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BIO 156 Final Exam review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Sodium (Na+) is an example of a(n) ___.

a)

Isotope

b)

Isomer

c)

Compound

d)

Ion

2.

What 4 elements make up 96% of living things?

a)

sodium, potassium, carbon, hydrogen

b)

carbon, iron, iodine, calcium

c)

carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen

d)

carbon, calcium, hydrogen, sodium

3.

Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7 and an atomic mass number of 14. How many protons does an atom nitrogen have?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

4.

Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7 and an atomic mass number of 14. How many neutrons does an atom of nitrogen have?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

9

5.

Nitrogen has an atomic number of 7 and an atomic mass number of 14. How many stable covalent bonds can an atom of nitrogen form?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

6.

The molecule in the picture is a(n) ___.

a)

fatty acid

b)

amino acid

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Monosaccharide

7.

The molecule in the picture contains which reactive groups?

a)

amino group and carboxyl group

b)

carboxyl group and hydroxyl group

c)

hydroxyl group and amino group

8.

Choose the correct option to complete the statement below.

Neutrons are _________subatomic particles that are located in the _______ of an atom.

a)

negatively charged; nucleus

b)

uncharged; nucleus

c)

positively charged; orbitals

9.

Amino acids being bonded together to form proteins is an example of ___________and __________ is the chemical reaction involved in the process.

a)

anabolism; dehydration synthesis

b)

catabolism; hydrolysis

10.

Proteins being broken down into amino acids is an example of ____________ and ___________ is the chemical reaction involved in the process.

a)

anabolism; dehydration synthesis

b)

catabolism; hydrolysis

11.

What is the primary mechanism that maintains homeostasis?

a)

metabolism

b)

positive feedback

c)

negative feedback

d)

sweating

12.

In positive feedback, the effector ___ the original stimulus.

a)

Enhances

b)

Opposes

13.

If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, what will happen to the cell?

a)

it will shrivel/shrink

b)

it will swell and possibly burst

c)

it will not be affected

14.

In the reaction which compound is the substrate?

a)

Glucose

b)

maltose

c)

maltase

d)

water

15.

In the reaction which compound is the product?

a)

Glucose

b)

maltose

c)

maltase

d)

water

16.

In the reaction which compound is the enzyme?

a)

Glucose

b)

maltose

c)

maltase

d)

water

17.

Coenzymes are needed for the ___ of enzymes.

a)

allosteric activation

b)

production

c)

allosteric inhibition

d)

competitive inhibition

18.

Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by ___.

a)

breaking water producing heat

b)

stabilizing the pH of the solution

c)

lowering the activation energy

19.

What term refers to when an enzyme loses its 3-dimensional shape and cannot function properly?

a)

catalysis

b)

synthesis

c)

lysis

d)

Denature

20.

Based on the graph, which of the axes shows the dependent variable?

a)

X- Axis

b)

Y-Axis

c)

Slope of the graph

21.

Which of the following hypotheses could be supported by the data on the graph?

a)

The amount of product produced by enzymes decreases over time.

b)

Temperature increases the amount of product produced.

c)

As the concentration of the enzyme increases, the rate of product production increases.

d)

Enzymes do not affect the rate at which products are produced.

22.

Which of the following statements is supported by the graph above?

a)

Crickets have higher average metabolic rates than mice.

b)

The metabolic rate of crickets decreases as temperature increases.

c)

The metabolic rate of mice is greatest at 37°C.

d)

The metabolic rates of mice and crickets respond differently to temperature.

23.

The daughter cells produced by mitosis are ___.

a)

neither diploid nor haploid

b)

depending on the cell either diploid or haploid

c)

Diploid

d)

Haploid

24.

The daughter cells produced by meiosis are ________.

a)

neither diploid nor haploid

b)

depending on the cell either diploid or haploid

c)

Diploid

d)

Haploid

25.

How many times does DNA replication occur during meiosis?

a)

four times

b)

three times

c)

once

d)

Twice

26.

How many times does DNA replication occur during mitosis?

a)

four times

b)

three times

c)

once

d)

Twice

27.

