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Amanda's BIOL 1107 Midterm Review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What do you feel confident about?

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2.

What area(s) do you know you still need to work in?

4 lines
3.

The Themes of Biology are Organization, Information, Energy and Matter Transformation, Interactions, and Evolution

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Molecules are the lowest level of organization.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

A new property or feature that appears after reaching a higher level of organization is called:

a)

a novel trait

b)

an emergent property

c)

an original quality

d)

a unique feature

6.

Giant squids have very large eyes that are used for seeing in low light conditions. This is an example of:

a)

response to stimuli

b)

interactions

c)

the relationship between structure and function

d)

regulation

7.

True or False: The organelle is the smallest unit of life.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

A cell that has a nucleus must be a:

a)

prokaryote

b)

eukaryote

c)

plant cell

d)

animal cell

9.

A prokaryotic cell is usually _____ than a eukaryotic cell and lacks ______.

a)

smaller; a cell wall

b)

larger; organelles

c)

larger; a cell wall

d)

smaller; organelles

10.

The term expression means:

a)

when one cell communicates with another using chemical signals

b)

when a cell excretes something

c)

when a gene is activated and the cell synthesizes the product (like a protein) the gene encodes for

d)

a cell changes its physical appearance

11.

There is chemical energy in the food you eat. What is the origin of that energy?

a)

the organism being eaten

b)

primary producers

c)

the soil

d)

the sun

12.

A molecule of morphine binds to a neuron's receptor and inhibits pain sensations. This is an example of:

a)

transmission

b)

interaction

c)

structure

d)

expression

13.

If there was no genetic diversity in a population, what could not occur?

a)

reproduction

b)

evolution

c)

meiosis

d)

crossing over of chromosomes

14.

A gene mutates in a single bacteria, making it more resistant to antibiotics. This means that:

a)

this individual is more likely to reproduce under all conditions

b)

if exposed to antibiotics, this individual is more likely to reproduce

c)

natural selection has occurred

d)

evolution has occurred

15.

Your friend tells you over the phone that their TV isn't working. You guess that it's because it isn't plugged in. Which of these is true?

a)

the projector not being plugged in is an observation

b)

the projector not being plugged in is a fact

c)

the projector not being plugged in is a hypothesis

d)

the projector not working is a hypothesis

16.

To test your hypothesis, your friend plugs in the TV. What is the dependent variable in this experiment?

a)

plugging in the TV

b)

the TV

c)

whether or not the TV turns on

d)

you

17.

A scientist wants to know which locations in local marine systems have populations of bioluminescent bacteria. They collect 4 water samples of equal size from 4 different locations and plate the samples. Over the next 24-48 hours, they observe the plates for formation of glowing colonies. What is the independent variable in this experiment?

a)

the bacteria in the samples

b)

the location of the water samples

c)

whether or not there are glowing colonies

d)

the bacteria that successfully grow on the plates

18.

In the previous experiment, what was the dependent variable?

a)

the bacteria in the sample

b)

the location of the water samples

c)

whether or not glowing colonies form

d)

the bacteria that successfully grow on the plates

19.

True or False: A smaller cell will have a harder time exchanging nutrients and waste than a larger cell.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

What are the three organelles that are unique to plant cells as compared to animal cells? Select all that apply.

a)

chloroplast

b)

lysosome

c)

vacuole

d)

cell wall

e)

central vacuole

21.

If a eukaryotic cell didn't have ribosomes, what type of molecule would the cell not be able to produce?

a)

nucleotides

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

carbohydrates

22.

MELAS syndrome presents with brain damage and myopathy due to underproduction of ATP. What organelle is likely defective in individuals with this syndrome?

a)

mitochondria

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

nucleus

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

23.

Cystinosis is a disease where the amino acid cystine can't be broken down and builds up in cells. If severe enough, the cystine molecules can crystalize, causing brain damage, kidney failure, muscle wasting, and bone deformities. What organelle is likely defective in individuals with this disease?

a)

ribosomes

b)

lysosomes

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

endoplasmic reticulum

24.

