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Contract Law Quiz

Total questions: 94

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the term for an agreement to be bound by the terms of an offeror's proposal?

a)

Acceptance

b)

Counteroffer

c)

Consideration

d)

Contractual Capacity

2.

Which term describes an agreement and the completion of that agreement between two parties as an alternative to a previous agreement?

a)

Accord And Satisfaction

b)

Bilateral Contract

c)

Covenant Not To Sue

d)

Browse-Wrap Terms

3.

In contract law, what is a meeting of minds about the terms of a contract called?

a)

Agreement

b)

Counteroffer

c)

Covenant Not To Compete

d)

Click-On Agreement

4.

What type of contract involves a promise given in exchange for a promise?

a)

Bilateral Contract

b)

Accord And Satisfaction

c)

Covenant Not To Sue

d)

Browse-Wrap Terms

5.

What are terms called that are agreed to by use of a website or program, without explicit agreement?

a)

Browse-Wrap Terms

b)

Click-On Agreement

c)

Contractual Capacity

d)

Counteroffer

6.

What is the term for terms agreed to directly by the user, such as clicking an 'I agree' button?

a)

Click-On Agreement

b)

Browse-Wrap Terms

c)

Covenant Not To Compete

d)

Accord And Satisfaction

7.

What is the value given in return for a promise or performance called?

a)

Consideration

b)

Acceptance

c)

Counteroffer

d)

Contractual Capacity

8.

What is a court enforceable agreement between two or more parties called?

a)

Contract

b)

Counteroffer

c)

Covenant Not To Sue

d)

Bilateral Contract

9.

What is the legal ability to enter into a contract called?

a)

Contractual Capacity

b)

Acceptance

c)

Consideration

d)

Counteroffer

10.

What is the rejection of the initial offer while making a new offer called?

a)

Counteroffer

b)

Acceptance

c)

Consideration

d)

Covenant Not To Compete

11.

What is a promise to refrain from competition with another party for a time in a specific area called?

a)

Covenant Not To Compete

b)

Covenant Not To Sue

c)

Bilateral Contract

d)

Click-On Agreement

12.

What is a contractual agreement to refrain from legal action called?

a)

Covenant Not To Sue

b)

Covenant Not To Compete

c)

Counteroffer

d)

Browse-Wrap Terms

13.

What is the term for legally exiting a contract, such as a minor remitting?

a)

Estopped

b)

Disaffirmance

c)

Forbearance

d)

Executory Contract

14.

What type of contract is comprised only of electronic signals and not physical form?

a)

Executed Contract

b)

Implied Contract

c)

E-Contracts

d)

Formal Contracts

15.

Which term describes being barred, impeded, or precluded?

a)

Estopped

b)

Exculpatory Clause

c)

Express Contract

d)

Informal Contracts

16.

What is an exculpatory clause?

a)

A contract that has not yet been fully performed

b)

A clause releasing a party from liability in certain events

c)

A contract that requires a specific format to be valid

d)

A debt that is due and certain in amount

17.

What is an executed contract?

a)

A contract that has not yet been fully performed

b)

A contract that has been completely performed by all parties

c)

A contract formed by the conduct of the parties

d)

A contract that does not require a specified format

18.

What is an executory contract?

a)

A contract that has been completely performed by all parties

b)

A contract that has not yet been fully performed

c)

A contract in which terms are explicitly stated

d)

A contract that is due and certain in amount

19.

What is an express contract?

a)

A contract formed by the conduct of the parties

b)

A contract in which terms are fully and explicitly stated

c)

A contract that does not require a specified format

d)

A contract that is due and certain in amount

20.

What does forbearance mean?

a)

The act of refraining from exercising a legal right

b)

A contract that has not yet been fully performed

c)

A clause releasing a party from liability

d)

A contract that requires a specific format

21.

What is a formal contract?

a)

A contract that does not require a specified format

b)

A contract that requires a specific format to be valid

c)

A contract formed by the conduct of the parties

d)

A contract that is due and certain in amount

22.

