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Sports Medicine Final

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main supporting ligament of the medial longitudinal arch?

a)

The deltoid

b)

The long plantar ligament

c)

The plantar aponeurosis

d)

The plantar calcaneonavicular

2.

What muscle passes behind the medial malleolus?

a)

The peroneus brevis

b)

The tibialis posterior

c)

The flexor digitorum brevis

d)

The extensor hallucis longus

3.

What is a stress fracture of the second metatarsal called?

a)

Jones fracture

b)

Colles fracture

c)

Runners fracture

d)

March fracture

4.

What is a bunion formation also known as?

a)

Bunionette

b)

Exostosis

c)

Bone bruise

5.

A bunion is usually associated with a bone growth on:

a)

the first toe.

b)

any of the toes.

c)

the internal malleolus.

d)

the ball of the foot.

6.

What is another name for flat feet?

a)

Pes planus

b)

Pes equinus

c)

Pes cavus

d)

Hallux rigidus

7.

Pain on the anterior medial heel that occurs with the first steps in the morning is indicative of what condition?

a)

Calcaneal fractures

b)

Plantar fasciitis

c)

Calcaneal apophysitis

d)

Cuboid subluxation

8.

Pain over the shin (medial tibial aspect) could most commonly be related to what injury?

a)

Medial tibial stress syndrome

b)

sprain

c)

strain

d)

contusion

9.

Give 3 S&S of Shin Splints?

a)
Pain in the upper arm
b)
Swelling in the foot
c)
Pain along the inner edge of the shinbone, tenderness or soreness along the inner side of the lower leg, mild swelling in the lower leg
d)
Tenderness in the neck
10.

Why do we tape ankles?

a)
To improve blood circulation in the ankle
b)
To prevent ankle injuries
c)
To increase flexibility in the ankle
d)
To provide support and stability to the ankle joint.
11.

Each foot has _______ bones. _____tarsals, ________ metatarsals and ________ phalanges

(a)  

12.

What does PRICE stand for?

a)
Pain, Relief, Infection, Cold, and Exercise
b)
Prevention, Recovery, Inflammation, Cold, and Elevation
c)
Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, and Elevation
d)
Protection, Rest, Ice, Compression, and Dehydration
13.

The lateral malleolus is part of what bone?

a)
tibia
b)
humerus
c)
fibula
d)
patella
14.

What action at the ankle do the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles perform?

a)
Eversion
b)
Plantar flexion
c)
Dorsiflexion
d)
Inversion
15.

A(n) (a)   ankle sprain is most common and often results in injury to the lateral ligaments.

16.

Another name for flat feet is (a)   .

17.

Name the 4 muscles that make up the quadriceps muscle group?

a)
Tibialis anterior
b)
Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius
c)
Sartorius
d)

Biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, biceps femoris long head

18.

The bone that is the longest and strongest in the body is (a)   .

19.

Name 3 muscles that are responsible for knee flexion?

a)

Biceps femoris, Semitendinosus, Semimembranosus

b)

Quadriceps femoris, Sartorius, Gracilis

c)

Gastrocnemius, Soleus, Plantaris

d)

Rectus femoris, Vastus lateralis, Vastus medialis

20.

Name a special Test you would use to evaluate the ACL ligament?

a)
McMurray test
b)
Thessaly test
c)
Apprehension test
d)

Lachman's test

21.

What is the difference between knee valgus and knee varus?

a)
Knee valgus is when the knees are perfectly aligned, while knee varus is when the knees are slightly bent.
b)
Knee valgus is when the knees bow out away from each other, while knee varus is when the knees cave in towards each other.
c)
Knee valgus is when the knees are straight, while knee varus is when the knees are bent at a 90-degree angle.
d)
Knee valgus is when the knees cave in towards each other, while knee varus is when the knees bow out away from each other.
22.

Can you name a disease that is very common in growing adolescents that causes pain over the tibial tuberosity?

a)

Osgood-Schlatter disease

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Osteoporosis

d)

Gout

23.