How many chromosomes and chromatids are in this picture? (For example, if there were one chromosome and one chromatid, please write "1, 1")

(a)  

25.

Which of the following is false of meiosis?

a)

It generates haploid gametes

b)

It is involved in asexual reproduction

c)

Cells become haploid after the first round of division

d)

It generates four daughter cells

26.

A disease that I made up prevents centrioles from forming mitotic spindles. At what phase would the cell be unable to continue mitosis?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Interphase

27.

What does a cell spend the most time doing?

a)

growing and performing normal functions

b)

dividing

c)

replicating DNA

d)

synthesizing proteins

28.

Based on the graph, S phase is labeled ___ and M phase is labeled ____. (Write your answer as "X, Y" with the correct letters, both capitalized.)

(a)  

29.

Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromosomes would an individual's grandchildren have if humans started producing diploid gametes?

(a)  

30.

A person has 22 pairs of chromosomes, but the 14th "pair" is only one chromosome. What most likely happened?

a)

polyploidy

b)

a nondysjunction during meiosis in one of this person's parent's gametes

c)

a nondysjunction during mitosis of the person's cells

d)

the chromosome wasn't replicated during S phase in this person's cells

31.

You see a cell whose chromosomes look like this. What phase of the cell cycle is this cell in?

a)

G1/Gap 1

b)

S Phase

c)

G2/Gap 2

d)

M Phase

32.

What happens during anaphase of mitosis in a cell that has only one chromosome?

a)

One duplicated chromosome's sister chromatids are separated and become two chromosomes

b)

Homologous chromosomes are separated

c)

Two duplicated chromosomes are separated

d)

The duplicated chromosomes are shared with each daughter cell, giving them each two chromosomes

33.

Select all organisms that reproduce without meiosis:

a)

A single-celled organism, such as a bacteria

b)

A cactus that reproduces by budding

c)

Mammals

d)

egg-laying bony fish

34.

A new species is discovered that has 20 chromosomes in its karyotype. Which of the following statements must be true?

a)

It reproduces sexually

b)

It reproduces asexually

c)

Its gametes would have 20 chromosomes

d)

Its gametes would have 10 chromosomes

35.

Which of these statements is true about the process of meiosis in an organism that has 5 pairs of chromosomes? Select all that apply.

a)

At the end of telophase I, the cells would have 2 copies of 5 chromosomes.

b)

At the end of telophase II, the cells would have 2 copies of 5 chromosomes.

c)

At the end of telophase I, the cells would have 1 copy of 5 chromosomes.

d)

At the end of telophase II, the cells would have 1 copy of 5 chromosomes.

36.

A cell that has 2 pairs of chromosomes undergoes mitosis. Another cell that also has 2 pairs of chromosomes undergoes meiosis. Label the cells below as either anaphase, anaphase I, or anaphase II. (Left side first, then right side, separated by commas)

(a)  

37.

During what phase of meiosis does crossing over begin?

a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Prophase I

d)

Prophase II

38.

Which is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n=4?

a)

The species is diploid with 2 chromosomes per cell

b)

The species is diploid with 2 pairs of chromosomes per cell

c)

A gamete from this species has 4 chromosomes

d)

This species is diploid with 4 pairs of chromosomes per cell

e)

This species is haploid with 4 chromosomes per cell

39.

If green leaves (G) is dominant to red leaves (g), what proportion of the offspring produced by a cross of Gg x Gg will be heterozygous?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

1/4

d)

1/2

40.

A rose bush is homozygous dominant for red petals (R) and homozygous recessive for green pollen (p). What are the plant's possible gametes? Select all that apply.

a)

RR

b)

pp

c)

rP

d)

Rp

41.

A green frog produces offspring with a yellow frog. The offspring are all speckled green and yellow. What type of dominance does the gene for skin color exhibit?

a)

Complete dominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Sex-linked inheritance

d)

Codominance

42.

