isotopes of a an element have a mass of 75.23, 48.7% have a mass of 74.61, and 27.2% have a mass of 75.20.


What is the relative atomic mass of this element?

a)

74.92 amu

b)

24.97 amu

c)

75.01 amu

d)

74.51 amu

2.

Calculate the average atomic mass of the element iron (Fe) using the following data:


[Iron 54 / 6% ]

[Iron 56 / 92% ]

[Iron 57 / 2% ]

a)

53.7

b)

54.9

c)

5592.0

d)

55.9

3.
What are the steps of operation in the mass spectrometer?
a)

Vaporise,Accelerate, Deflect,Ionise, Detect

b)

Vaporise,Deflect,Ionise, Accelerate, Detect

c)

Vaporise, Ionise, Accelerate, Deflect, Detect

d)

Detect, Accelerate, Deflect, Ionise,Vaporise

4.
Which species would get deflected by the greatest degree in the mass spectrometer?
a)

14C2+

b)
13C+
c)
13C2+
d)
14C+
5.
How many isotopes are shown in this mass spectrum?
a)
1
b)
84
c)
86
d)
4
6.

What are the orbitals for n=4

a)

s

b)

s, p

c)

s, p, d

d)

s, p, d, f

7.

What are the orbitals that make up the n=1 energy level?

a)

s

b)

s, p

c)

s, p, d

d)

s, p, d, f

8.
Which of the following statements is true about the 3s and the 4s sublevels?
a)
These sublevels have the same energy
b)
These sublevels are the same distance from the nucleus
c)
These sublevels hold different amounts of electrons
d)
These sublevels have the same shape
9.

How many electrons can a d sublevel hold?

a)

14

b)

10

c)

2

d)

6

10.

1. Which orbital is shaped like

a)

s

b)

p

c)

d

d)

f

11.

In order for electrons to occupy the same orbital they must have opposite spins.

a)

Hund’s Rule

b)

Aufbau Principle

c)

Pauli’s Exclusion Principle

d)

Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle

12.

Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for sodium?

a)

1s22s22p63s1

b)

1s22s22p6

c)

1s22s22p63s23p64s1

d)

1s22s22p63s23p1

13.
Subatomic particle with a charge of 0
a)
neutron
b)
proton
c)
electron
d)
quark
14.

Subatomic particles with a negative charge

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

d)

Quarks

15.
Subatomic particles with a positive charge
a)
neutrons
b)
atomic mass
c)
protons
d)
isotopes
16.

How many protons does sulfur have?

a)

32

b)

16

c)

48

d)

12

17.
An atom of the element with atomic number 6 always has _____.
a)
six protons in its nucleus
b)
an atomic mass of six
c)
more than six neutrons
d)
six electron clouds
18.

What is the correct name for this polyatomic ion: OH

a)

hydrogen carbonate

b)

oxonium

c)

hydroxide

d)

acetate

19.

What is the correct name for this polyatomic ion: NO3

a)

carbonate

b)

hydroxide

c)

nitrite

d)

nitrate

20.

Potassium and Sulfur create...

a)

KS

b)

KS2

c)

K2S

d)

K2S2

21.

How do potassium and nitrogen bond together?

a)
KN
b)
KN3
c)
K3N3
d)
K3N
22.
How do the following two elements bond together?
Al3+  O2-         
a)
AlO
b)
Al2O3
c)
Al3O6
d)
Al3O2
23.
An ionic bond is the attraction between:
a)
oppositely charged ions
b)
similarly charged ions
c)
neutral ions
d)
neutral atoms
24.
What is it called when atoms share one pair of electrons?
a)
A double bond
b)
A triple bond
c)
A quadruple bond
d)
A single bond
25.

Identify the following compound as ionic or covalent: SO2

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

26.

Identify the following compound as ionic or covalent: Ca(OH)2

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

27.
What is the basis of a metallic bond?
a)
the attraction of neutral metal atoms.
b)
the attraction between protons and neutrons.
c)
the attraction between positive metal ions and interlocking electrons.
d)
the attraction between positive metal ions and free floating electrons.
28.
Why do metals conduct
a)
They are shiny
b)
The electrons are held tightly within the lattice
c)
The electrons are delocalised and able to move
d)
The electrons are shared between two metal ions
29.

This is an example of a(n) __________.

a)

Hydrogen Bonding

b)

Dipole

c)

Nonpolar Molecule

d)

Intermolecular Force

30.

