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A-level Business CHRISTMAS REVISION

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an example of internal finance?

a)

a) Bank loan

b)

b) Selling shares

c)

c) Retained profits

d)

d) Trade credit

2.

What is the main advantage of using retained profits as a source of finance?

a)

No interest payments

b)

No need to repay

c)

Ownership dilution

d)

Immediate availability

3.

Which source of finance involves selling off a company's fixed assets?

a)

Bank overdraft

b)

Issuing debentures

c)

Asset sales

d)

Trade credit

4.

Which of the following is considered a short-term source of finance?

a)

Issuing shares

b)

Retained earnings

c)

Trade credit

d)

Leasing

5.

What is the key disadvantage of using a bank overdraft as a source of finance?

a)

High-interest rates

b)

Loss of control

6.

Which source of finance is best described as borrowing money that is repaid in instalments over a set period of time?

a)

Trade credit

b)

Leasing

c)

Bank loan

d)

Retained profits

7.

Which type of finance is obtained by selling shares to the public for the first time?

a)

Venture capital

b)

Initial Public Offering (IPO)

c)

Business angels

d)

Trade credit

8.

Which of the following is a benefit of using leasing as a source of finance?

a)

Full ownership of the asset

b)

Tax benefits

c)

High initial costs

d)

Increased liability

9.

What is a primary disadvantage of using venture capital as a source of finance?

a)

High-interest rates

b)

Short repayment terms

c)

Dilution of control and ownership

d)

Difficulty in obtaining

10.

Which of the following sources of finance is typically most expensive in terms of cost?

a)

Retained earnings

b)

Trade credit

c)

Bank overdraft

d)

Sale and leaseback

11.

Which of the following is a source of internal finance?

a)

Bank loan

b)

Issuing shares

c)

Retained profits

d)

Government grant

12.

Which source of finance involves selling an asset to lease it back?

a)

Factoring

b)

Trade credit

c)

Sale and leaseback

d)

Overdraft

13.

What is a key disadvantage of using a bank overdraft?

a)

Fixed interest rates

b)

Immediate repayment requirement

c)

High interest rates

d)

Long-term repayment period

14.

Which type of finance is typically used for long-term capital projects?

a)

Trade credit

b)

Bank loan

c)

Overdraft

d)

Factoring

15.

Which of the following is NOT a source of external finance?

a)

Friends and family

b)

Issuing shares

c)

Personal savings

16.

What is the primary advantage of retained profits as a source of finance?

a)

No dilution of ownership

b)

No repayment required

c)

Tax-deductible

d)

Low-interest rates

17.

Which type of finance involves selling accounts receivable at a discount?

a)

Factoring

b)

Trade credit

c)

Bank loan

d)

Retained profits

18.

Which source of finance could involve giving up a portion of ownership in the business?

a)

Bank loan

b)

Retained profits

c)

Issuing shares

d)

Trade credit

19.

What is a potential drawback of using venture capital?

a)

High interest rates

b)

Loss of control

c)

Immediate repayment

d)

Limited availability

20.

Which of the following is a short-term source of finance?

4 lines
21.

What does unlimited liability mean for a business owner?

a)

The owner's liability is limited to the amount invested in the business.

b)

The owner can lose only the business assets if the business fails.

c)

The owner is personally responsible for all business debts.

d)

The business is a separate legal entity from the owner.

22.

Which type of business structure typically has unlimited liability?

a)

Private limited company (Ltd)

b)

Public limited company (PLC)

c)

Sole trader

d)

Limited liability partnership (LLP)

23.

Which of the following is a key characteristic of limited liability?

a)

Owners are personally responsible for all debts of the business.

b)

Business assets are at risk, but personal assets are protected.

c)

The business cannot be sued independently of the owners.

d)

There is no distinction between the business and the owners.

24.

Which business structure provides limited liability to its owners?

a)

Sole trader

b)

Partnership

c)

Private limited company (Ltd)

d)

Franchise

25.