A true-breeding long-winged bumblebee breeds with a true-breeding short-winged bumblebee. Assume the gene exhibits complete dominance. If all of the offspring have short wings, which gene is dominant and what is the offsprings' genotype?

a)

short is dominant; the offspring are homozygous dominant

b)

short is dominant; the offspring are heterozygous

c)

long is dominant; the offspring are homozygous recessive

d)

long is dominant; the offspring are heterozygous

43.

All of the following contribute to genetic variation. Which three are specific to sexually reproducing organisms?

a)

mutations

b)

independent assortment of chromosomes

c)

crossing over

d)

random fertilization

44.

Independent assortment of chromosomes is when:

a)

homologous chromosomes orient themselves individually on the metaphase plate during anaphase

b)

homologous chromosomes orient themselves individually on the metaphase plate during anaphase I

c)

homologous chromosomes orient themselves individually on the metaphse plate during anaphase II

d)

sister chromatids orient themselves individually on the metaphase plate

45.

Sam has type A blood and has children with Alex who has type AB blood. Sam's parents have type AB and type O blood. What are the possible blood types of Sam and Alex's children? Select all that apply.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

46.

In cats, there is a gene that controls pigmentation. This pigmentation controls fur color, but it also plays a role in maintaining fluid in ear canals. If this gene is defective, the cat will have white fur with blue eyes and will likely be deaf as well, due to not enough fluid in the ear canal. This is an example of:

a)

polyploidy

b)

pleiotropy

c)

epistasis

d)

polygenic

47.

One gene controls skin pigment in ball pythons. However, another gene controls the delivery of that pigment to the eyes and skin. The dominant version of this gene is functional, while the recessive version is not and therefore does not deliver pigment to its destination. This is an example of:

a)

polyploidy

b)

pleiotropy

c)

epistasis

d)

polygenic

48.

When an organism's phenotype depends on multiple genes and its environmental conditions, that is called:

a)

polygenic

b)

multifactorial

c)

ecotype

d)

conditional expression

49.

What are the four types of sex determination?

a)

X-Y, X-Z, X-0, and haplo-diploid

b)

X-Y, Z-W, X+, and haplo-triploid

c)

X-Y, Z-W, X-0, and haplo-diploid

d)

X-Y, X-Z, X-0, and haplo-triploid

50.

Select every sex-determination type that produces a female.

a)

XX

b)

ZW

c)

X

d)

haploid

e)

ZZ

51.

For an X-linked gene, males are always

a)

heterozygous

b)

homozygous dominant

c)

homozygous recessive

d)

hemizygous

52.

Black feathers are a sex-linked dominant trait in chickens. If a white feathered female produces offspring with a black feathered male, what percentage of their daughters will have black feathers?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

53.

A new gene mutates on the Y chromosome of an individual. Which of the following is true? Select all that apply.

a)

Females will never be directly affected.

b)

Females can be carriers.

c)

An affected male will always pass on this trait to their female children.

d)

An affected male will always pass on this trait to their male children.

54.

The four cells shown are the result of a single round of meiosis. During what phase did nondysjunction occur?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Anaphase I

c)

Anaphase II

d)

Metaphase I

e)

Metaphase II

55.

Which of the following is not a compound?

a)

CaCO3

b)

O2

c)

C2H6

d)

CH4

56.

In this atom taken from the periodic table, what is the atomic mass?

a)

1

b)

1.008

c)

0.008

d)

H

57.

Which things are indicated by the same number when looking at an atom on the periodic table?

a)

Atomic number

b)

Atomic mass

c)

Number of protons

d)

Number of electrons when neutral

58.

Phosphorus (P) usually has how many neutrons?

(a)  

59.

What tells you how many valence electrons an atom has?

a)

Which row the atom is in

b)

Which column the atom is in

c)

Whether the atom is an metal or a nonmetal

d)

The atomic number

60.