What is an implied contract?

a)

A contract in which terms are fully and explicitly stated

b)

A contract formed by the conduct of the parties

c)

A contract that requires a specific format

d)

A contract that is due and certain in amount

23.

What is an informal contract?

a)

A contract that requires a specific format to be valid

b)

A contract that does not require a specified format

c)

A contract formed by the conduct of the parties

d)

A contract that is due and certain in amount

24.

What is liquidated debt?

a)

A contract that has not yet been fully performed

b)

A debt that is due and certain in amount

c)

A contract that requires a specific format

d)

A contract formed by the conduct of the parties

25.

What is the Mailbox Rule in contract law?

a)

An offer is considered accepted when the acceptance is communicated (Ex: mail)

b)

An offer is considered accepted when the offeror receives the acceptance

c)

An offer is considered accepted when the offeree signs the contract

d)

An offer is considered accepted when the acceptance is verbally communicated

26.

What does the Mirror Image Rule require in contract law?

a)

Terms of acceptance must exactly match the offer

b)

Terms of acceptance can differ slightly from the offer

c)

Terms of acceptance must be verbally agreed upon

d)

Terms of acceptance can be negotiated after acceptance

27.

What is the Objective Theory of Contracts?

a)

Contracts are judged based on outward, objective facts as interpreted by a reasonable person

b)

Contracts are judged based on the secret intent of the parties

c)

Contracts are judged based on the subjective feelings of the parties

d)

Contracts are judged based on the financial status of the parties

28.

Who is an Offeree in contract law?

a)

A person to whom an offer is made

b)

A person who makes an offer

c)

A person who witnesses the contract

d)

A person who negotiates the contract terms

29.

What is an Option Contract?

a)

A contract which must be available to the offeree to accept or reject for a set period of time

b)

A contract that can be terminated at any time by the offeror

c)

A contract that is only valid for a single transaction

d)

A contract that requires no consideration

30.

What is Promissory Estoppel?

a)

A promise may be considered binding if it led to the detriment of the promisee, regardless of formal consideration

b)

A promise is only binding if it is written and signed

c)

A promise is binding only if it involves a financial transaction

d)

A promise is never binding without formal consideration

31.

What is a Release in contract law?

a)

A contract in which one party gives up the right to pursue legal action against the other

b)

A contract that allows both parties to terminate the agreement at any time

c)

A contract that requires both parties to fulfill their obligations

d)

A contract that is automatically renewed every year

32.

What is the term for a remedy where a contract is canceled and parties return to their original positions?

a)

Revocation

b)

Rescission

c)

Unilateral Contract

d)

Usury

33.

Which term describes the withdrawal of an offer before acceptance?

a)

Unliquidated Debt

b)

Void Contract

c)

Revocation

d)

Statute Of Frauds

34.

What is a shrink-wrap agreement?

a)

A contract that is voidable

b)

An agreement with terms packaged with goods

c)

A contract that is valid

d)

A contract that is unenforceable

35.

What does the Statute Of Frauds require?

a)

Contracts to be in writing in some jurisdictions

b)

Contracts to be voidable

c)

Contracts to be unilateral

d)

Contracts to be valid

36.

What is an unconscionable contract?

a)

A contract that is valid

b)

A contract that is voided because one party is taken advantage of

c)

A contract that is unilateral

d)

A contract that is enforceable

37.

What is an unenforceable contract?

a)

A contract that is valid

b)

A contract that is void

c)

A contract rendered unenforceable by statute or law

d)

A contract that is unilateral

38.

What is a unilateral contract?

a)

A contract accepted by the offeree's performance

b)

A contract that is void

c)

A contract that is valid

d)

A contract that is voidable

39.

What is unliquidated debt?

a)

A debt that is certain in amount

b)

A debt that is uncertain in amount

c)

A debt that is void

d)

A debt that is valid

40.

What does usury refer to?

a)

Charging a legal rate of interest

b)

Charging an illegal rate of interest

c)

Charging no interest

d)

Charging a valid rate of interest

41.

