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Final SMS2 (Last)

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 3hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What does NOT happen during interphase?
a)
growth
b)
DNA replication 
c)
obtaining nutrients
d)
cell divison
2.
Cytokinesis is a phase of mitosis. 
a)
True
b)
False 
3.
Cells spend the majority of their lives in
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Synthesis 
d)
Gap 2
4.

Cells of organisms must go through cell division for?

a)

growth

b)

repair of damaged cells

c)

replacement of dying cells.

d)

All of these

5.

DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.

a)

Gap 1

b)

Synthesis (S phase)

c)

Gap 2

d)

Gap 0

6.
What is cytokinesis?
a)
This is when two cells merge together to make one giant cell.
b)
The stage where chromosomes migrate to the opposite ends of the cell. 
c)
The stage of the cell cycle where the rest of the cell divides after mitosis is complete.
d)
The stage in which DNA condenses into chromosomes.
7.
Identify the parts of the nucleotide shown:
a)
1) Ribose Sugar      2) Phosphate 
3)  Nitrogen Base
b)
1) Deoxyribose Sugar
2) Phosphate
3) Nitrogen Base
c)
1) Phosphate
2) Ribose Sugar
3) Nitrogen Base
d)
1)  Phosphate
2) Deoxyribose Sugar
3)  Nitrogen Base
8.
What occurs during G1?
a)
Checkpoint after S phase
b)
Chromosomes line up at the equator.
c)
The cell grows and develops.
d)
Spindle fibers separate chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell. 
9.
True or False:
Normal cells grow and divide continuously.
a)
True
b)
False
10.

During most of interphase, DNA is found in a relaxed form called

a)

chromosome

b)

centromere

c)

centriole

d)

chromatin

11.

During most of interphase, DNA is found in a relaxed form called

a)

chromosome

b)

centromere

c)

centriole

d)

chromatin

12.

During mitosis, DNA is found in the condensed form called a

a)

chromosome

b)

centromere

c)

centriole

d)

chromatin

13.

In prophase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

14.

In metaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

15.

In anaphase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

16.

In telophase of mitosis, chromosomes

a)

form and the nuclear envelope disappears.

b)

are pulled toward opposite ends of the cell.

c)

chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

d)

chromosomes begin to decondense and the two new nuclei begin to form.

17.

After mitosis, the cytoplasm and organelles are divided between the two new forming cells in a process called

a)

centriole

b)

chromatin

c)

cytokinesis

d)

centromere

18.

This process is the programmed death of a cell

a)

stem cell

b)

regulation

c)

apoptosis

d)

cytocide

19.

When cells go through mitosis repeatedly without entering interphase, this results

a)

arthritis

b)

cancer

c)

mutation

d)

diabetes

20.

What is the scientific term that refers to sex cells?

a)

autosome

b)

gamete

c)

karyotype

d)

chromosome

21.

The exchange of genetic information that insures that every gamete is unique is referred to as

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

reduction division

d)

crossing over

22.

Name the stage: Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

23.

Name the stage: two nuclei are formed enclosed by nuclear membranes

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

24.

Name the stage: chromosomes condense and become visible

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

25.

Name the stage: Chromosomes pull away from each other and move to opposite sides of the cell

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

26.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

27.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

28.

These building blocks consist of a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base.

a)

Ribose

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Gene

d)

Protein

29.

A string of nucleotides that contain the information to make a specific protein

a)

Ribose

b)

Amino Acids

c)

tRNA

d)

Gene

30.

During translation, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for delivering amino acids to help make a protein.

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

dRNA

31.

There are a total of ____ different amino acids

a)

20

b)

1

c)

4

d)

unlimited

32.

mRNA occurs during this process

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Delivery

33.
The process where DNA is transcribed to mRNA happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
34.
The function of ______ is to combine with proteins to form ribosomes.
a)
rRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
mRNA
d)
DNA
35.
The process where mRNA is read and made into an amino acid chain.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
36.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
37.
What is the mRNA strand that would result from the DNA template strand CCTA?
a)
GGAT
b)
CCAT
c)
GGAU
d)
CCAU
38.
The process where mRNA is translated into amino acids happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
39.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
40.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
41.

If the dominant trait is having freckles (F) and the recessive trait is no freckles (f), which allele combination(s) below would represent a person who has freckles? (select all that apply)

a)

FF

b)

Ff

c)

ff

42.
What is the phenotype of the offspring? (A-Brown hair; a-blond hair) 
a)
50 % Brown Hair and 50% Blond Hair 
b)
25 % Brown Hair and 75% Blond Hair 
c)
75 % Brown Hair and 25% Blond Hair 
d)
0% Brown Hair and 100% Blond Hair 
43.