Which of the following is a ligament that protects the knee from valgus stress and external tibial rotation?

a)

The gluteus maximus

b)

The posterior cruciate

c)

The medial collateral

d)

The adductor magnus

24.

Which of the following muscles allows for internal rotation of the tibia?

a)

The biceps femoris

b)

The vastus medialis

c)

The gastrocnemius

d)

The popliteus

25.

Running, jogging, and sprinting are examples of:

a)

the Lachman's test.

b)

varus stress tests.

c)

functional tests.

d)

the Apley's compression test.

26.

Which of the following is a mechanism of injury that leaves the posterior cruciate ligament at greatest risk for injury?

a)

Hyperextension of the knee

b)

Falling with the knee bent and the foot dorsiflexed

c)

Landing on the anterior aspect of the bent knee with the foot plantar flexed

d)

A valgus stress with the knee fully extended

27.

Loose bodies within the knee can result from:

a)

meniscal tear.

b)

osteochondritis dissecans.

c)

subluxating patella.

d)

softening cartilage.

28.

When is the anterior cruciate ligament most often injured?

a)

During deceleration with the knee in varus and the tibia internally rotated

b)

During acceleration with the knee in varus and the tibia externally rotated

c)

During deceleration with the knee in valgus and the tibia internally rotated

d)

During acceleration with the knee in valgus and the tibia externally rotated

29.

In football players, the hamstring muscles should have (a)   percent of the strength of the quadriceps muscles.

30.

Most injuries to the medial collateral ligament result from blows to the:

a)

medial aspect of the knee.

b)

lateral aspect of the knee.

c)

anterior aspect of the knee.

d)

posterior aspect of the knee.

31.

Which of the following is most likely to injure the medial meniscus?

a)

A varus force

b)

Hyperextension

c)

A valgus force

d)

A valgus force with rotation

32.

What is a common mechanism of an acromioclavicular (AC) sprain?

a)
Jumping from a high surface
b)
Direct trauma or falling onto an outstretched hand
c)
Eating spicy food
d)
Listening to loud music
33.

The four bones that make up the shoulder/upper arm complex are:

a)

Humerus, Scapula, Clavicle, Sternum

b)

Humerus, Scapula, Clavicle, Radius

c)

Humerus, Scapula, Clavicle, Ulna

d)

Humerus, Scapula, Clavicle, Acromion

34.

What Does SLAP stand for?

a)

Superior Labrum from Anterior to posterior

b)

supraspinatus Labrum anterior to posterior

c)

Superior Lumbar Anterior to posterior

d)

Superior Location from anterior to posterior

35.

The four deep muscles that stabilize the head of the humerus into the glenoid fossa are referred to as the rotator cuff. The four muscles are:

a)

Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor, Subscapularis

b)

Biceps Brachii, Triceps Brachii, Deltoid, Pectoralis Major

c)

Latissimus Dorsi, Trapezius, Rhomboid Major, Rhomboid Minor

d)

Serratus Anterior, Levator Scapulae, Pectoralis Minor, Subclavius

36.

The shoulder most commonly dislocates in the:

a)

anterior direction.

b)

inferior direction.

c)

medial direction.

d)

posterior direction.

37.

Which of the following is a muscle that is mainly responsible for the stabilization of the shoulder complex?

a)

The rhomboids

b)

The rotator cuff

c)

The deltoid

d)

The pectoralis major

38.

Which of the following is known as the true shoulder joint?

a)

The sternoclavicular joint

b)

The glenohumeral joint

c)

The acromioclavicular joint

d)

The scapulothoracic joint

39.

Which of the following is the reason that impingement injuries occur?

a)

A single traumatic event resulting in instability

b)

Repetitive overhead activities

c)

Direct impact to the shoulder

d)

A fall on an outstretched arm

40.

The ligament that extends from the ulna and forms a sling around the head of the radius is the:

a)

annular ligament.

b)

quadrate ligament.

c)

lateral collateral ligament.

d)

medial collateral ligament.

41.

