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Unit 10 Quick fire Economics Quiz

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the term "Barriers to entry" refer to in a business context?

a)

The fluctuations in GDP that economies go through

b)

The difficulties that face potential new competitors in an industry

c)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

d)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

2.

What is the "Business cycle"?

a)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

b)

The fluctuations in GDP that economies go through

c)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

d)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

3.

What does "Claimant Count (CC)" measure?

a)

The number of people unemployed in the economy who are claiming unemployment benefits

b)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

c)

The responsiveness of quantity demanded of one good to a change in the price of another

d)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

4.

What is the "Consumer price index (CPI)" used to measure?

a)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

b)

The rate of inflation

c)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

d)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

5.

What causes "Cost-push inflation"?

a)

An increase in the costs of the factors of production

b)

A fall in demand for cars

c)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

d)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

6.

What does "Cross elasticity of demand (XED)" measure?

a)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

b)

The responsiveness of quantity demanded of one good to a change in the price of another

c)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

d)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

7.

What is "Cyclical unemployment"?

a)

Unemployment due to insufficient demand in the economy

b)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

c)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

d)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

8.

What does "Demand" refer to in economics?

a)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

b)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

c)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

d)

The fluctuations in GDP that economies go through

9.

What is "Demand-pull inflation"?

a)

Inflation due to excessive growth in demand in the economy

b)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

c)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

d)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

10.

What does "Economic growth" refer to?

a)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

b)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

c)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

d)

The increase in goods and services produced by a country

11.

What are "Economies of scale"?

a)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

b)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

c)

The reduction in average/unit costs as output increases

d)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

12.

What is "Equilibrium" in economics?

a)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

b)

The price at which demand is equal to supply

c)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

d)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

13.

What is the "European Union (EU)"?

a)

A single market allowing free movement of goods, capital, and labor between countries

b)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

c)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

d)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

14.

What is the "Eurozone"?

a)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

b)

The group of countries in Europe that use the euro as their currency

c)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

d)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

15.

What does "Exchange rate" refer to?

a)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

b)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

c)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

d)

The fluctuations in GDP that economies go through

16.

What is an "Export"?

a)

A good or service produced in one country and sold to consumers in overseas markets

b)

The price of one currency in terms of another currency

c)

The number of people unemployed in the economy

d)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing to purchase

17.

What are barriers to entry?

a)

Factors that make it easy for new competitors to enter an industry.

b)

Factors that prevent new competitors from entering an industry.

c)

Factors that increase the number of competitors in an industry.

d)

Factors that decrease the number of competitors in an industry.

18.

What does the Consumer Price Index (CPI) measure?

a)

The average price of goods and services in the economy.

b)

The total production of goods and services in the economy.

c)

The total income of consumers in the economy.

d)

The total expenditure of the government.

19.

What is cross elasticity of demand (XED)?

a)

The responsiveness of quantity demanded of one good to a change in the price of another.

b)

The responsiveness of quantity supplied of one good to a change in the price of another.

c)

The responsiveness of quantity demanded of one good to a change in consumer income.

d)

The responsiveness of quantity supplied of one good to a change in consumer income.

20.

What is cyclical unemployment?

a)

Unemployment due to seasonal changes in the economy.

b)

Unemployment due to insufficient demand in the economy.

c)

Unemployment due to technological advancements.

d)

Unemployment due to voluntary reasons.

21.

What is demand?

a)

The quantity of a good or service that consumers are willing and able to purchase at a given price in a given time period.

b)

The quantity of a good or service that producers are willing to supply at a given price in a given time period.

c)

The total production of goods and services in the economy.

d)

The total income of consumers in the economy.

22.

What is demand-pull inflation?

a)

Inflation caused by an increase in the costs of production.

b)

Inflation caused by excessive growth in demand in the economy.

c)

Inflation caused by a decrease in consumer demand.

d)

Inflation caused by a decrease in the costs of production.

23.

What is the role of the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) in the UK?

a)

To control the UK's fiscal policy

b)

To control the UK's monetary policy

c)

To regulate the stock market

d)

To manage the national debt

24.

