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PODA III Exam 1 In Class Questions

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Mr Jones had an infection in the pulmonary system and a biological sample was taken. Lab results showed the presence of bacteria growing in bunches “grape like”. What is the most likely causative agent for Mr Jones’ infection?

a)

Staphylococcus

b)

Streptococcus

c)

Spirochete

d)

Verbrial

2.

Mr Jones had an infection in the pulmonary system and a biological sample was taken. Lab results showed the presence of bacteria growing in bunches “grape like”. Which would you use to manage Mr. Jones infection?

a)

Pen G

b)

Penicillinase Resistant Penicillin (PRPs)

c)

Ampicillin or Amoxicillin

d)

Extended Spectrum Penicillins (ESPs)

3.

Which of the following statements about the acid fast staining method is correct?

a)

The counterstain is safranin

b)

The primary stain is carbo fuscien

c)

The decolorizer is 95% ethyl alcohol

d)

The mordant is lugol's solution/iodine solution

e)

The primary stain is crystal violet

4.

What color would a gram + organism have?

a)

Purple

b)

Red

5.

Which of the following organisms will exhibit a purple color after gram staining process

a)

Klebsiella pneumonia

b)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

c)

Bacillus anthracis

d)

Francisella. Anthracis

e)

Streptobacillus moniliformis

6.

WOTF would PenG be effective against?

a)

Klebsiella pneumonia

b)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

c)

Bacillus anthracis

d)

Francisella. Anthracis

e)

Streptobacillus moniliformis

7.

WOTF organisms would be a tryptophanase producing organism?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Proteus mirabilis

c)

Morganella mogani

d)

Proteus vulgaris

8.

Which proteus spp can you use Ampicillin?

a)

Proteus mirabilis

b)

Morganella mogan

c)

Proteus vulgari

9.

WOTF conditions is caused by a spirochetal infectious disease

a)

Syphilis

b)

Lymes disease

c)

Rat bite fever

d)

Recurrent fever

e)

Weil's disease

10.

Sample was taken and a culture was done the result has an “S” shape. WOTF could be the causative bacterium?

a)

Syphilis

b)

Lymes disease

c)

Rat bite fever

d)

Recurrent fever

e)

Weil's disease

11.

Weil's disease (leptospiroenterogans)

A culture came back from the GI tract and was comma shaped what could be the causative bacteria

a)

Verbrial choloreal

b)

Verbrial volaticus

12.

WOTF is true of vancomycin derivatives that are used for the management of skin and skin structure infections?

a)

They all produce concentration dependent killing of bacterium

b)

They are all administered parenterally (IV)

c)

They are all administered on a QD basis

d)

They can all produce hemorrhagic episodes

e)

They are all also effective in the management of endocarditis caused by VRE (vancomycin resistant enterococcus)

13.

WOTF is an adverse effect of daptomycin?

a)

Bleeding

b)

Eosinophilic pneumonia

c)

Disguisia (metallic taste)

d)

Hypokalemia

e)

Hyperphosphatemia

14.

Select the correct statement

a)

Vancomycin has a longer half-life than teicoplanin

b)

Vancomycin has a larger plasma protein binding capacity than teicoplanin

c)

Vancomycin can be administered orally and IM, just like teicoplanin

d)

Vancomycin produces a red-man syndrome while teicoplanin does not

e)

Both vancomycin and teicoplanin undergo glomerular filtration in the renal system

15.

Which of the following is an indication or clinical use of vancomycin?

a)

Prophylaxis of endocarditis in patients with penicillin allergy

b)

Prevention of gram + infections in patients who are undergoing a GI or dental procedure

c)

Systemic MRSA infections

d)

Meningitis caused by MSSA and flavobacterium meningosepticum

e)

Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea

16.

Which of the following is an indication of vassicuent (bacitracin)

a)

Azotemia

b)

Blepharoconjunctivitis

c)

Empyema

d)

Infected eczema

e)

Pseudomembranous colitis

17.