Which intermolecular force requires hydrogen and one of the following: nitrogen, oxygen, fluorine?

a)

Dipole-dipole

b)

Hydrogen bonding

c)

London dispersion forces

31.
If fluorine is stronger then carbon, what charge will the fluorine receive?
a)
negative
b)
slight negative
c)
positive
d)
slight positive
32.
Intermolecular forces are the forces
a)
within molecules
b)
between molecules
33.
Does CH4 have hydrogen bonding?
a)
yes
b)
no
34.
Does NH3 have hydrogen bonding?
a)
yes
b)
no
35.

What kind of force is the arrow pointing to?

a)

Intramolecular Force

b)

Intermolecular Force

36.

Which sample has hydrogen bonding?

a)

H2S

b)

CH4

c)

NH3

d)

HI

37.

Water has an unusually high boiling point for a molecular compound because it has

a)

hydrogen bonding

b)

ion-ion attractions

c)

a high density

d)

a large gram formula mass

38.

Which substance has the weakest intermolecular forces?

a)

Substance A, boiling point of 75 °C

b)

Substance B, boiling point of 105 °C

c)

Substance C, boiling point of 25 °C

d)

Substance d, boiling point of 45 °C

39.

________________________ have the strongest intermolecular forces of attraction.

a)

Dipole- Dipole

b)

Dispersion

c)

Hydrogen Bonds

40.

Intermolecular forces for: CO2

a)

Dispersion Force

b)

Dipole dipole

c)

Hydrogen bonding

41.
London forces are stronger in heavier atoms or molecules, and weaker in lighter atoms or molecules.  Which of these has the strongest London forces?
a)
F2
b)
Br2
c)
I2
d)
Cl2
42.
Rank these in order of strength:
covalent bond
London forces
hydrogen bond
dipole-dipole attraction
a)
dipole-dipole>covalent bond>hydrogen bond>London
b)
London>dipole-diple>hydrogen bond>covalent bond
c)
covalent bond>hydrogen bond>dipole-dipole>London
d)
hydrogen bond>dipole-dipole>London>covalent bond
43.

Which of the following will NOT have hydrogen bonding?

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.
What is the MOLECULAR geometry of the molecule?
a)
Linear
b)
Bent
c)
Trigonal Planar
d)
Seesaw
45.
What is the MOLECULAR geometry of the central oxygen?
a)
Linear
b)
Trigonal Planar
c)
Bent
d)
Tetrahedral
46.
VSEPR theory is to
a)
determine the number of bonding and lone pairs electrons
b)
determine the number of ECC
c)
determine the shape and geometry of molecule
d)
determine the lewis structure of molecule
47.
What is the measure of a tetrahedral bond angle?
a)
90 Degrees
b)
109.5 Degrees
c)
120 Degrees
d)
180 Degrees
48.
Which of the following shapes has unshared pairs of electrons on the central atom? 
a)
Bipyramidal
b)
Bent
c)
Trigonal Planar
d)
Tetrahedral
49.
Which molecule would have this shape?
a)
BF3
b)
CH4
c)
PCl5
d)
CO2
50.
Which of the following molecular shapes would have a bond angle of 180 Degrees?
a)
Bent
b)
Trigonal Planar
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
51.
Who could this molecule be?
a)
CH4
b)
CO2
c)
PCl5
d)
BF3
52.
Who could this be?
a)
H2O
b)
NH3
c)
CO2
d)
CH4
53.

What shape would PH3 have?

a)

Trigonal Planar

b)

Trigonal pyramidal

c)

Bent

d)

Linear

54.

What is the oxidation number of N in NO2-1?

a)

-3

b)

+4

c)

-2

d)

+3

55.
What is oxidation number of H in CaH2?
a)
+1
b)
-1
c)
0
d)
+2
56.
What is the reducing agent of this reaction?
3Mg + N2−−−−> Mg3N2
a)
Mg
b)
N2
c)
Mg3N2
d)
MgN
57.