What is the definition of monopolistic competition?

a)

A market structure with a single supplier

b)

A market structure where each firm is a small part of the total industry and produces slightly differentiated products

c)

A market dominated by a few firms

d)

A market with no competition

25.

What is a monopoly?

a)

A market structure with many small firms

b)

A single supplier that constitutes the entire industry

c)

A market with no barriers to entry

d)

A market with perfect competition

26.

What does the multiplier effect refer to?

a)

The increase in supply due to a price increase

b)

The decrease in demand due to a price increase

c)

The proportionately greater increase in overall economic activity and GDP due to an initial injection of money

d)

The reduction in national debt due to increased taxes

27.

What is national debt?

a)

The total amount of accumulated government borrowing over time

b)

The total amount of money in circulation

c)

The total value of a country's exports

d)

The total amount of private sector debt

28.

What is an oligopoly?

a)

A market with a single supplier

b)

A market dominated by a few firms

c)

A market with perfect competition

d)

A market with no barriers to entry

29.

What does price elasticity of demand (PED) measure?

a)

The responsiveness of supply to a change in price

b)

The responsiveness of demand to a change in price

c)

The total amount of goods supplied

d)

The total amount of goods demanded

30.

What does price elasticity of supply (PES) measure?

a)

The responsiveness of supply to a change in price

b)

The responsiveness of demand to a change in price

c)

The total amount of goods supplied

d)

The total amount of goods demanded

31.

What is productivity?

a)

The total amount of goods produced

b)

The output per worker

c)

The total amount of goods demanded

d)

The total amount of goods supplied

32.

What is the Retail Price Index (RPI)?

a)

An alternative measure of inflation that includes costs of housing

b)

A measure of the total amount of goods produced

c)

A measure of the total amount of goods demanded

d)

A measure of the total amount of goods supplied

33.

What is structural unemployment?

a)

Unemployment due to seasonal changes

b)

Unemployment due to the lack of the right skills for the jobs available

c)

Unemployment due to economic recession

d)

Unemployment due to voluntary reasons

34.

What is supply?

a)

The willingness and ability of producers to produce a quantity of a good or service at a given price in a given time period

b)

The total amount of goods demanded

c)

The total amount of goods produced

d)

The total amount of goods consumed

35.

Which market structure is characterized by numerous buyers and sellers trading identical goods with perfect information?

a)

Monopolistic Competition

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Monopoly

d)

Perfect Competition

36.

In which market structure do differentiated products attract specific buyer preferences, allowing some control over price?

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Monopolistic Competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Monopoly

37.

Which market structure involves a few dominant sellers controlling a significant market share and being interdependent in their pricing strategies?

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Monopolistic Competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Monopoly

38.

In which market structure does a single seller have exclusive control over a good or service, setting prices without direct competition?

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Monopolistic Competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Monopoly

39.

Which market structure is characterized by a single seller with no close substitutes?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Perfect

d)

Oligopoly

40.

In which market structure do producers have complete control over price and output?

a)

Monopolistic

b)

Perfect

c)

Monopoly

d)

Oligopoly

41.

Which market structure features many buyers and sellers with differentiated products?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Perfect

d)

Oligopoly

42.

In which market structure is there perfect information available to all participants?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Perfect

d)

Oligopoly

43.

Which market structure has no barriers to entry or exit?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Perfect

d)

Oligopoly

44.

In which market structure are products identical and perfectly divisible?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Perfect

d)

Oligopoly

45.

Which market structure is likely to have high producer profits in the long run due to product differentiation?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Perfect

d)

Oligopoly

46.

Which market structure is characterized by significant barriers to entry such as legal protection and patents?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic

c)

Perfect

d)

Oligopoly

47.

What is the term used to describe factors that can prevent or impede newcomers into a market or industry sector, and so limit competition?

a)

Market saturation

b)

Barriers to entry

c)

Competitive advantage

d)

Market segmentation

48.