WOTF agent (cephalosporins) should the RPh recommend for the Management of flesh eating bacteria infections caused by vibrio vulnificus

a)

Rocephin

b)

Claforan

c)

Fortaz

d)

Ancef

18.

Which cephalosporin would be effective in managing Lyme’s Disease

a)

Rocephin

b)

Claforan

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Cefotaxime

19.

A patient who has renal dysfunction, it would be necessary to alter the dosage or the frequency of administration of which of the following antibacterials

a)

Teflaro

b)

Zeftera

c)

Moxam

d)

Cefobid

e)

Piperacillin

20.

WOTF statements is correct

a)

Ertapenem has a longer T ½ than Meropenem

b)

Primaxin has a larger PPB capacity than meropenem

c)

Doripenem is administered IV and IM while meropenem is administered IV only

d)

Meropenem binds to PBP-3 while Doripenem does not

e)

Meropenem is administered on a Q8H basis while Doripenem is administered on a once a day basis

21.

For the prophylaxis of hysterectomy WOTF cephalosporins should one employ?

a)

Cefoxitin (Mefoxin)

b)

Ceflotan (Keflan)

c)

Cefazolin (Ancef)

d)

Cefuroxime (Zinacef)

e)

Cefotan (cefotetan)

22.

What Cephalosporins are used in prophylaxis in dental surgery?

a)

Cefadroxil

b)

Cefazolin

c)

Ceftriaxone

d)

Cephalexin

23.

Which of the following bacteria is implicated in human bite infection/wounds

a)

Group A beta hemolytic strep

b)

Group D beta hemolytic strep

c)

Moraxella Catarrhalis

d)

Eikenella corrodens

e)

Staphylococcus aureus

24.

Source: Name of Organism give name of drug: Penicillin

a)

Penicillium chrysogenum

b)

Streptomyces cattleya

c)

Chromobacterium violaceum

d)

Streptomyces orientalis

e)

Bacillus subtilis

25.

Source: Name of Organism give name of drug: Vancomycin

a)

Penicillium chrysogenum

b)

Streptomyces cattleya

c)

Chromobacterium violaceum

d)

Streptomyces orientalis

e)

Bacillus subtilis

26.

Source: Name of Organism give name of drug: Bacitracin

a)

Penicillium chrysogenum

b)

Streptomyces cattleya

c)

Chromobacterium violaceum

d)

Streptomyces orientalis

e)

Bacillus subtilis

27.

Source: Name of Organism give name of drug: Azactam

a)

Penicillium chrysogenum

b)

Streptomyces cattleya

c)

Chromobacterium violaceum

d)

Streptomyces orientalis

e)

Bacillus subtilis

28.

Source: Name of Organism give name of drug: Primaxin

a)

Penicillium chrysogenum

b)

Streptomyces cattleya

c)

Chromobacterium violaceum

d)

Streptomyces orientalis

e)

Bacillus subtilis

29.

After being subjected to a gram staining method/procedure WOTF will have a bluish coloration

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

c)

E-coli

d)

Bacteroides fragilis

e)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

30.

Which of the following would thrive/grow in a McConkey Agar?

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

c)

E-coli

d)

Bacteroides fragilis

e)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

31.

A patient (Mr. John) presents with constitutional symptoms (characteristic of bacterial infection → fever, chills, headaches, myalgia, arthralgia),a blood culture was taken for culture and sensitivity purposes, the lab results showed the presence of an aerobic organism that was growing like a rod (rod shape). Mr. John has a history of cystic fibrosis. What is the likely causative bacteria?

a)

Bacillus anthracis

b)

Streptococcus pyogenes

c)

Burkholderia pseudomallei

d)

Vibrio cholerae

32.