Which of these is not a redox reaction?

a)

Cu2O + H2SO4 ⟶ CuSO4 + Cu + H2O

b)

MgO + 2HCl ⟶ MgCl2 + H2O

c)

SnCl2 + HgCl2 ⟶ Hg + SnCl4

d)

MnO2 + 4HCl ⟶ MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2

58.

sodium nitrate (+heat) →

a)

sodium nitrite + oxygen

b)

sodium nitrate + oxygen

c)

sodium oxide + nitrogen dioxide

d)

sodium oxide + nitrogen dioxide + oxygen

59.

calcium nitrate (+heat) →

a)

calcium oxide + nitrogen dioxide + oxygen

b)

calcium nitrite + oxygen

c)

calcium + nitrogen dioxide + oxygen

d)

calcium oxide + nitrogen dioxide

60.

The nitrates of Group 2 elements are decomposed by heat. Which of these nitrates in Group 2 has the lowest thermal stability?

a)

Beryllium nitrate

b)

Magnesium nitrate

c)

Calcium nitrate

d)

Barium nitrate

61.

The table shows the decomposition temperature of the carbonates of Group 2 elements.


Why is BeCO3 unstable thermally?

a)

The electron cloud of the Be2+ ion is polarised by the CO32– ion.

b)

The electron cloud of the CO32– ion is polarised by the Be2+ ion.

c)

Going down Group 2, the size of the cation increases and the polarisation of the anion by the cation becomes greater.

d)

A small cation absorbs energy more efficiently and can be excited to a higher energy level which is unstable.

62.

Chlorine compounds show oxidation states ranging from –1 to +7. What are the reagent(s) and conditions necessary for the oxidation of elemental chlorine into a compound containing chlorine in the +5 oxidation state?

a)

AgNO3(aq) followed by NH3(aq) at room temperature

b)

concentrated H2SO4 at room temperature

c)

cold dilute NaOH(aq)

d)

hot concentrated NaOH(aq)

63.

which statement is true about halogens?

a)

form covalent compounds with other non-metallic elements

b)

A less reactive halogen will displace a more reactive element form its ionic salt

c)

Form ionic compound with hydrogen

d)

form negative ion of charge -2

64.

which property of halogens increases from fluorine to iodine

a)

electronegativity of elements

b)

oxidizing power of elements

c)

bond length in the halogen molecule

d)

First ionization energy

65.

silver nitrate is added to an aqueous solution containing Br- to give a precipitate X, which is then tested for its solubility in concentrated ammonia. which of the following correctly describes the the colour of X and its solubility in ammonia.

a)

white insoluble

b)

cream slightly soluble

c)

white slightly soluble

d)

yellow insoluble

66.

An excess of aqueous solution of silver nitrate is added to an aqueous solution containing both potassium chloride and potassium bromide. the precipitate formed is the filtered off and washed with distilled water. The precipitate is then shaken with aqueous ammonia and filtered off again.which ion does the final filtrate contain?

a)

chloride

b)

silver

c)

iodide

d)

potassium

67.

IUPAC Name

a)

2,3-dimethyl-1-ene

b)

2,3-dimethyl-2-ene

c)

2,3-dimethyl-4-ene

d)

2,3-methyl-1-ene

68.

3-methylhexan-1-ol

a)

b)

c)

d)

69.

octanal

a)

b)

c)

d)

70.

4-methyl-nonan-5-one

a)

b)

c)

d)

71.

IUPAC Name

a)

2,4-dimethyl hexanoic acid

b)

2,4-dimethyl hexan-1- oic acid

c)

1,3-dimethyl hexanoic acid

d)

1,3-dimethyl hexan-1- oic acid

72.

propanamide

a)

b)

c)

d)

73.

IUPAC Name

a)

decanamine

b)

decanamide

c)

decan-3-amine

d)

1-eyhyl-octan-1-amine

74.

Hydrocarbon?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

75.

Give the IUPAC name of the compound above.

(a)  

76.

Give the IUPAC name of compound above.

(a)  

77.

Give the IUPAC name the compound above.

(a)  

78.

Give the IUPAC name of compound above.

(a)  

79.



(a)  

80.

Give the IUPAC name of the compound above.

(a)  

81.

Give the IUPAC name of the compound above.

(a)  

82.



(a)  

83.

Give the IUPAC name of the compound above.

(a)  

84.

Give the IUPAC name of the compound above.

(a)  

85.

Give the IUPAC name of compound above.

(a)  

86.

Which is the correct structure of 2,2,4-trimethylpentane

a)
b)
c)
d)
87.

What is a free radical?

a)

An electron donor

b)

An electron acceptor

c)

A species with an unpaired electron

d)

A proton donor

88.