Why are high capital costs considered a barrier to entry?

a)

They make it difficult for start-ups to enter the markets.

b)

They increase the profit margins for new businesses.

c)

They reduce the need for advertising.

d)

They simplify the production process.

49.

How do patents act as a barrier to entry?

a)

They increase the cost of production for competitors.

b)

They provide exclusive rights to produce a good for a given period.

c)

They reduce the need for market research.

d)

They simplify the distribution process.

50.

What are switching costs?

a)

Costs associated with starting a new business.

b)

Costs a consumer pays because of switching brands or products.

c)

Costs related to advertising and market research.

d)

Costs incurred from legal disputes.

51.

What are sunk costs?

4 lines
52.

What does the Law of Supply state?

a)

As the price of a good or service increases, the quantity supplied by producers decreases.

b)

As the price of a good or service decreases, the quantity supplied by producers increases.

c)

As the price of a good or service increases, the quantity supplied by producers also increases.

d)

As the price of a good or service remains constant, the quantity supplied by producers increases.

53.

Why do higher prices incentivize producers according to the Law of Supply?

a)

Higher prices reduce production costs.

b)

Higher prices attract new entrants to the market.

c)

Higher prices decrease the market competition.

d)

Higher prices lead to a decrease in demand.

54.

What does the Law of Demand state?

a)

As the price of a good or service increases, the quantity demanded by consumers increases.

b)

As the price of a good or service decreases, the quantity demanded by consumers decreases.

c)

As the price of a good or service increases, the quantity demanded by consumers decreases.

d)

As the price of a good or service remains constant, the quantity demanded by consumers increases.

55.

According to the Law of Demand, what happens when prices are higher?

a)

Consumers can afford more of the good/service.

b)

Consumers find it more attractive to switch to substitutes.

c)

Consumers buy more of the good/service.

d)

Consumers demand remains unchanged.

56.

What does the demand curve illustrate in the context of price and quantity demanded?

a)

The higher the price, the higher the quantity demanded.

b)

The higher the price, the lower the quantity demanded.

c)

The lower the price, the lower the quantity demanded.

d)

The price does not affect the quantity demanded.

57.

According to the graph, what is the quantity demanded when the price is £1.00?

a)

1,000

b)

800

c)

600

d)

400

58.

At what price is the quantity demanded 400 units?

a)

£0.50

b)

£0.75

c)

£1.00

d)

£1.25

59.

What is the quantity supplied when the price is £1.00?

a)

200

b)

400

c)

600

d)

800

60.

At what price is the quantity supplied 1,000 units?

a)

£0.50

b)

£0.75

c)

£1.25

d)

£1.50

61.

If the price increases from £0.75 to £1.25, by how many units does the quantity supplied increase?

a)

200 units

b)

400 units

c)

600 units

d)

800 units

62.

What is equilibrium in the context of supply and demand?

a)

A) A state where demand exceeds supply

b)

B) A state where supply exceeds demand

c)

C) A state where demand meets supply and they are balanced

d)

D) A state where there is no demand or supply

63.

What is another term for equilibrium in the market?

a)

A) Market imbalance

b)

B) Market clearing price

c)

C) Market surplus

d)

D) Market shortage

64.

What happens if there is a significant change in either supply or demand in an equilibrium state?

a)

A) The price remains the same

b)

B) The price adjusts, pushing the system towards a new equilibrium

c)

C) The demand decreases

d)

D) The supply increases

65.

What does the seesaw analogy in the context of equilibrium represent?

a)

A) The balance between supply and demand

b)

B) The imbalance between supply and demand

c)

C) The increase in supply

d)

D) The decrease in demand

66.

Which of the following factors can cause a shift in demand due to changes in the prices of related goods?

a)

Advertisement and branding

b)

Consumer tastes and preferences

c)

Substitutes

d)

Seasonal factors

67.

How can targeted advertising campaigns affect demand?

a)

They can decrease the demand for goods.

b)

They can increase the demand for goods.

c)

They have no impact on demand.

d)

They only affect the supply of goods.

68.

