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WorksheetsFeb Test - Cell Cycle, Genetics, and Gene Expression
Total questions: 79
Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which are NOT under regulatory control and are needed continually for normal cell function?
a)
repressible genes
b)
inducible genes
c)
facultative genes
d)
constitutive genes
2.
Which of these is a risk factor for developing cancer?
a)
growing older
b)
genetic inheritance
c)
exposure to carcinogens
d)
all of the above
3.
Programmed cell death is called
a)
apoptosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
interphase
d)
cancer
4.
Which of the following is a type of protein that regulates the cell cycle?
a)
actin
b)
myosin
c)
cyclin
d)
pepsin
5.
Which phrase best describes cancer?
a)
absence of cyclins
b)
multiple gene mutations
c)
uncontrolled cell growth
d)
precesnce of genetic defects
6.
In eukaryotic cells, chromosomes are composed of_____.
a)
DNA and RNA
b)
DNA only
c)
DNA and proteins
d)
DNA and phospholipids
7.
The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to_____.
a)
Normal growth and cell function
b)
the phase which DNA is replicated
c)
beginning of mitosis
d)
phase between DNA and M phase
8.
The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in_____.
a)
splitting of the cell
b)
condensation of chromosomes
c)
dissolving the nuclear membrane
d)
separation of sister chromatids
9.
Metaphase is characterized by _______.
a)
aligning of chromosomes on the equator
b)
splitting of centromeres
c)
cytokinesis
d)
separation of sister chromatids
10.
Some cells have several nuclei per cell. How?
a)
cell went through cytokinesis but not mitosis
b)
cell went through mitosis with simultaneous cytokinesis
c)
cell went through repeated mitosis, but no cytokinesis occured
d)
cell had multiple S phases before it entered mitosis
11.
If there are 20 centromeres at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis?
a)
10
b)
20
c)
40
d)
80
12.
If a drug disrupts microtublule formation in order to stop mitosis, the drug must be affecting....
a)
the mitotic spindle
b)
anaphase
c)
formation of the centrioles
d)
chromatid assembly
13.
At the end of S phase, how much DNA would a nucleus have if it started out with 4 picograms of DNA in G1 phase?
a)
8
b)
4
c)
16
d)
12
14.
Neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently because they _____.
a)
no longer have active nuclei
b)
have entered Go
c)
can no longer bind Cdk to cyclin
d)
show a drop in MPF concentration
15.
MPF is a dimer consisting of _____.
a)
a growth factor and mitotic factor
b)
ATP synthase and a protease
c)
cyclin and a tubulin
d)
cyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase
16.
Once a cell completes mitosis, what happens to MPF?
a)
It is completely degraded
b)
it is exported from the cell
c)
the cyclin component of MPF is degraded
d)
the Cdk component of MPF is degraded
17.
What is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that requires cyclin to become catalytically active?
a)
PDGF
b)
MPF
c)
cyclin
d)
Cdk
18.
What triggers the cell's passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis?
a)
MPF
b)
PDGF
c)
cyclin
d)
Cdk
19.
For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful for treating cancer cells, which is the most desirable?
a)
limit all apoptosis
b)
does not alter metabolically active cells
c)
interferes with cells entering G0
d)
interferes with rapidly diving cells
20.
The result of meiosis is:
a)
two diploid cells
b)
two haploid cells
c)
four diploid cells
d)
four haploid cells
21.
In, what phase of meiosis does crossing over occur?
a)
prophase I
b)
prophase II
c)
anaphase I
d)
metaphase I
22.
During meiosis I, what happens?
a)
Sister chromatids are split
b)
Homologous chromosomes are split
c)
Four cells are created
d)
None of the other choices are correct
23.
Human eggs and sperm are _____, and each has ____ chromosomes.
a)
diploid, 23
b)
diploid, 46
c)
haploid, 23
d)
haploid, 46
24.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
gametes
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
25.
Unique gametes are produced by which of the following?
a)
Independent assortment during meiosis I.
b)
Independent assortment during meiosis II.
c)
Selective assortment during meiosis I.
d)
Selective assortment during meiosis II.
26.
What is it called when chromosomes fail to separate properly.
a)
Stickiness
b)
Independent Assortment
c)
Nondisjuntion
d)
recombination
30.
In people, dimples are dominant. If both parents are heterozygous for dimples, what is the probability their child may NOT have dimples?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
0%
28.