What tells you how many valence shells an atom has?

a)

What column the atom is in

b)

What row the atom is in

c)

Its atomic number

d)

Whether it's a metal or a nonmetal

61.

How many valence electrons does nitrogen (N) have?

(a)  

62.

Cations are _____ charged and anions are ____ charged

a)

positively; positively

b)

positively; negatively

c)

negatively; negatively

d)

negatively; positively

63.

______ and _______ will always form ionic bonds.

a)

Metals; nonmetals

b)

Metals; metals

c)

Nonmetals; nonmetals

d)

Carbon; hydrogen

64.

When sodium (Na, a metal) and chlorine (Cl, a nonmetal) for a chemical bond, sodium ______ and chlorine ______, resulting in a(n) ________.

a)

gains an electron; loses an electron; ionic bond

b)

loses an electron; gains an electron; ionic bond

c)

gains an electron; loses an electron; covalent bond

d)

loses an electron; gains an electron; covalent bond

65.

_______ and _______ will always form covalent bonds.

a)

Metals; nonmetals

b)

Metals; metals

c)

Nonmetals; nonmetals

d)

Na; Cl

66.

When oxygen (O) and hydrogen (H) form a chemical bond, they __________.

a)

share electrons equally

b)

share electrons unevenly (they spend most of the time closer to hydrogen)

c)

share electrons unevenly (they spend most of the time closer to oxygen)

d)

share electrons unevenly (which atom them spend most of the time with changes based on conditions)

67.

What carbon (C) and hydrogen (H) form a chemical bond, they _______.

a)

share electrons equally

b)

share electrons unevenly (spend more time with carbon)

c)

share electrons unevenly (spend more time with hydrogen)

d)

share electrons unevenly (which atom they spend more time with changes based on conditions)

68.

Carbon has ____ hybrid orbitals that form a _____.

a)

4; square

b)

2; square

c)

4; tetrahedron

d)

2; tetrahedron

69.

Balance the following equation:


__Al + __HCl --> __AlCl3 + __H2


Write your answer as numbers separated by commas (ex: "1, 2, 3, 4")

(a)  

70.

Balance the following equation:


__Na2CO3 + __HCl --> __NaCl + __H20 + __C02


Write your answer as numbers separated by commas (ex: "1, 2, 3, 4")

(a)  

71.

Hydrogen bonds are:

a)

weak bonds between two hydrogens

b)

weak bonds between two oxygens

c)

weak bonds between oxygens and hydrogens of the same molecule

d)

weak bonds that form between molecules due to the slight positive or slight negative charge associated with each of them

72.

What are the emergent properties of water? Select all that apply

a)

cohesion, adhesion, and surface tension

b)

expansion when freezing

c)

resistance to changes in temperature

d)

solvation

e)

emulsification

73.

What types of molecules are hydrophilic? Select all that apply.

a)

Ionic

b)

Polar covalent

c)

Nonpolar covalent

d)

Hydrocarbons

74.

What types of molecules are hydrophobic? Select all that apply.

a)

Ionic

b)

Polar covalent

c)

Nonpolar covalent

d)

Hydrocarbons

75.

What is molarity a measurement of?

a)

Weight

b)

Volume

c)

Number of individual pieces

d)

Charge

76.

pH below 7 is considered

a)

basic

b)

acidic

77.

The top three molecules shown here have the same molecular formula, as do the bottom three molecules. What kind of isomers are they?

a)

structural isomers

b)

geometrical isomers

c)

optical isomers

d)

enantomers

78.

Optical isomers have the same

a)

molecular formula

b)

interactions

c)

chemical properties

d)

three-dimensional structure

79.

Do you know all of the functional groups?

a)

Yes, all of them

b)

Yes, most of them

c)

Well, a few of them

d)

...functional groups?

80.

Now that we've had somewhat of a practice test, are there any more topics you still want to discuss?

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