How does having limited liability benefit business owners?

a)

It increases the owners' personal financial risk.

b)

It reduces the owners' control over the business.

c)

It protects the owners' personal assets from business debts.

26.

In which type of business structure do partners share unlimited liability?

a)

Limited liability partnership (LLP)

b)

General partnership

c)

Private limited company (Ltd)

d)

Public limited company (PLC)

27.

Which of the following is an advantage of a public limited company (PLC)?

a)

Unlimited liability for shareholders

b)

Ability to raise capital through stock markets

c)

Simplicity in formation and operation

d)

Greater privacy and less regulation

28.

Which type of liability means that a business owner is only liable for the amount they invested in the company?

a)

Joint liability

b)

Unlimited liability

c)

Limited liability

d)

Shared liability

29.

What is a key disadvantage of operating as a sole trader?

a)

Limited control over business decisions

b)

Difficulty in raising finance

c)

Unlimited liability

d)

Increased regulatory requirements

30.

Which business structure must have at least one partner with unlimited liability?

a)

General partnership

b)

Limited partnership

c)

Corporation

d)

Sole proprietorship

31.

Which type of business has an owner who is personally responsible for all business debts?

a)

Private limited company (Ltd)

b)

Public limited company (PLC)

c)

Sole trader

d)

Limited partnership (LP)

32.

Which type of business is a sole trader?

a)

Private limited company (Ltd)

b)

Public limited company (PLC)

c)

Sole trader

d)

Limited partnership (LP)

33.

In which type of business are business assets at risk, but personal assets are protected?

a)

a) Private limited company (Ltd)

b)

b) Public limited company (PLC)

c)

c) Sole trader

d)

d) Limited partnership (LP)

34.

Which type of business is a private limited company (Ltd)?

a)

Private limited company (Ltd)

b)

Public limited company (PLC)

c)

Sole trader

d)

Limited partnership (LP)

35.

Which type of business protects the owners' personal assets from business debts?

a)

a) Private limited company (Ltd)

b)

b) Public limited company (PLC)

c)

c) Sole trader

d)

d) Limited partnership (LP)

36.

Which type of business is a general partnership?

a)

a) Private limited company (Ltd)

b)

b) Public limited company (PLC)

c)

c) Sole trader

d)

d) Limited partnership (LP)

37.

Which type of business has the ability to raise capital through stock markets?

a)

Private limited company (Ltd)

b)

Public limited company (PLC)

c)

Sole trader

d)

Limited partnership (LP)

38.

Which type of business has limited liability?

a)

Private limited company (Ltd)

b)

Public limited company (PLC)

c)

Sole trader

d)

Limited partnership (LP)

39.

Which type of business has unlimited liability?

a)

Private limited company (Ltd)

b)

Public limited company (PLC)

c)

Sole trader

d)

Limited partnership (LP)

40.

Which type of business is a limited partnership (LP)?

a)

Private limited company (Ltd)

b)

Public limited company (PLC)

c)

Sole trader

d)

Limited partnership (LP)

41.

What is the main purpose of a business plan when seeking finance?

a)

To attract new employees

b)

To impress competitors

c)

To persuade investors or banks

d)

To reduce tax liabilities

42.

Which type of investor is mainly interested in the upside potential of a business?

a)

Bank manager

b)

Government agency

c)

Dragon-type investor

d)

Customer

43.

What is usually considered the “heart” of a business plan?

a)

Marketing plan

b)

Executive summary

c)

Financial plan (cash flow forecast)

d)

Product/service description

44.

Which section of a business plan identifies the customer’s problem and explains how the business will solve it?

a)

Executive summary

b)

Operational plan

c)

Market analysis

d)

Conclusion

45.

In the business plan structure, which section explains how the product will be produced and delivered?

a)

Financial plan

b)

Operational plan

c)

Marketing plan

d)

Market analysis

46.

Why was Tom Doyle’s bank loan request rejected?

a)

He asked for too much money

b)

His product idea wasn’t unique

c)

He underestimated his day-to-day finance needs

d)

He didn’t provide a marketing plan

47.