Red flowers and white flowers are mated together and pink flowers are made. What inheritance pattern is this?
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
law of segregation
d)
multiple alleles
29.
Blood type is controlled by 3 alleles. What inheritance pattern is this?
a)
multiple alleles
b)
codominance
c)
incomplete dominance
d)
law of dominance
30.
In people, dimples are dominant. If both parents are heterozygous for dimples, what is the probability their child may NOT have dimples?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
0%
31.
What is a phenotype?
a)
The expression of a trait; what you see.
b)
refers to the genetic makeup of an individual
c)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (ex. TT or tt)
d)
the passing of traits from parent to offspring
32.
Blood type AB
a)
epistasis
b)
codominance
c)
incomplete dominance
d)
hybrid vigor
33.
A child born with blood type O could have parents with all of the following blood types except...?
a)
A and B
b)
A and O
c)
A and A
d)
AB and O
34.
AaBbCc x AABbcc
Chance of getting an AABBcc individual
Chance of getting an AABBcc individual
a)
1/8
b)
1/2
c)
1/16
d)
1/32
35.
____ is the activation of a gene that results in transcription.
a)
Gene expression
b)
Gene technology
c)
Eukaryotic expression
d)
Prokaryotic expression
36.
Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?
a)
prokaryotes (bacteria)
b)
eukaryotes (plant and animals)
c)
animals only
d)
viruses
37.
What is an operon?
a)
a part of the promoter region of a gene
b)
a part of RNA polymerase
c)
a unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task
d)
A protein needed for DNA replication
38.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the _________.
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
39.
Which molecule can we find the promoter and terminator in?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
polypeptide chain
40.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
41.
A small molecule that binds to the repressor protein and makes it inactive is a/an ________.
a)
corepressor
b)
inducer
c)
promoter
d)
operator
42.
What type of operon is shown in the image?
a)
inducible operon
b)
repressible operon
c)
positive control operon
d)
can't determine this from the image
43.
In a inducible operon, what turns on transcription?
a)
an inducer molecule
b)
an active repressor protein
c)
RNA polymerase
d)
the promoter
44.
What does the inducer molecule do in an inducable operon?
a)
it binds to the repressor protein allowing transcription to occur
b)
it binds to the promoter allowing transcription to occur
c)
it binds to the operator and stops transcription
d)
it binds to the repressor and stops transcription
45.
Which type of operon is shown in the image?
a)
inducible operon
b)
repressible operon
c)
positive control operon
d)
can't determine this from the image
46.
What type of operon is shown ion the image?
a)
inducible operon
b)
repressible operon
c)
positive control operon
d)
ligand operon
47.
In the lac operon, the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
galactose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
d)
glucose is absent in the cell
48.
What type of operon is the lac (lactose) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
49.
What type of operon is the trp (tryptophan) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
50.
Which of the following genotypes represents a male who is bald? (Keep in mind baldness is a x-linked recessive disorder)
a)
XBY
b)
XbXb
c)
XBXb
d)
XbY
51.
In 1911, Thomas Morgan collected the following crossover gene frequencies while studying Drosophila. Bar-shaped eyes are indicated by the B allele, and carnation eyes are indicated by the allele C. Fused veins on wings (FV) and scalloped wings (S) are also located on the same chromosome. What would be the gene map?
a)
C - B - FV - S
b)
FV - S - B - S
c)
C - FV - B - S
d)
C - B - S - FV
52.
In humans, hemophilia is a sex linked recessive trait. Females can be normal, carriers, or have the disease. Males will either have the disease or not (but they won’t ever be carriers). A woman who is a carrier marries a normal man. What is the probability that their children will have hemophilia?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
53.
In Drosophila, the genes for eye colour (pr), wing shape (vg), and body colour (eb) are all found on the same chromosome. The following crossover frequencies for these genes were determined by experimentation. Determine the sequence of genes on the chromosome.
a)
eb - vg - pr
b)
vg - eb - pr
c)
vg - pr - eb
d)
pr- vg - eb
54.
Artic hares are typically white in the winter and darker in the summer. What is the most likely cause of this seasonal coat color change?
a)
decreased in light changes the gene expression
b)
their diet
c)
competition for mates
d)
lower tempatures causes the denaturing of the pigment protein
55.
