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PS3/IPA3 Quiz 1-2

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Quiz 1: What are some common side effects from clonidine that would be important to provide to a patient?
a)
Dizziness upon standing (orthostasis)
b)
Dry mouth
c)

Headache

d)
Excessive urination
e)
Gingival hyperplasia
2.
Quiz 1: What are some important side effects to note for patients taking DHP calcium channel blockers?
a)
Peripheral edema
b)
Reflex tachycardia
c)
Dizziness
d)
Bradycardia
e)
Respiratory depression
3.
Quiz 1: What conditions might Catapres be used in?
a)
Hypertension
b)
ADHD
c)
Neuropathic pain
d)
Depression
e)
Bipolar disorder
4.
Quiz 1: What drug class is clonidine?
a)
Central alpha 2 agonist
b)
Central alpha 2 antagonist
c)
Alpha 1 agonist
d)
Alpha 1 antagonist
5.
Quiz 1: What drug class is Thalitone?
a)

Thiazide-like diuretic

b)
Direct vasodilator
c)
Factor Xa inhibior
d)
Potassium-sparing diuretic
e)
DHP calcium channel blocker
6.
Quiz 1: Which are important points to counsel a patient on when starting Plendil?
a)
Do not crush/chew (it is extended release)
b)
May cause dizziness when standing
c)
May feel rapid heartbeat
d)
Call if you note any swelling in extremeties
e)
May cause you to bruise or bleed easily
7.
Quiz 1: When counseling a patient starting on the controlled release formulation of nifedipine, what would be important to mention?
a)
Can leave a "ghost tablet" (empty shell) in stool
b)
You can split but don't crush
c)
Works best with high fat meal
d)
Take at bedtime only
8.
Quiz 1: Which are formulations that clonidine is available in?
a)
Oral
b)
Parenteral
c)
Transdermal patch
d)
Rectal
e)
Inhalation
9.
Quiz 1: Which are renally adjusted?
a)
Apixaban
b)
Edoxaban
c)
Enoxaparin
d)
Dabigatran
e)
Warfarin
10.
Quiz 1: Which are renally adjusted?
a)
Hydralazine
b)
Nifedipine (start low with severe)
c)
Amlodipine
d)
Felodipine
11.
Quiz 1: Which class of drug is amlodipine?
a)
DHP calcium channel blocker
b)
Alpha 2 agonist
c)
Thiazide diuretic
d)
Factor Xa inhibitor
12.
Quiz 1: Which drugs have the "grapefruit juice" warning?
a)
Nifedipine
b)
Amlodipine
c)
Felodipine
d)
Warfarin
e)

Chlorthalidone

13.

Quiz 1: Which have the potential to reduce efficacy of Coumadin if taken / eaten together?

a)
Grapefruit juice
b)
Green leafy vegetables
c)

Metamucil

d)

Omega-3 fatty acids

e)
Dairy
14.

Quiz 1: Which have potential to lead to bleeding if eaten / taken when on Coumadin?

a)
Grapefruit juice
b)

Green leafy vegetables

c)

Orange juice

d)

Ibuprofen (NSAIDs)

e)

Ginkgo biloba (herbal product)

15.

Quiz 1: Which are appropriate counseling points for patients starting a thiazide diuretic?

a)
Use sunscreen (can increase sensitivity to sun)
b)

Avoid taking too close to bedtime (nocturia)