The combination of genes a person has, represented by letters, is their...

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Chromosome

d)

Punnett Square

44.

What belongs in the last box?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

d)

ff

45.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
46.

Look at the punnett square shown. What allele pair would replace the "?"

a)

WW

b)

Ww

c)

ww

47.

What belongs in Box 4?

a)

Y

b)

YY

c)

Yy

d)

yy

48.

Look at the punnett square. What is the probability that the offspring would have homozygous alleles for the trait?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

e)

0%

49.

What is the probability & phenotype of the offspring? (A-Brown hair; a-blond hair)

a)

50% Brown Hair and 50% Blond Hair

b)

25 % Brown Hair and 75% Blond Hair

c)

75 % Brown Hair and 25% Blond Hair

d)

0% Brown Hair and 100% Blond Hair

50.

Fill in the Yellow Box

a)

Bb

b)

BB

c)

bb

51.

Which of the following allele pairs is heterozygous?

a)

RR

b)

Qq

c)

ss

52.
Mutations are a source of variations.
a)
True
b)
False
53.

Mutations are always harmful to an organism's survival.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Over time natural selection can change how often a trait is seen within a population.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Some species produce an over abundance of eggs because not all of them will survive.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Before the industrial revolution the birds were eating more black moths. After the industrial revolution the birds started eating more white moths. Why

a)

The birds thought the white moths tasted better.

b)

There were not any black moths to eat

c)

The white moths stood out on the dark trees so the birds could see them easier.

57.

Animals compete for resources in the environment. This will affect an organism's survival.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Which of the following are factors that affect the survival of species?

a)

Overproduction

b)

Variation

c)

Competition

d)

All of the above

59.

A phenotype that improves an organism’s chance of survival in their environment is considered a(n) ____________.

a)

natural selection

b)

adaption

c)

speciation

60.

Many different groups of organisms have wings, even though they do not share a recent common ancestor. This is because they evolved in environments with similar selective pressures. Wings are an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

61.

Match the following pictures with the words they represent

a)
1.

Analogous Structure

b)
2.

Homologous Structure

c)
3.

Artificial selection

d)
4.

Natural selection

62.

Match the following

a)
1.

Organism

b)
2.

Population

c)
3.

Community

d)
4.

ecosystem

e)
5.

biosphere

63.

Homologous structures and vestigial structures show evidence of

a)

divergent evolution

b)

convergent evolution

c)

both divergent and convergent evolution

d)

analogous structures

64.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
65.
This mechanism of evolution occurs when populations migrate.
a)
Extinction
b)
Gene flow
c)
Genetic drift
d)
Natural Selection
66.

In a population of ladybugs, black bugs are more successful in escaping predators. Overtime, this gene becomes more popular in the population and the ladybug population loses its red color. This is an example of?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Mutation

c)

Genetic Drift

d)

Gene Flow

67.

One species benefits, the other is unaffected

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

68.

Honey guide birds alert and direct badgers to bee hives. The badgers then expose the hives and feed on the honey first. Then, the honey guide birds eat as well.

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

69.

Tapeworms reside in human intestine and take nutrients from the human

a)

symbiosis

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

70.

Vines grow on a tree. The vines get light but the tree is not affected. What kind of relationship is this?

a)

Competition

b)

Mutualism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Parasitism

71.
An organism that helps to recycle nutrients within an ecosystem by eating dead or decaying organisms is a:
a)

Predator

b)

Autotroph

c)

Producer

d)

Decomposer

72.

The ecological role an organism performs in their specific environment is considered the organism's...

a)

Habitat

b)

Population

c)

Biome

d)

Niche

73.
What are plants called in a food chain?
a)

Producers /Autotrophs

b)

Consumers /Heterotrophs

c)

Decomposers

d)

Scavengers

74.

Match the following

a)

Decomposer

1.

This is an organism that breaks down and gains nutrients from dead organisms.

b)

Predator

2.

This is an animal that lives by preying on other animals.

c)

Producer

3.

This is an organism that supplies matter and energy, also known as an autotroph.

d)

Consumer

4.

This is an organism that relies on other organisms for its food and energy supply; heterotroph

e)

Parasite

5.

This is an organism which feeds on, but usually does not kill, a larger organism

75.

What happens to the amount of available energy in the pyramid as it moves up through the different levels?

a)

it increases

b)

it decreases

c)

it remains the same

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