Methane reacts with chlorine in a free radical substitution reaction. Which of these is an essential condition?

a)

An acid catalyst

b)

A low temperature

c)

UV light

d)

A low pressure

89.
Name this alkane
a)
Methane
b)
Ethane
c)
Propane
d)
Butane
90.
The "ane" ending in "alkane" tells someone that they are dealing with _________-bonded carbons.
a)
single
b)
double
c)
triple
d)
quadruple
91.
Give the name of this compound...
C3H8
a)
Propene
b)
Butane
c)
Butene
d)
Propane
92.
The molecular formula for Heptane is
a)
C4H10
b)
C8H18
c)
C5H12
d)
C7H16
93.

Which of the following statements concerning the reaction of methane with bromine is/are correct?

(1) It is an addition reaction.

(2) It is a substitution reaction.

(3) A similar reaction will occur if propane is used instead of methane.

a)

(1) only

b)

(2) only

c)

(1) and (3) only

d)

(2) and (3) only

94.
What is the general formula for saturated hydrocarbons?
a)
CnH2n
b)
CnHn+1
c)
CnH2n+1
d)
CnH2n+2
95.

Which correctly represents an incomplete combustion of pentane?

a)

C5H12 + 8O2 ⟶ 5CO2 + 6H2O

b)

C5H12 + 8O2 ⟶ 4CO + CO2 + 6H2O

c)

C5H12 + 6O2 ⟶ 4CO + CO2 + 6H2O

d)

C5H12 + 5O2 ⟶ 4CO + CO2 + 4H2O + 2H2

96.

Which equation represents a termination step?

a)
b)
c)
d)
97.

In the fractionating column, which part is the hottest?

a)

The top

b)

The middle

c)

The bottom

98.

Separates crude oil into similar sized molecules

a)

Fractional Distillation

b)

Cracking

99.

An example of a thermal decomposition reaction

a)

Fractional Distillation

b)

Cracking

100.

Which equation is a propagation step in the conversion of trichloromethane into tetrachloromethane by reaction with chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light?

a)

CHCl3 + Cl2 ⟶ CCl4 + HCl

b)

●CCl3 + ●Cl ⟶ CCl4

c)

CHCl3 + ●Cl ⟶ CCl4 + ●H

d)

●CCl3 + Cl2 ⟶ CCl4 + ●Cl

101.

Each C–X bond is hydrolysed at a different rate.


Which is the correct order of this rate and explanation?

a)

fastest C–F ... C–I slowest BECAUSE fluorine is the most reactive halogen

b)

fastest C–F ... C–I slowest BECAUSE fluorine is the most electronegative

c)

fastest C–I ... C–F slowest BECAUSE iodine has a larger atomic radius

d)

fastest C–I ... C–F slowest BECAUSE C–I has the lowest bond enthalpy

102.

Which is the best definition of a nucleophile?

a)

...is an electron pair donor

b)

...is attracted to an electrophile

c)

...is where a curly arrow starts

d)

...is a region of electron density

103.

A primary alkyl halide would prefer to undergo _____________.

a)

SN1 reaction

b)

SN2 reaction

c)

α–Elimination

d)

Racemisation

104.

Haloalkane is a polar molecule that undergoes nucleophilic substitution through SN1 and SN2. Arrange the following haloalkanes in order of increasing rate of unimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction:

I. 2-chloro-2-methylpropane

II. 2-chlorobutane

III. 1-chlorobutane

a)

I< II < III

b)

I< III < II

c)

III< I < II

d)

III< II < I

105.

Name this haloalkane:

a)

1,1-difluoropropane

b)

1-difluoropropane

c)

1-fluorobutane

d)

difluorobutane

106.

In which one of the following reactions is the standard enthalpy change equal to the standard enthalpy of formation of lithium fluoride?

a)

Li(g) + F(g) → LiF(s)

b)

Li+(g) + F(g) → LiF(s)

c)

Li+(aq) + F(g) → LiF(s)

d)

Li(s) + 0.5F2(g) → LiF(s)

107.

What is the enthalpy of formation of buta-1,3-diene, C4H6(g)?

a)

+112 kJ mol–1

b)

–112 kJ mol–1

c)

+746 kJ mol–1

d)

–746 kJ mol–1

108.