c)
Take with aspirin to avoid flushing
d)
Drink extra water when taking to avoid dizziness
e)
Check blood sugar at least 2 times daily
16.
Quiz 1: Which medications should be monitored for bleeding?
a)
Dabigatran
b)
Apixaban
c)
Edoxaban
d)
Triamterine / HCTZ
e)
Nifedipine
17.
Quiz 1: Which medications should be monitored for bleeding?
a)
Rivaroxaban
b)
Warfarin
c)
Enoxaparin
d)
Hydralazine
e)
Felodipine
18.
Quiz 1: Which of the following are Factor Xa inhibitors?
a)
Eliquis
b)
Savaysa
c)
Xarelto
d)
Pradaxa
e)
Lovenox
19.
Quiz 1: Which of the following are only available by mouth?
a)
Amlodipine
b)
Apixaban
c)
Clonidine
d)
Hydralazine
e)
Warfarin
20.
Quiz 1: Which of the following has been associated with drug-induced lupus?
a)
Hydralazine
b)
Edoxaban
c)
Nifedipine
d)
Warfarin
21.
Quiz 1: Which of the following is a direct thrombin inhibitor?
a)
Dabigatran
b)
Apixaban
c)
Edoxaban
d)
Rivaroxaban
e)
Enoxaparin
22.
Quiz 1: Which of the following is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)?
a)
Enoxaparin
b)
Apixaban
c)
Edoxaban
d)
Rivaroxaban
e)
Warfarin
23.
Quiz 1: Which of the following are apixiban dosing adjusted based on?
a)
Age
b)
Weight
c)
Kidney function
d)
Height
e)
INR
24.
Quiz 1: Which of the following is only given via parenteral route?
a)
Enoxaparin
b)
Apixaban
c)
Edoxaban
d)
Rivaroxaban
e)
Warfarin
25.
Quiz 1: Which of the following LOSE efficacy when CrCl drops too low?
a)
Hydrochlorothiazide
b)
Chlorthalidone
c)
Hydralazine
d)
Apixaban
26.
Quiz 1: Which of the following should be taken with food, either for better absorption or to manage upset stomach?
a)

Rivaroxaban (higher doses)

b)
Dabigatran
c)
Warfarin
d)
Apixaban
e)
Enoxaparin
27.
Quiz 1: Which of the following work by inhibiting the action of vitamin K in the formation of clotting factors?
a)
Warfarin
b)
Enoxaparin
c)
Dabigatran
d)
Apixaban
e)
Clonidine
28.
Quiz 1: Which of the following would interact with a CYP substrate, leading to an increased risk of side effects?
a)
Apixaban
b)
Felodipine
c)
Warfarin
d)
Rivaroxaban
e)
Hydralazine
29.
Quiz 1: Which require dose adjustments in hepatic impairment?
a)
Amlodipine
b)
Felodipine
c)
Hydralazine
d)
Nifedipine
30.

Quiz 1: Select the thiazide/thiazide-like diuretics from this list:

a)

Chlorthalidone

b)

Hydrochlorothiazide

c)

Triamterine

d)

Hydralazine

31.
Quiz 1: What is the mechanism of action of triamterine in Dyazide?
a)
Prevents excessive loss of potassium
b)
Prevents excessive loss of sodium
c)
Prevents excessive loss of fluid
d)
Prevents excessive loss of platelets
32.
Quiz 1: What are the two components of Maxzide?
a)
Hydrochlorothiazide
b)
Triamterine
c)
Chlorthalidone
d)
Hydralazine
33.

Quiz 1: Which of the following is a potential side effect / complication of Lovenox?

a)

Thrombocytopenia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Heart failure exacerbation

d)

Hemorrhage

34.

Quiz 1: Which of the following should not be crushed or chewed, as they are extended-release?

a)

Plendil

b)

Adalat CC

c)

Apresoline

d)

Norvasc

35.

Quiz 1: Which of the following are FDA-approved indications for clonidine?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Heart failure

c)

Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

d)

Neuropathic pain

36.

Quiz 1: Which of the following are FDA-approved indications for warfarin?

a)

VTE treatment

b)

Stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation

c)

Hypertension

d)

Heart failure

e)

VTE prevention

37.

(Quiz 1): How does hydralazine work?

a)

Direct vasodilation of arterioles

b)

DHP-calcium channel blocker

c)

Beta-adrenergic blocker (non-selective)

d)

Direct action on the AV node in the heart

38.

Quiz 1: Who should avoid (generally) thiazide / thiazide-like diuretics due to allergic reaction?

a)
Sulfonamide allergy
b)
Iodine allergy
c)
Potassium allergy
d)
Lactose allergy
e)
Gluten allergy
39.