Which nerve can become dislocated because of the cubitus valgus of the elbow?

a)

Median

b)

Musculocutaneous

c)

Radial

d)

Ulnar

42.

In the context of elbow movements, ________ occur at the humeroulnar and humeroradial joints.

a)

pronation and supination

b)

flexion and extension

c)

pronation and flexion

d)

supination and extension

43.

Which structure is most likely damaged when an athlete complains of paresthesia in the fourth and fifth fingers?

a)

The flexor digiti minimi

b)

The interosseus muscle

c)

The median nerve

d)

The ulnar nerve

44.

Which of the following is true of a Colles' fracture?

a)

It involves the distal end of the radius.

b)

It is caused by a fall that forces the forearm forward.

c)

It primarily harms the ligamentous tissue.

d)

It results from an inflammation of tendons.

45.

What type of fracture results from the radius being forced backward and upward (hyperextension)?

a)

Bowler's fracture

b)

A Colles' fracture

c)

De Quervain's fracture

d)

Smith's fracture

46.

Which of the following is true of carpal tunnel syndrome?

a)

It affects the feet.

b)

It is caused by repetitive hand movements.

c)

It is a type of cardiovascular disease.

d)

It primarily affects the shoulders.

47.

A wrist ganglion is often seen in sports and will most frequently appear:

a)

over the navicular bone.

b)

on the back of the wrist.

c)

on the palmar side of the wrist.

d)

at the ligamentous point on the wrist.

48.

Severe point tenderness in the anatomic snuffbox may indicate a:

a)

hamate fracture.

b)

boxer's fracture.

c)

scaphoid fracture.

d)

phalanx fracture.

49.

A deformity caused by jamming and avulsing the extensor tendon from its insertion is called the:

a)

gamekeeper's finger.

b)

mallet finger.

c)

jersey finger.

d)

boutonniere deformity.

50.

Which of the following results from a rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon?

a)

Jersey finger

b)

Boutonniere deformity

c)

Mallet finger

d)

Gamekeeper's thumb

51.

Which of the following muscles attach to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus?

a)

Forearm extensors and pronators

b)

Wrist flexors and supinators

c)

Forearm extensors and supinators

d)

Wrist flexors and pronators

52.

What are the bones highlighted called?

a)

Tarsals

b)

Metatarsals

c)

Phalanges

d)

Carpals

53.

In meniscus tear rehab, why is it important to strengthen the muscles around the knee?

a)

To increase the pressure on the meniscus

b)

To support and stabilize the knee joint

c)

Strengthening exercises are not recommended

d)

To prepare for knee replacement surgery

54.

What are the bones highlighted called?

a)

Shoulder Blades

b)

Scapula

c)

Ribs

d)

Calvicle

55.

What is the most common ankle sprain?

a)

Medial Ankle Sprain

b)

Lateral Ankle Sprain

c)

High Ankle Sprain

d)

MCL Sprain

56.

2

a)

phalanges

b)

DIP joint

c)

metacarpals

d)

MCP joint

57.

9

a)

phalanges

b)

DIP joint

c)

metacarpals

d)

MCP joint

58.

3

a)

phalanges

b)

DIP joint

c)

metacarpals

d)

MCP joint

59.

10

a)

phalanges

b)

DIP joint

c)

metacarpals

d)

MCP joint

60.

5

a)

scaphoid

b)

capitate

c)

hamate

d)

trapezium

61.
What is #7 identifying?
a)
Ischial Tuberosity
b)
Iliac Crest
c)
Acetabulum
d)
Obturator Foramen
62.
What is #4 identifying?
a)
ASIS
b)
PSIS
c)
AIIS
d)
PIIS
63.

What is #1?

a)

Pubis

b)

Illium

c)

Ischium

64.

What part of your pelvis are you touching when you put your hands on your hips?

a)

Greater Trochanter

b)

Iliac Crest

c)

Acetabulum

d)

Ischial Tuberosity

65.

This image represents the __________ skeleton.

a)

appendicular skeleton

b)

axial skeleton