If an organism of unknown genotype is mated in a test cross and 1/2 of the offspring from that cross have the same phenotype as the parent, what can be concluded?
a)
the parent is heterozygous for the trait
b)
the trait is polygenic
c)
the parent is homozygous dominant for the trait
d)
the parent is homozygous recessivefor the trait
56.
(TAKE YOUR TIME) Based on this pedigree about ALBINISM (recessive), individual II - 1 must be...
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
Can´t Tell
57.
(TAKE YOUR TIME) Based on this pedigree about ALBINISM (recessive), individual IV - 1 must be...
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
Can´t Tell
58.
What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?
a)
Autosomal Recessive
b)
Sex-Linked
c)
Autosomal Dominant
59.
Which genotype provides an advantage if you lived in a malaria prone area?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
60.
All of the following are true about histone acetylation EXCEPT
a)
takes place on the histone
b)
enzymes add a acetyl group
c)
when it occurs, transcription is more likely to occur
d)
chromatin becomes more tightly packed
61.
All of the following are true about DNA methylation EXCEPT
a)
takes place on the DNA
b)
enzymes add a methyl group
c)
when it occurs, transcription is more likely to occur
d)
chromatin becomes more tightly packed
62.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the promoter for transcription
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
63.
A distal control region that activators bind to are bent to contact mediator proteins and form the transcription initiation complex
a)
enhancers
b)
promoters
c)
repressors
d)
transcription factors
64.
What are 2 ways gene expression is controlled in eukaryotes?
a)
Through inducible and non-inducible factors
b)
Through introns and exons
c)
Through DNA, RNA and proteins
d)
The promoter gene and transcription factors
65.
Which of the following does NOT refer to inducible operons?
a)
it is turned on unless not needed
b)
lac operon
c)
repressor molecule has an allosteric binding site for the inducer
d)
the repressor protein is always present
66.
What is the name of the stretch of DNA where RNA polymerase binds?
a)
operator
b)
promoter
c)
enhancer
d)
origin
67.
Acetylation is what type of gene expression?
a)
pre-transcriptional control
b)
pre-transcriptional control
c)
pre-translational control
d)
post-translational control
68.
If the calculated chi square value exceeds the critical value, you would
a)
reject the null
b)
fail to reject the null
69.
If the 3 cells were counted in anaphase out of 50 cells, how many hours does cell spend in anaphase over a 24 hour period
a)
1.44
b)
6.25 hours
c)
0.06 hours
d)
3 hours
70.
other than the total number of the offspring, what other number is needed to calculate the recombination frequency?
a)
number of parentals
b)
number of recombinants
71.
In mice, black fur is dominant over white fur. A mouse with black fur mates with a white mouse. They produce 11 offspring, 10 of which have black fur. Which is the most likely genotype of the black mouse?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
BB or Bb
72.
If a disorder in homozygous dominant lethal, what is the chance of two heterozygous individuals producing a heterozygous child?
a)
50%
b)
67%
c)
33%
d)
25%
73.
If aaBb and Aabb are crossed, what is the genotype of the recombinant offspring?
a)
AaBb and Aabb
b)
AaBa and aaBb
c)
AaBb and aabb
d)
Aabb and aaBb
74.
Which of these is NOT an epigenetic change?
a)
DNA methylation
b)
histone acetylation
c)
histone deacetylation
d)
frameshift mutation
75.
enzyme that tags protein for destruction
a)
proteosome
b)
ubiquitin
c)
transcription factor
d)
lac operon
76.
What role does miRNA or siRNA serve in gene expression?
a)
inhibit translation by causing degradation of mRNA molecules
b)
add methyl groups to the DNA to prevent trancription
c)
selectively splice out introns, thus performing alternative splicing
d)
transfer acetyl groups to histone proteins to activate transcription
77.
Why might twins with the same genes look different?
a)
mutation took place in the gametes that produced the twins
b)
gene expression may be affected by epigenetic factors that influence protein creation
c)
the expression of gnes may be different in males and females
d)
mutation took place in the zygote that produced the twins
78.
Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant
bacteria growing include which of the following?
a)
I and II
b)
IV
c)
I
d)
III
79.
In an experiment, the plasmid contained GFP, the gene for glowing as well as the ampr gene. Which of the following plates would have the highest percentage of bacteria that are expected to glow?
a)
II
b)
IV
c)
I
d)
III
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