What is a valid contract?

a)

A contract that is void

b)

A contract that is voidable

c)

A contract that fulfills all required elements

d)

A contract that is unenforceable

42.

What is a void contract?

a)

A contract with legal force

b)

A contract with no legal force

c)

A contract that is valid

d)

A contract that is enforceable

43.

What is a voidable contract?

a)

A contract that cannot be canceled

b)

A contract that may be legally avoided

c)

A contract that is valid

d)

A contract that is enforceable

44.

What is Anticipatory Repudiation?

a)

An assertion or action by a party indicating that they will not fulfill a contractual agreement

b)

A condition that must be met before a party's contractual obligation becomes absolute

c)

The termination of an obligation

d)

Damages compensating expenses incurred as a result of a breach of contract

45.

What is a Bilateral Mistake in contract law?

a)

When both parties to a contract are mistaken about the same fact

b)

The excuse from contract performance for a seller when a contingency makes performance impracticable

c)

The release of a debtor from provable debts

d)

Undue pressure to perform actions against one's will

46.

What does Breach of Contract mean?

a)

Failure to perform the obligations of a contract without legal excuse

b)

A possible future event that triggers the performance of a legal obligation

c)

Special damages for indirect or delayed losses

d)

The termination of an obligation

47.

What is Commercial Impracticability?

a)

The excuse from contract performance for a seller when a contractual contingency makes performance impracticable

b)

The release of a debtor from provable debts

c)

Damages compensating expenses incurred as a result of a breach of contract

d)

A condition that must be met before a party's contractual obligation becomes absolute

48.

What is a Condition Precedent?

a)

A condition that must be met before a party's contractual obligation becomes absolute

b)

The termination of an obligation

c)

An assertion or action by a party indicating that they will not fulfill a contractual agreement

d)

Special damages for indirect or delayed losses

49.

What are Consequential Damages?

a)

Special damages for indirect or delayed losses

b)

The termination of an obligation

c)

The release of a debtor from provable debts

d)

Undue pressure to perform actions against one's will

50.

What does Discharge mean in contract law?

a)

The termination of an obligation

b)

Failure to perform the obligations of a contract without legal excuse

c)

A condition that must be met before a party's contractual obligation becomes absolute

d)

Damages compensating expenses incurred as a result of a breach of contract

51.

What is Duress in the context of contract law?

a)

Undue pressure to perform actions against one's will

b)

The excuse from contract performance for a seller when a contingency makes performance impracticable

c)

The release of a debtor from provable debts

d)

A possible future event that triggers the performance of a legal obligation

52.

What is meant by Frustration of Purpose?

a)

A party to a contract can be relieved of duty to perform if the purpose of performance no longer exists

b)

The termination of an obligation

c)

Special damages for indirect or delayed losses

d)

An assertion or action by a party indicating that they will not fulfill a contractual agreement

53.

What are Incidental Damages?

a)

Damages compensating expenses incurred as a result of a breach of contract

b)

The termination of an obligation

c)

The release of a debtor from provable debts

d)

Undue pressure to perform actions against one's will

54.

What are Liquidated Damages?

a)

A mutual agreement to cancel a contract

b)

A small monetary award granted to a plaintiff

c)

Damages stipulated in a contract to compensate a breach

d)

An unconditional offer to perform an obligation

55.

What is Mutual Rescission?

a)

A remedy requiring the performance of contractual obligations

b)

A mutual agreement to cancel a contract

c)

Persuasion that causes a person to act against their will

d)

Knowing and voluntary agreement to a contract

56.

What are Nominal Damages?

a)

A remedy in which a person is restored to their initial position

b)

A small monetary award granted to a plaintiff when no actual damage can be proven

c)

The substitution of a new contract for an old one

d)

A sum in a contract as punishment for failure to fulfill obligations

57.