The parent cells in meiosis are ________.

a)

neither diploid nor haploid

b)

depending on the cell either diploid or haploid

c)

Diploid

d)

Haploid

28.

For every germ cell that goes through oogenesis, how many viable eggs are produced?

a)

four

b)

one

c)

two

d)

Three

29.

For every germ cell that goes through spermatogenesis, how many viable sperms are produced?

a)

four

b)

one

c)

two

d)

Three

30.

Which of the following does NOT occur during interphase?

a)

Separation of sister chromatids

b)

An increase in size

c)

DNA replication

d)

The production of proteins and enzymes

31.

When cancer has spread beyond the location where it initially developed, it is considered ___.

a)

Benign

b)

Melanomic

c)

Metastatic

d)

Belligerent

32.

Paired chromosomes, in which one chromosome comes from the mother and one chromosome comes from the father, are known as what?

a)

Daughter chromatids

b)

Sister chromatids

c)

Homologous chromosomes

d)

Daughter cells

33.

Humans have how many pairs of chromosomes?

a)

12

b)

46

c)

23

d)

92

34.

Homologous chromosomes are identical to each other.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Independent assortment and genetic recombination (crossing over) both increase genetic diversity during meiosis.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Which statement describes base pairing in DNA?

a)

a pyrimidine always pairs with a purine

b)

a pyrimidine always pairs with a pyrimidine

c)

a purine always pairs with a purine

37.

Which of the following best describes why Okazaki fragments exist?

a)

because the DNA strands in a double helix are semi-conservative

b)

because the DNA strands in a double helix are anti-parallel

c)

because there are homologous chromosomes

d)

because there are sister chromatids

38.

Which enzyme adds DNA nucleotides to the newly forming DNA strand during DNA replication?

a)

polymerase

b)

helicase

c)

primase

d)

ligase

39.

Which of the following components is NOT part of a nucleotide molecule?

a)

nitrogenous base

b)

sugar

c)

amino acid

d)

phosphate group

40.

Which of the following best illustrates semi-conservative DNA replication?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

41.

Which enzyme separates the two strands of DNA during DNA replication/synthesis?

a)

Exonuclease

b)

Helicase

c)

Ligase

d)

Polymerase

42.

Why is complementary base-pairing critical to DNA replication?

a)

It ensures that each daughter cell in mitosis gets a complete set of DNA

b)

It helps RNA synthesis occur

c)

It helps the DNA polymerase know which direction to go

d)

It prevents mutations from occurring

43.

What happens during translation?

a)

mRNA is made from DNA

b)

A protein is made from mRNA

c)

Cell division

d)

DNA is replicated

44.

What happens during transcription?

a)

mRNA is made from DNA

b)

A protein is made from mRNA

c)

Cell division

d)

DNA is replicated

45.

Anticodons are associated with which molecule?

a)

tRNA

b)

DNA

c)

mRNA

d)

rRNA

46.

Codons are associated with which molecule?

a)

tRNA

b)

DNA

c)

mRNA

d)

rRNA

47.

Buffers help to maintain a relatively stable ___ in the body.

a)

salinity

b)

water content

c)

pH

d)

Temperature

48.

Surface tension in water occurs due to ___.

a)

cohesion

b)

adhesion

c)

covalent bonding

d)

ionic bonding

49.

Hydrophobic substances are ___, because they do NOT interact with the partial charges of the atoms in water molecules.

a)

organic

b)

polar

c)

inorganic

d)

nonpolar

50.

63 A molecule that dissociates into ions when mixed with water is called a(n) ___.

a)

salt

b)

isomer

c)

organic molecule

d)

isotope

51.

Which of the following describes all bacteria?

a)

Acellular

b)

Pathogenic

c)

Prokaryotes

d)

Parasites

52.

Which of the following does NOT describe viruses?

a)

Acellular

b)

Pathogenic

c)

Prokaryotes

d)

Parasites

53.

What is the primary difference between gram positive and gram negative bacteria?

a)

Gram positive bacteria have thicker cell walls than gram negative bacteria

b)

Gram positive bacteria have cell walls whereas gram negative bacteria do not have cell walls

c)

Gram positive bacteria have a nucleus whereas gram negative bacteria do not have a nucleus

d)

Gram positive bacteria have ribosomes whereas gram negative bacteria do not have ribosomes

54.