A patient (Mr. John) presents with constitutional symptoms (characteristic of bacterial infection → fever, chills, headaches, myalgia, arthralgia),a blood culture was taken for culture and sensitivity purposes, the lab results showed the presence of an aerobic organism that was growing like a rod (rod shape). Mr. John has a history of cystic fibrosis. Which of the following carbapenem should the pharmacist recommend for the management of MR. Johns infection ?

a)

Vipenem

b)

Pilopenem

c)

Meropenem (merrem)

d)

Ertapenem

e)

Doripenem

33.

Steve presents to the hospital with an infection, UTI, that was caused by e.coli, a lab work on that organism shows that it is carbapenemase producing. Which of the following should be used to manage that UTI that Steve is suffering from?

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Tigecycline

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Cephalexin

e)

Fosfomycin

34.

Considering the spectrum of cephamycins, which of the following should not be treated with a cephamycin?

a)

An infection caused by moraxella

b)

Proteus vulgaris

c)

Vibrio cholera

d)

Peptostreptococcus

e)

Fusobacterium

35.

Which of the following should not be administered concurrently with alcohol (di-sulfram rxn)?

a)

PenG

b)

Azactam

c)

Mandole

d)

Cefobid

e)

Cefazone

36.

What PRP that is most likely to extravasate

(a)  

37.

ESP that is administered IV only

(a)  

38.

ESP that can be administered orally

(a)  

39.

Isoxazolyl that can only be administered parenterally

(a)  

40.

Which of the following has the highest or largest PPB capacity

a)

PenG

b)

Methicillin

c)

Dicloxicillin

d)

Amoxicillin

e)

Tarcacillin

41.

A concurrent administration of mezlocillin and ___ would result in additive hypokalemia

a)

Thiazides

b)

SGLT2 inhibitors

c)

ACEi

d)

Loop Diuretics

42.

Which of the following would result in a reaction of hyperreflexia (hyperkalemia) Pen VK and

a)

Canagliflozin

b)

Tekturna

c)

Diamox

d)

Chlorthalidone

e)

Beyaz

43.

What is the interaction between Pen G and probenecid

4 lines
44.

WOTF increase coumadin effects?

a)

Methicillin

b)

Pen G

c)

Dicloxacillin

d)

Nafcillin

e)

Carbanicillin

45.

Which of the following is likely to produce hemorrhagic episodes

a)

Oritavancin

b)

Piperacillin

c)

Cefamandole

d)

Daptomycin

e)

Rocephin

46.

Mr. Zo has meningitis that is being treated with Primaxin; considering the adverse effect of that drug, which of the following is Mr. Zo likely to experience?

a)

Insomnia

b)

Headache

c)

CDAD

d)

Seizures

e)

Somnolence

47.

What is the brand name of Moxalactam?

a)

Moxam

b)

Cefamox

c)

Claforan

d)

Tizacef

48.

What is the generic name of Claforan?

a)

Moxalactam

b)

Ceftriaxone

c)

Ceftazidime

d)

Cefotaxime

49.

WOTF are brand names of hydrocholorothiazide?

a)

Dinapen

b)

Oretic

c)

Hydrodiuril

d)

Bumex

50.

What is the generic name of Dinapen?

a)

Nafcillin

b)

Cloxacillin

c)

Dicloxacillin

d)

Oxacillin

51.

What is the generic name of Veetids?

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Penicillin VK

c)

Penicillin procaine

d)

Penicillin benzathine

52.

What is the causative agent of Scarlet fever?

a)

Staph infection

b)

Borrelia recurrentis

c)

Leptospira buccalis

d)

Streptococcus pyogenes

53.

What is the causative agent for toxic shock syndrome?

a)

Staph infection

b)

Leptotrichia interorgans

c)

Heamophilus ducreyi

d)

Treponema vincenti

54.

What is the causative agents for Trench mouth

a)

Leptotrichia interrogans

b)

Treponema bucalis

c)

Treponema vincenti

d)

Leptospira bucallis

e)

Borellia burgdoferi

55.