What is Novation?

a)

The substitution of a new contract for an old one

b)

A remedy requiring the performance of contractual obligations

c)

An unconditional offer to perform an obligation

d)

Persuasion that causes a person to act against their will

58.

What is Restitution?

a)

A remedy in which a person is restored to their initial position

b)

A mutual agreement to cancel a contract

c)

A small monetary award granted to a plaintiff

d)

Knowing and voluntary agreement to a contract

59.

What is Specific Performance?

a)

A remedy requiring the performance of contractual obligations

b)

An unconditional offer to perform an obligation

c)

Persuasion that causes a person to act against their will

d)

A sum in a contract as punishment for failure to fulfill obligations

60.

What is meant by Tender?

a)

A mutual agreement to cancel a contract

b)

An unconditional offer to perform an obligation

c)

A small monetary award granted to a plaintiff

d)

Knowing and voluntary agreement to a contract

61.

What is Undue Influence?

a)

Persuasion that causes a person to act against their will

b)

A remedy in which a person is restored to their initial position

c)

The substitution of a new contract for an old one

d)

A mutual agreement to cancel a contract

62.

What is a Unilateral Mistake?

a)

When one party to a contract is mistaken about material fact

b)

A remedy requiring the performance of contractual obligations

c)

An unconditional offer to perform an obligation

d)

Persuasion that causes a person to act against their will

63.

What is Voluntary Consent?

a)

Knowing and voluntary agreement to a contract

b)

A mutual agreement to cancel a contract

c)

A small monetary award granted to a plaintiff

d)

The substitution of a new contract for an old one

64.

What is a waiver?

a)

An intentional, knowing relinquishment of a legal right.

b)

A contract requiring the seller to ship goods to a particular destination.

c)

An irrevocable offer without consideration.

d)

A promise as to the quality of goods being sold.

65.

What are conforming goods?

a)

Goods that conform to contract specifications.

b)

Goods that are shipped to a particular destination.

c)

Goods that are sold on the open market.

d)

Goods that are designated for a specific purpose.

66.

What does the term "cover" refer to in a contract?

a)

A buyer's purchase on the open market to substitute for undelivered goods.

b)

The right to correct nonconforming performance.

c)

A promise regarding the quality of goods.

d)

An irrevocable offer without consideration.

67.

What does "cured" mean under the UCC?

a)

The right to correct nonconforming performance during the contract period.

b)

A contract requiring the seller to ship goods to a destination.

c)

An irrevocable offer without consideration.

d)

A warranty derived from the nature of the transaction.

68.

What is a destination contract?

a)

A contract requiring the seller to ship the goods to a particular destination.

b)

An irrevocable offer without consideration.

c)

A promise regarding the quality of goods.

d)

A warranty derived from the nature of the transaction.

69.

What is an express warranty?

a)

A promise as to the quality, description, or performance of goods being sold or leased.

b)

An irrevocable offer without consideration.

c)

A buyer's purchase on the open market.

d)

The right to correct nonconforming performance.

70.

What is a firm offer?

a)

An irrevocable offer without consideration, for a period of time.

b)

A contract requiring the seller to ship goods to a destination.

c)

A promise regarding the quality of goods.

d)

A warranty derived from the nature of the transaction.

71.

What does identification mean in a contract?

a)

The express designation of specific goods provided for in a contract.

b)

A promise regarding the quality of goods.

c)

An irrevocable offer without consideration.

d)

A buyer's purchase on the open market.

72.

What is an implied warranty?

a)

A warranty derived from the nature of the transaction, the relative situation, or the circumstances of the parties.

b)

A promise regarding the quality of goods.

c)

An irrevocable offer without consideration.

d)

The right to correct nonconforming performance.

73.

What is an implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose?

a)

A warranty that goods sold or leased are fit for a particular purpose.

b)

A promise regarding the quality of goods.

c)

An irrevocable offer without consideration.

d)

The right to correct nonconforming performance.

74.

What is an Implied Warranty of Merchantability?

a)

A warranty that goods are fit for their ordinary purpose

b)

A warranty that goods are free of defects

c)

A warranty that goods are the cheapest available

d)

A warranty that goods are unique

75.