What happens to the demand for goods when people's incomes increase?

a)

Demand decreases.

b)

Demand remains the same.

c)

Demand increases.

d)

Demand fluctuates randomly.

69.

Which factor is linked to changes in demand due to fashion and advertisements?

a)

Income

b)

Number of consumers in market

c)

Consumer tastes and preferences

d)

Seasonal factors

70.

What is the effect of an increase in the number of consumers in the market on demand?

a)

Demand decreases.

b)

Demand remains the same.

c)

Demand increases.

d)

Demand fluctuates randomly.

71.

Which of the following is an example of a seasonal factor affecting demand?

a)

Increase in income

b)

Targeted advertising campaigns

c)

High demand for decorating materials before Easter

d)

Changes in consumer preferences

72.

What happens to the demand curve if the weather is nice outside?

a)

A) It shifts to the left

b)

B) It shifts to the right

c)

C) It remains unchanged

d)

D) It becomes vertical

73.

What happens to the demand curve if it’s a cold day?

a)

A) It shifts to the left

b)

B) It shifts to the right

c)

C) It remains unchanged

d)

D) It becomes horizontal

74.

What happens to the demand curve if there are more buyers?

a)

A) It shifts to the left

b)

B) It shifts to the right

c)

C) It remains unchanged

d)

D) It becomes vertical

75.

What happens to the demand curve if there are less buyers?

a)

A) It shifts to the left

b)

B) It shifts to the right

c)

C) It remains unchanged

d)

D) It becomes horizontal

76.

What happens to the demand curve if there are no substitutes?

a)

A) It shifts to the left

b)

B) It shifts to the right

c)

C) It remains unchanged

d)

D) It becomes vertical

77.

What happens to the demand curve if there are more substitutes?

a)

A) It shifts to the left

b)

B) It shifts to the right

c)

C) It remains unchanged

d)

D) It becomes horizontal

78.

Which of the following factors can influence the volume of production or supply by improving the technique of production?

a)

Cost of production

b)

Government policies and laws

c)

Improvements in productivity

d)

External factors

79.

What happens to the supply of a commodity if the prices of the factors of production become cheap?

a)

The supply will decrease

b)

The supply will increase

c)

The supply will remain the same

d)

The supply will fluctuate

80.

How can government policies and laws affect the supply of a commodity?

a)

By changing the prices of the factors of production

b)

By improving the technique of production

c)

By imposing higher import duties or lower duties

d)

By affecting external factors like weather

81.

Which of the following is an example of an external factor that can affect production adversely?

a)

Improvements in productivity

b)

Cost of production

c)

Government policies and laws

d)

Natural disasters

82.

What happens to the supply curve when the price of milk goes up?

a)

Shifts to the right

b)

Shifts to the left

c)

Remains unchanged

d)

Shifts downward

83.

How does the introduction of a new machine that makes ice cream quicker affect the supply curve?

a)

Shifts to the left

b)

Shifts to the right

c)

Remains unchanged

d)

Shifts downward

84.

What is the effect on the supply curve if a new tax law is introduced?

a)

Shifts to the right

b)

Shifts to the left

c)

Remains unchanged

d)

Shifts upward

85.

How do subsidies from the government affect the supply curve?

a)

Shifts to the left

b)

Shifts to the right

c)

Remains unchanged

d)

Shifts downward

86.

What happens to the supply curve when there are fewer sellers of ice cream?

a)

Shifts to the right

b)

Shifts to the left

c)

Remains unchanged

d)

Shifts upward

87.

What is the effect on the supply curve when there are more sellers of ice cream?

a)

Shifts to the right

b)

Shifts to the left

c)

Remains unchanged

d)

Shifts downward

88.

What does elasticity of demand measure?

a)

How much demand for a good or service changes in response to a change in price

b)

How much supply of a good or service changes in response to a change in price

c)

The total revenue generated from the sale of a good or service

d)

The fixed cost of producing a good or service

89.

If the price elasticity of demand (PED) is greater than 1, the demand is considered to be:

a)

Inelastic

b)

Elastic

c)

Unitary

d)

Perfectly inelastic