The table shows the standard enthalpy of formation, ΔfHθ, for some of the substances in the reaction


C2H6(g) + 6F2(g) ⟶ C2F6(g) + 6HF(g) ΔHθ = −2898 kJ mol−1


What is the standard enthalpy of formation, in kJ mol−1, for HF(g)?

a)

−1638

b)

−273

c)

+273

d)

+1638

109.

This question is about the reaction given below.


CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g)


Enthalpy data for the reacting species are given in the table.


The standard enthalpy change for this reaction of carbon monoxide and steam is

a)

+42 kJ mol−1

b)

−42 kJ mol−1

c)

+262 kJ mol−1

d)

−262 kJ mol−1

110.

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of a compound is formed from its elements in their standard states under standard conditions. This is the enthalpy of.....

a)

Combustion

b)

Formation

c)

Lattice breaking

d)

Ionisation

111.

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of aqueous ions is formed from gaseous ions

a)

Formation

b)

Combustion

c)

Hydration

d)

Lattice breaking

112.

The enthalpy change when 1 mole of 1+ ions is formed from 1 mole of gaseous atoms.

a)

Lattice breaking

b)

Atomisation

c)

Ionisation

d)

Formation

113.

Cl (g) + e- --> Cl- (g)

a)

Ionisation

b)

Electron Affinity

c)

Combustion

d)

Formation

114.

Na+ (g) + Cl- (g) --> Na+ (aq) + Cl- (aq)

a)

Formation

b)

Solution

c)

Combustion

d)

Hydration

115.

½ H2 (g) + ½ Cl2 (g) --> HCl (g)

a)

Formation

b)

Combustion

c)

Atomisation

d)

Ionisation

116.

A sample of N2O4(g) is placed into an evacuated container at 373K and allowed to undergo the reversible reaction N2O4(g) ⇄ 2 NO2(g). The concentration of each species is measured over time, and the data are used to make the graph shown above. Which of the following identifies when equilibrium is first reached and provides a correct explanation?

a)

At 14 seconds, because [N2O4] is twice [NO2], which implies that the forward and reverse reaction rates are equal.

b)

At 23 seconds, because [NO2] equals [N2O4], which shows that equal concentrations are present at equilibrium.

c)

At 40 seconds, because [NO2] is twice [N2O4], which matches the stoichiometry of the balanced chemical equation.

d)

At 60 seconds, because [NO2] and [N2O4] remain constant, indicating that the forward and reverse reaction rates are equal.

117.
If the equilibrium constant is much less than one (K << 1) then
a)
Equilibrium is not established.
b)
Equilibrium lies to the right (products are favored)
c)
Equilibrium lies to the left (reactants are favored)
d)
Neither products or reactants are favored.
118.
N2O4(g) ↔ 2 NO2(g)
What is the concentration equilibrium constant expression?
a)
K= [NO2]2/[N2O4]
b)
K= [N2O4]/[NO2]2
c)
K= [N2O4]2/[NO2]
d)
K= [NO2]/[N2O4]2
119.
N2O4(g) ↔ 2 NO2(g)
What is the equilibrium constant expression?
a)
K= (PNO2)2/ (PN2O4)
b)
K= (PN2O4) / (PNO2)2
c)
K= (PN2O4)/ (PNO2)
d)
K= (PNO2) / (PN2O4)2
120.
What is the equilibrium-constant expression for 
CO2(g) + H2(g) ↔ CO(g) + H2O(l)
a)
Kc= [CO][H2O] / [CO2][H2]  
b)
Kc= [CO2][H2] / [CO]
c)
Kc= [CO2][H2] / [CO][H2O]
d)
Kc= [CO] / [CO2][H2]  
121.
What is the equilibrium expression for:
Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) <--> 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g)
a)
([Fe]3[H2O]4 ) / ([Fe3O4][H2]4)
b)
([Fe3O4][H2]4)/ ([Fe]3[H2O]4)
c)
[H2O]4 / [H2]4
d)
([Fe][H2O]) / ([Fe3O4][H2])
122.
Keq < 1
a)
There are more products than reactants when the reaction reached equilibrium.
b)
There are more reactant than products when the reaction reached equilibrium.
c)
The amount of reactants is equal to the amount of products.
123.
What kind of equilibrium does the reaction below show?
CaCO3 (s) ⇌  CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
a)
Heterogeneous equilibrium, all the reactants and products are in the same physical state.
b)
Homogeneous equilibrium, all the reactants and products are in the same physical state.
c)
Heterogeneous equilibrium, the reactants and products are present in more than one physical state
d)
Homogeneous equilibrium, the reactants and products are present in more than one physical state
124.
An equilibrium constant with a large magnitude indicates…
a)
A very fast reaction
b)
More products at equilibrium
c)
More reactants at equilibrium
d)
nothing, without considering the stoichiometry of the reaction
125.
Define chemical equilibrium.
a)
A reaction is reversible.
b)
The concentration of the reactants is equal to the concentration of the products.
c)
The rate of a forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
d)
The reaction stops and no further change in concentration occurs.
126.