What does Insurable Interest refer to?

a)

A stake in goods that allows a party to insure them

b)

A financial interest in a company

c)

A legal claim to a property

d)

A right to sell goods

76.

Which of the following is an example of Intangible Property?

a)

Intellectual Property

b)

A car

c)

A piece of furniture

d)

A house

77.

Who is considered a Merchant under UCC?

a)

A person engaged in the purchase and sale of goods

b)

A person who only buys goods

c)

A person who only sells goods

d)

A person who manufactures goods

78.

What is the Perfect Tender Rule?

a)

A rule requiring goods to perfectly fit the sales contract

b)

A rule allowing minor defects in goods

c)

A rule that goods must be delivered on time

d)

A rule that goods must be the cheapest available

79.

What is the purpose of the Predominant-Factor Test?

a)

To determine the primary purpose of a sales contract

b)

To assess the quality of goods

c)

To evaluate the price of goods

d)

To determine the delivery time of goods

80.

What is Replevin?

a)

An action to recover specific goods wrongfully withheld

b)

A process to sell goods

c)

A method to insure goods

d)

A way to ship goods

81.

What does a Sale involve?

a)

The passing of title from a seller to a buyer for a price

b)

The exchange of services for money

c)

The leasing of goods

d)

The gifting of goods

82.

What is a Sales Contract?

a)

A contract for the exchange of ownership of goods for money

b)

A contract for the leasing of goods

c)

A contract for the gifting of goods

d)

A contract for the exchange of services

83.

What does Seasonably mean in legal terms?

a)

Within a specified time period

b)

At any time

c)

Only during business hours

d)

Only during a specific season

84.

What is a Shipment Contract?

a)

A contract requiring the seller to ship goods via a carrier

b)

A contract for the sale of goods

c)

A contract for the leasing of goods

d)

A contract for the gifting of goods

85.

Which of the following is an example of Tangible Property?

a)

A car

b)

A patent

c)

A trademark

d)

A copyright

86.

What does "Tender of Delivery" refer to in a sales transaction?

a)

The act of a buyer making payment for goods

b)

The act of a seller making the goods available to the buyer

c)

The act of a buyer inspecting the goods

d)

The act of a seller receiving payment for goods

87.

What is a unilateral contract?

a)

A contract where only one party makes a promise

b)

A contract where both parties make promises

c)

A contract that is voidable

d)

A contract that is enforceable

88.

What is the term for a contract that has been fully performed by both parties?

a)

Executed Contract

b)

Executory Contract

c)

Implied Contract

d)

Express Contract

89.

What is the legal term for a party's failure to perform their contractual obligations?

a)

Breach of Contract

b)

Acceptance

c)

Consideration

d)

Counteroffer

90.

What is a bilateral contract?

a)

A contract that involves two parties making mutual promises

b)

A contract that is voidable by one party

c)

A contract that requires a specific format to be valid

d)

A contract that is only valid for a single transaction

91.

What is a unilateral contract?

a)

A contract that involves two parties making mutual promises

b)

A contract that is voidable by one party

c)

A contract where only one party makes a promise

d)

A contract that requires a specific format to be valid

92.

What is a Quasi Contract?

a)

A contract that is implied in law to prevent unjust enrichment

b)

A contract that is explicitly stated in writing

c)

A contract that is voidable at the option of one party

d)

A contract that requires a specific format to be valid

93.

What is the Parol Evidence Rule?

a)

A rule that prohibits the use of oral evidence to contradict written terms

b)

A rule that allows oral evidence to modify written contracts

c)

A rule that requires all contracts to be in writing

d)

A rule that allows for the enforcement of oral contracts

94.

What is a Liquidated Damages Clause?

a)

A clause specifying a predetermined amount of damages in case of breach

b)

A clause that releases a party from liability

c)

A clause that allows for the termination of a contract

d)

A clause that requires arbitration in case of disputes