What is the causative agent for Lyme's disease?

a)

Borrelia recurrentis

b)

Treponema pallidum

c)

Borrelia burgdorferi

d)

Streptobacillus moniliformis

56.

What is the causative agent for Chancroid?

a)

Staph infection

b)

Haemophilus ducreyi

c)

Streptobacillus moniformis

d)

Leptotrichia interrogans

57.

What is the causative agent for Weil's disease?

a)

Borrelia burgdorferi

b)

Haemophilus Ducrey

c)

Borrelia recurrentis

d)

Leptotrichia interrogans

58.

What is the causative agent for Relapsing fever?

a)

Borrelia recurrentis

b)

Streptobacillus moniformis

c)

Treponema pallidum

d)

Leptotrichia interrogans

59.

What is the causative agent for Rat bite fever?

a)

Treponema buccalis

b)

Treponema vincenti

c)

Leptospira buccalis

d)

Streptobacillus moniformis

e)

Treponema pallidum

60.

What is the causative agent for Syphilis?

a)

Treponema buccalis

b)

Treponema vincenti

c)

Leptospira buccalis

d)

Streptobacillus moniformis

e)

Treponema pallidum

61.

Considering it’s antibacterial activity, aztreonam (Azactam) can be used effectively to treat infections caused by which of the following organisms

a)

Serattia morseason

b)

Morganella morganii

c)

Enterobacter aerogenus

d)

Aeromonas hydrophila

e)

Moraxella cordarallis

62.

Which of the following should NOT be used to treat an infection caused by salmonella when you consider their antibacterial spectrum

a)

Primaxin (imipenem + cilastatin)

b)

Carbinicillin

c)

Dicloxicillin

d)

Aztreonam

e)

Wycillin

63.

When do you get a Jarisch-herxheimer reaction?

4 lines
64.

Which of the following when combined with alcohol can give you a disulfiram like action?

a)

Mandol (cefamandole)

b)

Cefobid (cefoperazone)

c)

Moxam (moxalactam)

d)

Cefotan (cefotetan)

e)

Zefazone (cefmetazole)

65.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Primaxin (cilastatin + imipenem)

a)

Elevated liver enzymes and BUN

b)

Negative direct Coomb’s test

c)

Headache and arrhythmia

d)

Juanice and seizures

e)

Phlebitis and suprainfection

66.

Which of the following is a possible adverse effect of bacitracin?

a)

Nephrotoxicity

b)

Pain at injection site

c)

Skin rash

d)

Increased albumin in the urine

e)

Azotemia

67.

select the correct statement: DDIs with Penicillins include

a)

A concurrent administration of nafcillin and coumadin will result in a decrease in INR

b)

A concurrent administration of methicillin and gentamicin in vivo will result in an increase in the incidence of nephrotoxicity

c)

A concurrent administration of PEN VK and canagliflozin will result in additive hypokalemia

d)

A concurrent administration of ticarcillin and coumadin will result in hemorrhagic episode

e)

A concurrent administration of piperacillin and HCTZ will result in additive hyperkalemia

68.

What is the usual dose of Teflaro (ceftaroline) for klebsiella pneumonia

4 lines
69.

WOTF statements is true about Veetids (Pen VK)?

a)

It is a beta-lactam antibacterial

b)

It is resistant to penicillinase

c)

It can be administered per OS (PO)

d)

It is better absorbed on an empty stomach

e)

It has a PPB of about 75-80%

70.

WOTF best describes Teixobactin's MOA?

a)

Inhibits Lipid 2

b)

Inhibits Lipid 3

c)

Prevents peptidoglycan biosynthesis

d)

Inhibits pyruval transferase

71.

WOTF medications inhibits the cleavage of D-ala D-ala terminus of NAM on peptidoglycans

a)

Vancomycin

b)

Teicoplanin

c)

Teixobactin

d)

Daptomycin

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