Quiz 1: Which of the following are FDA-approved for use in non-valvular atrial fibrillation to prevent stroke?

a)

Dabigatran

b)

Edoxaban

c)

Rivaroxaban

d)

Warfarin

e)

Apixaban

40.
Quiz 2: Which of the following are considered moderate to high potency statins?
a)
Rosuvastatin
b)
Atorvastatin
c)
Simvastatin
d)
Lovastatin
e)
Pravastatin
41.
Quiz 2: Which of the following are considered moderate potency statins (not high at any dose)?
a)
Simvastatin
b)
Pravastatin
c)
Lovastatin
d)
Atorvastatin
e)
Rosuvastatin
42.
Quiz 2: Which of the following describe atorvastatin and others in its class?
a)
HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
b)
Can cause myopathy
c)
Lowers blood pressure
d)

Reduces risk of MI and stroke

e)

Multiple CYP-related drug interactions (should check with pharmacist before starting new Rx)

43.
Quiz 2: Patients should avoid grapefruit juice when taking which of the following medications?
a)
Atorvastatin
b)
Simvastatin
c)
Lovastatin
d)
Pravstatin
e)
Rosuvastatin
44.
Quiz 2: Which is the most appropriate advice to provide to female-born patients who take HMG CoA reductase inhibitors and are considering pregnancy?
a)
It is best to avoid unless there is a compelling reason (i.e. extremely high risk for stroke)
b)
These medications are relatively safe in pregnancy
c)
These medications are absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy (no exceptions)
45.
Quiz 2: How does WelChol work?
a)
Binds to bile acids in intestines and thus they are not reabsorbed ultimately leading to a reduction in cholesterol
b)
Lowers cholesterol by inhibiting lipolysis
c)
Inhibits synthesis of VLDL
d)
Blocks HMG CoA reductase
46.
Quiz 2: What is the main reason that colesevelam has so many drug interactions?
a)
Binds to medications, thus reducing / preventing their absorption
b)
CYP inhibition
c)
CYP induction
d)
P-glycoprotein inhibition
47.
Quiz 2: Which of the following works by inhibiting absorption of cholesterols from the small intestine?
a)
Zetia
b)
WelChol
c)
Lipitor
d)
Pravachol
e)
Mevacor
48.
Quiz 2: Which of the following are correct regarding ezetimibe?
a)

Associated with diarrhea

b)
Often combined with a statin
c)
Should be avoided in mod-severe hepatic disease
d)
Must be adjusted for renal impairment
e)
Take on empty stomach
49.
Quiz 2: What class of drug is Tricor?
a)
Fibric acid derivative
b)
HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
c)
Bile acid sequestrant
d)
B vitamin
50.
Quiz 2: Which are renally adjusted?
a)
Fenofibrate
b)
Gemfibrozil
c)
Atorvastatin
d)
Isosorbide mononitrate
e)
Ticagrelor
51.
Quiz 2: Which are renally adjusted?
a)
Rosuvastatin
b)
Pravastatin
c)
Simvastatin
d)
Nitroglyercin
e)
Prasugrel
52.
Quiz 2: What would be a potential consequence of combining fenofibrate with simvastatin?
a)
Increased risk of rhabdomyolysis
b)
Increased risk of hepatosteatosis
c)
Increased risk of cirrhosis
d)
Increased risk of pancreatitis
e)
Increased risk of constipation
53.
Quiz 2: Which of the following is similar in action to Lopid?
a)
Tricor
b)
Zetia
c)
WelChol
d)
Niaspan
54.
Quiz 2: Which patients would most likely be prescribed a fibric acid derivative?
a)
Very high triglycerides
b)
Heart failure exacerbation
c)
Acute treatment for stroke
d)
Acute treatment for heart attack
55.
Quiz 2: Which of the following are available by mouth only?
a)
Isosorbide mononitrate
b)
Niacin
c)
Ticagrelor
d)
Colesevelam
e)
Nitroglycerin
56.
Quiz 2: What formulations is nitroglycerin available in?
a)
Transdermal
b)
Oral
c)
Sublingual
d)
Parenteral
e)
Ophthalmic
57.
Quiz 2: Which medications should NOT be given to patients who take PDE5 inhibitors such as sildenafil?
a)
Imdur
b)
Nitro-bid
c)
Minitran
d)
Brillinta
e)

Isordil

58.
Quiz 2: What are some important side effects to counsel patients taking isosorbide dinitrate?
a)
Headache
b)
Dizziness
c)
Flushing
d)
Diarrhea
e)
Hyperuricemia
59.
Quiz 2: When counseling patients who take Imdur, which should be mentioned regarding administration?
a)