What does a cash flow forecast estimate?

4 lines
48.

What does a monthly balance in a cash flow forecast show?

a)

The difference between inflows and outflows for that month

b)

Total revenue for the year

c)

Net profit

d)

Average customer spend

49.

In a cash flow forecast, the opening balance of a month is equal to:

a)

Zero each time

b)

The previous month’s closing balance

c)

Net profit for the year

d)

Initial investment only

50.

What financial issue did Debenhams face in 2013 according to the case study?

a)

Falling sales

b)

High employee turnover

c)

A cash flow crisis

d)

Legal disputes with suppliers

51.

What is the easiest remedy for negative cash balances in the short term?

a)

Increase stock levels

b)

Negotiate a bank overdraft

c)

Increase marketing expenditure

d)

Cut staff wages

52.

Which of the following is an example of cash inflow?

a)

Paying suppliers

b)

Wages

c)

Sales revenue from customers

d)

Rent for premises

53.

Which of the following is an example of cash outflow?

a)

Bank loan received

b)

Customer payments

c)

Interest received

d)

Wages

54.

Why is it important to make accurate estimates of finance needs?

a)

Banks prefer smaller loan requests

b)

Overestimating guarantees approval

c)

Underestimating may lead to rejection of finance

d)

Investors ignore financial forecasts

55.

Which of the following can help improve cash flow?

a)

Leasing equipment instead of buying

b)

Increasing stock levels

c)

Delaying customer payments

d)

Buying buildings instead of renting

56.

Which of these is a limitation of cash flow forecasts?

a)

They are always 100% accurate

b)

They cannot be used by banks

c)

They rely on uncertain assumptions

d)

They exclude expenditure

57.

Why might entrepreneurs produce over-optimistic cash flow forecasts?

a)

They underestimate competitors

b)

They are naturally optimistic and may overestimate sales

c)

They are legally required to

d)

Banks demand it

58.

Which of the following describes contingencies in cash flow forecasting?

a)

Planned overstatement of costs to cover unexpected problems

b)

Ignoring customer defaults

c)

Delaying all payments

d)

Relying on one main supplier

59.

Which part of the business plan discusses target customers and pricing strategy?

a)

Marketing plan

b)

Executive summary

c)

Operational plan

d)

Conclusion

60.

What is one reason a bank manager may want to see a cash flow forecast?

a)

To understand employee skills

b)

To check long-term market growth

c)

To ensure the business can repay loans

61.

To measure customer satisfaction

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

62.

What is a sales forecast?

a)

A record of past sales

b)

An estimate of future sales based on data and trends

c)

A government prediction of national GDP

d)

A budget for business spending

63.

Which business function is directly influenced by sales forecasts?

a)

Human resource planning

b)

Cash flow forecasting

c)

Production scheduling

d)

All of the above

64.

Why is forecasting especially difficult for start-up businesses?

a)

They usually have too much sales data

b)

They have no reliable historical sales data

c)

Customers are always loyal to new businesses

d)

Competitors cannot influence them

65.

Which of the following best describes extrapolation?

a)

Estimating future sales by asking customers their preferences

b)

Assuming future sales will follow the same trend as past sales

c)

Predicting sales using only competitor data

d)

Adjusting prices to influence demand

66.

Which example shows how consumer trends affect sales forecasts?

a)

A fall in fruit juice sales due to concerns about sugar

b)

A drop in the value of the pound

c)

A rise in income tax

d)

A supermarket merger

67.

Which of these products is most likely to be income inelastic?

a)

Luxury holidays

b)

Organic food

c)

Toothpaste

d)

Designer handbags

68.

A sharp fall in the pound could lead to:

a)

UK imports becoming cheaper

b)

UK exports becoming less competitive

c)

Imported goods becoming more expensive

d)

UK manufacturers losing sales

69.