Transduction in bacteria increases genetic diversity.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Conjugation in bacteria increases genetic diversity.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Which of the following statements best describes plasmids?

a)

Supplemental, circular strands of DNA in viruses.

b)

Supplemental, circular strands of DNA in bacteria.

c)

a circular chromosome that contains the bacterial genome.

d)

Strands of DNA or RNA located in viruses.

57.

If a patient has a viral infection, the physician should prescribe antibiotics to treat it.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

What do genes code for?

a)

Lipids

b)

Nucleic acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

59.

A woman who is a carrier for color blindness has a son with a man who is colorblind. What is the probability that their son will be colorblind?

a)

25%

b)

100%

c)

50%

d)

0%

60.

A woman who is heterozygous for a trait has a child with a man who is homozygous recessive for the same trait. What is the likelihood that their child will have the dominant phenotype?

a)

100%

b)

25%

c)

75%

d)

50%

61.

Which of the following is NOT true of linked genes?

a)

They tend to be inherited together

b)

They exist on the same chromosome

c)

They are identical to each other

62.

Given the DNA code of the gene below, how many amino acids will be in the polypeptide made during protein synthesis?

A T C G G C A T C G C C

a)

6

b)

4

c)

12

d)

3

63.

The cell membrane of a muscle cell is more permeable than the cell membrane of a skin cell. How can their permeability be different?

a)

muscle cells have more proteins in their cell membranes than skin cells

b)

muscle cells have a different glycocalyx than skin cells

c)

the orientation of the phospholipids is different in muscle cells compared to skin cells

d)

skin cells muscle cells have more cholesterol in their cell

membranes than skin cells

64.

Respiratory gases, like oxygen and carbon dioxide, are exchanged between the lungs, the blood, and cells. Which process allows these gases to move across cell membranes?

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

active transport

d)

simple diffusion

65.

As ingested material travels through the small intestine, nutrients are absorbed. What processes allow ions to cross cell membranes during absorption?

a)

simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion

b)

active transport and simple diffusion

c)

active transport and facilitated diffusion

d)

simple diffusion and osmosis

66.

Which structure, associated with the cell membrane, would be most important to immune cells patrolling the body for foreign invaders?

a)

Desmosomes

b)

Phospholipid bilayer

c)

Transport Proteins

d)

Glycocalyx

67.

Some immune cells engulf pathogens, like bacteria into a vesicle. The vesicle containing the pathogen then fuses with another vesicle containing enzymes that will kill the pathogen. What type of cellular transport is involved in this process?

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

phagocytosis

c)

secondary active transport

d)

simple diffusion

68.

Glucose is broken down into pyruvate during which process?

a)

glycolysis

b)

fermentation

c)

oxidation of pyruvate

d)

citric acid cycle

69.

Which ion diffuses through ATP synthase during chemiosmosis?

a)

oxygen (O)

b)

sodium (Na+)

c)

potassium (K+)

d)

hydrogen (H+)

70.

1. What type of energy is typically lost to the environment when energy is converted from one form to another?

a)

heat energy

b)

potential energy

c)

light energy

d)

chemical energy

71.

Muscle fatigue in humans occurs when the muscles switch from aerobic respiration to anaerobic respiration to produce ATP. What would be produced in the muscles when they start producing ATP using anaerobic respiration?

a)

lactic acid

b)

oxygen

c)

ethanol

d)

carbon dioxide

72.

Approximately how many total ATP are produced when glucose goes through all of the steps of aerobic respiration?

a)

20-25

b)

10-12

c)

34-38

d)

2-4

73.

What is the final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain?

a)

NAD+

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

FADH

74.

Cardiac muscle cells require a steady supply of large amounts of ATP in order for the contractions that pump blood through the body to occur. Therefore, cardiac muscle cells must have a lot of which type of organelle?

a)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

ribosomes

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Mitochondria

75.

When we exhale, we remove carbon dioxide from our body. What cellular process produces carbon dioxide?

a)

cellular respiration

b)

hydrolysis

c)

protein synthesis

d)

DNA replication