Must take with dairy products to avoid GI upset

b)
Should have at least 8 hours without the medication to avoid rapid tolerance
c)
Headache is common and a sign the drug is working
d)
Never take with NSAIDs
e)
Never take with APAP
60.
Quiz 2: Which of these medications are recommended to be taken either in the evening or at bedtime (either for efficacy or related to side effects)?
a)
Niacin ER
b)
Lovastatin
c)
Simvastatin
d)
Ezetimibe
e)
Atorvastatin
61.
Quiz 2: Which of the following is a B vitamin?
a)
Niaspan
b)
Mevacor
c)
Pravachol
d)
WelChol
e)
Zetia
62.
Quiz 2: What is a common / limiting side effect of niacin ER and what is recommended to minimize it?
a)
Flushing / take aspirin 30 min prior
b)
Diarrhea / take with food
c)
Fractures / take with calcium
d)
Constipation / take with laxative
63.
Quiz 2: What is important to tell the patient when dispensing sublingual nitroglycerin?
a)
Leave in original container
b)
Keep with you at all times
c)
Take at first sign of chest pain and may repeat every 5 min up to 3 times
d)
Chew the tablets completely
e)
Can only take on empty stomach
64.
Quiz 2: What is the potential consequence of Lovaza and Coumadin coadministration and why?
a)
Increased risk of bleed (additive effects)
b)
Increased risk of bleed (inhibition of warfarin metabolism)
c)
Increased risk of clot (induction of CYP enzymes)
d)
Increased risk of pancreatitis (reduced ability to lower triglycerides)
65.
Quiz 2: What should patients be counseled on with regards to administration of omega-3 acid ethyl esters?
a)
Do not open/crush/chew capsules
b)
Take on empty stomach
c)
Can squeeze contents onto food (i.e. applesauce)
d)
Take only at night
66.
Quiz 2: Which of the following are P2Y12 inhibitors?
a)
Prasugrel
b)
Clopidogrel
c)
Ticagrelor
d)
Minitran
e)
Imdur
67.
Quiz 2: What is an important counseling point for patients on Effient and others in its class?
a)
Risk of bleeding
b)
Risk of infectious diarrhea
c)
Risk of falls
d)
Risk of fractures
e)
Risk of kidney stones
68.
Quiz 2: Which group of patients should generally NOT receive prasugrel or should be closely monitored for adverse effects?
a)
Geriatric (>75 yo)
b)
Patients with cardiovascular disease
c)
Patients who are taking SSRIs
d)
Patients who have a history of GI bleeding
e)
Patients who are taking beta-blockers
69.
Quiz 2: Which is true regarding ticagrelor?
a)
Stop 5 days prior to elective surgery
b)
Avoid in hepatic failure
c)
Has CYP-related drug interactions
d)
Should avoid in patients with COPD
e)
Can lead to hallucinations in geriatric patients
70.
Quiz 2: Which is true regarding clopidogrel?
a)
Antiplatelet action
b)
Prodrug (requires CYP enzyme to convert)
c)
Can lead to dependence
d)

Increased risk of osteoporosis

e)
Takes about 2 weeks to work
71.

Quiz 2: Patients who are allergic to aspirin should not take Plavix. True/False

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Quiz 2: This medication is derived from shellfish and thus should not be given to patients with shellfish allergy.

a)

Lovaza

b)

Tricor

c)

Lopid

d)

Niaspan

73.

Quiz 2: Which of the following could potentially reduce the efficacy of clopidogrel by inhibiting conversion from prodrug to active form?

a)

Certain proton pump inhibitors

b)

Warfarin

c)

Certain beta-blockers

d)

Certain NSAIDs

74.

Quiz 2: Which of the following is true regarding aspirin use with ticagrelor?

a)

Contraindicated

b)

Limited to less than 100mg of aspirin

c)

Should be at least 325mg for best effect

d)

Limited to concomitant use during MI only

75.

Quiz 2: What is the general reason NSAIDs should not be combined with antiplatelet agents?

a)

Additive bleeding

b)

Additive renal toxicity

c)

Additive fluid retention

d)

Additive GI upset (nausea)

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