What happened to Branston Ketchup sales after 2010?

a)

They grew steadily to £15 million by 2012

b)

They collapsed to around £3.5 million in 2012

c)

They replaced Heinz as the market leader

d)

They stayed the same as forecasted

70.

Which supermarket merger in 2018 was linked to the growth of Aldi and Lidl?

a)

Tesco and Morrisons

b)

Asda and Sainsbury’s

c)

Aldi and Lidl

d)

Waitrose and Iceland

71.

Which quote best reflects the uncertainty of sales forecasting?

a)

“Sales forecasting is always 100% accurate.”

b)

“It’s tough to make predictions, especially about the future.” – Yogi Berra

c)

“Consumers never change their habits.”

d)

“Competitors do not affect sales forecasts.”

72.

What is the definition of revenue?

a)

Profit after tax

b)

Value of total sales in a given period

c)

Money invested in a business

d)

Costs of production

73.

Which of the following is an example of a cost to a business?

a)

Wages

b)

Rent

c)

Raw materials

d)

All of the above

74.

Sales volume measures:

a)

The number of units sold

b)

The value of sales in pounds

c)

The profit per unit sold

d)

The difference between revenue and costs

75.

Sales revenue is calculated as:

a)

Profit ÷ units sold

b)

Volume × price

c)

Fixed costs + variable costs

d)

Assets – liabilities

76.

Why might sales revenue be uncertain?

a)

Some sales are made on credit

b)

Customers never return

c)

Prices never change

d)

Costs are always fixed

77.

Which UK retailer went into liquidation in 2018, leaving suppliers unpaid?

a)

Debenhams

b)

House of Fraser

c)

BHS

d)

Woolworths

78.

What do entrepreneurs often begin their financial planning with?

a)

Staffing forecasts

b)

Cost analysis

c)

Revenue estimates

d)

Competitor research

79.

A firm can increase revenue by:

a)

Selling more units

b)

Raising the price of products

c)

Both A and B

d)

Reducing costs

80.

Which company saw a 5% decline in advertising revenue in 2018?

a)

Reach plc

b)

The Guardian

c)

News UK

d)

The Telegraph

81.

Reach plc made a pre-tax loss in 2018 because:

a)

Revenue was too high

b)

Costs were higher than revenue

c)

Sales volume was low but costs were fixed

d)

They sold the Express newspapers

82.

Which business grew sales from £1m to nearly £100m between 2009 and 2017?

a)

PureGym

b)

Fitness First

c)

The Gym Group

d)

Virgin Active

83.

What type of funding did The Gym Group rely on to expand?

a)

Bank overdraft

b)

Venture capital

c)

Government grant

d)

Family loans

84.

What is an advantage of financing growth without external funding?

a)

Lower fixed costs

b)

Avoiding interest payments and loss of control

c)

Guaranteed success

d)

Increased sales automatically

85.

Why do managers need to know the cost of production?

a)

To decide if selling at current prices is profitable

b)

To compare actual vs forecast costs

c)

To judge efficiency in different areas

d)

All of the above

86.

Fixed costs are:

a)

Costs that change with output

b)

Costs that stay the same regardless of output

c)

Costs that depend on sales revenue

d)

Always equal to variable costs

87.

Which of the following is a fixed cost?

a)

Rent

b)

Raw materials

c)

Fuel

d)

Packaging

88.

Variable costs are:

a)

Costs that never change

b)

Costs that change directly with output

c)

Long-term expenses like rent

d)

Unavoidable payments

89.

Which of the following is a variable cost for Innocent Smoothies?

a)

Rent on the factory

b)

Raw strawberries and bananas

c)

Management salaries

d)

Business rates

90.

Total costs are equal to:

a)

Fixed costs + variable costs

b)

Sales revenue - profit

c)

Revenue × output

d)

Assets - liabilities

91.

Why might a firm with high fixed costs aim to maximise sales?

a)

To reduce wages

b)

To spread fixed costs across more units

c)

To avoid paying rent

d)

To lower variable costs