Hydrogen can be produced by this reaction.


CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g)


In an experiment 4.20 mol of carbon monoxide were mixed with 2.00 mol of steam. When the reaction reached equilibrium, 1.60 mol of hydrogen had been formed.


What is the value of the equilibrium constant, Kc, for this reaction?

a)

0.30

b)

0.41

c)

1.54

d)

2.46

127.

When one mole of ammonia is heated to a given temperature, 50% of the compound dissociates and the following equilibrium is established.


NH3(g) ⇌ 0.5N2(g) + 1.5H2(g)


What is the total number of moles of gas present in this equilibrium mixture?

a)

1.5

b)

2.0

c)

2.5

d)

3.0

128.

A and B react together in this reversible reaction.


A + 3BC + 2D


A mixture of 10 mol of A and 10 mol of B were left to reach equilibrium. The equilibrium mixture contained 4 mol of B.


What is the total amount, in moles, of substances in the equilibrium mixture?

a)

14

b)

16

c)

18

d)

20

129.

Ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol in a reversible reaction represented by the equation below.

In an experiment 3.0 mol of ethanoic acid were mixed with 1.0 mol of ethanol and when the reaction had reached equilibrium 0.9 mol of water had been formed.


CH3COOH(l) + C2H5OH(l) ⇌ CH3COOC2H5(l) + H2O(l)


The equilibrium constant for the reaction under these conditions is

a)

0.20

b)

0.23

c)

3.9

d)

4.3

130.
Given: 2A(g) <=> 2B(g) + C(g). At a particular temperature, Kc = 16000.
Raising the pressure, by decreasing the volume of the container, will...
a)
cause the value of Kc to increase
b)
cause the value of Kc to decrease
c)
have no effect on the value of Kc as temperature does not change
d)
favour the forward reaction
131.

Which statement about Kp is correct for this reaction in the gas phase?


W + X + Y2 ⇌ WXY + Y

ΔH = −46 kJ mol−1

a)

The value of Kp is independent of pressure.

b)

The value of Kp increases as pressure increases.

c)

The value of Kp increases as temperature increases.

d)

The value of Kp is independent of temperature.

132.

Which change would alter the value of the equilibrium constant (Kp) for this reaction?


2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g)

a)

Increasing the total pressure of the system.

b)

Increasing the concentration of sulfur trioxide.

c)

Increasing the concentration of sulfur dioxide.

d)

Increasing the temperature

133.

Which statement is not correct about the industrial preparation of ethanol by the hydration of ethene at 300 °C?


C2H4(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ C2H5OH(g) ∆H = –46 kJ mol–1

a)

The reaction is catalysed by an acid.

b)

The higher the pressure, the higher the equilibrium yield of ethanol.

c)

The higher the temperature, the higher the equilibrium yield of ethanol.

d)

A low equilibrium yield of ethanol is acceptable because unreacted ethene is recycled.

134.

For this reaction at equilibrium, which combination of temperature and pressure would give the greatest equilibrium yield of products?


W(g) + X(g) ⇌ 2Y(g) + Z(g) ∆H = +47 kJ mol–1

a)

High pressure and high temperature

b)

High pressure and low temperature

c)

Low pressure and high temperature

d)

Low pressure and low temperature

135.

The forward reaction in this equilibrium is endothermic


COCl2 (g) ⇌ CO(g) + Cl2 (g)


Which statement is correct?

a)

If the total pressure is increased at constant temperature, the proportion of COCl2 in the equilibrium mixture will decrease

b)

Use of a catalyst will increase the proportion of COCl2 in the equilibrium mixture at constant temperature and pressure

c)

Reducing the equilibrium concentration of CO will increase the value of the equilibrium constant

d)

Raising the temperature from 373 K to 473 K will increase the value of the equilibrium constant