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A&P 102 Endocrine & Cardiovascular test review

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What do capillaries, the smallest blood vessels, do?
a)
Exchange O2 only
b)
Exchange CO2 only
c)
exchange nutrients and  oxygen for waste 
d)
break down foods
2.
Which component of blood makes up 1% of the blood?
a)
White blood cells & Platelets
b)
Plasma & Platelets
c)
Plasma & White blood cells
d)
Platelets & Red blood cells
3.
What are the 4 components of blood?
a)
White blood cells, Platelets, bone marrow, and oxygen
b)
Plasma, Platelets, yellow blood cells, and nutrients
c)
Plasma, White blood cells, red blood cells, and Platelets
d)
Platelets, Red blood cells
4.
Where does blood go after the right atrium?
a)
left atrium
b)
left ventricle
c)
right ventricle
d)
aorta
5.
Where does the blood go after it goes into the pulmonary arteries?
a)
lungs
b)
heart
c)
head
d)
hands
6.
Which blood vessels carry blood to the heart?
a)
Aorta
b)
veins
c)
arteries
d)
arterioles
7.
Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
a)
capillaries
b)
veins
c)
arteries
8.
Un-oxygenated blood enters the right atrium from the top of the heart.
a)
inferior vena cava
b)
superior vena cava
c)
aorta
9.
Which of the following define diastole and systole
a)
systole is the contraction of the heart and diastole is the relaxation of the heart
b)
diastole is the contraction of the heart and systole is the relaxation of the heart
c)
diastole and systole are both contractions of the heart
d)
diastole and systole are both relaxation phases of the heart
10.
name of the valve that separates right atrium from right ventricle.
a)
tricuspid
b)
aortic
c)
mitral
11.
Name of the valve that separates left atrium from left ventricle.
a)
mitral valve
b)
tricuspid
c)
pulmonary valve
12.
Build up of plaque causing the narrowing of the walls of the arteries of the heart. 
a)
Atherosclerosis
b)
Arrhythmia
c)
Stroke
13.
When the heart rate is more than 100 beats per minute.
a)
Tachycardia  
b)
Bradycardia
c)
Hyperventilation
14.
What structure of the heart is this?
a)
Tricuspid Valve
b)
Bicuspid Valve
c)
Aortic Semilunar Valve
d)
Pulmonar Semilunar Valve
15.
The Semilunar valves are the
a)
Tricuspid and Bicuspid Valves
b)
Tricuspid and Pulmonary Valves
c)
Bicuspid and Aortic Valves
d)
Pulmonary and Aortic Valves
16.
the wall of muscle which divides the heart into left and right sides is called _____
a)
foramen ovale 
b)
interventricular septum
c)
aorta
d)
pulmonary wall
17.
Blood that is in the abdomen will enter the heart through the _______. 
a)
inferior vena cava
b)
superior vena cava
c)
bicuspid valve
d)
lungs
18.
The outer layer in the wall of the heart
a)
epicardium
b)
myocardium
c)
endocardium
d)
septum
19.
space between the layers of the pericardium that contains fluid to reduce friction
a)
pericardial cavity
b)
epicardium
c)
endocardium
d)
myocardium
20.

What type of system is the circulatory system?

a)

open, single pump

b)

closed, single pump

c)

open, double pump

d)

closed, double pump

21.
The force of blood on the walls of blood vessels is called ?
a)
blood pressure
b)
atherosclerosis
c)
tonsils
d)
lymphocytes
22.
When fatty deposits build up on the arterial walls it is called?
a)
spleen
b)
blood pressure
c)
atherosclerosis
d)
hemophilia
23.
Myocardial Infarction is AKA a ________
a)
blood clot
b)
heart attack
c)
heart inflammation
d)
muscle
24.
Chest pain is also known as...
a)
MI
b)
Angina
c)
Hyperlipidemia
25.
EKG is a diagnostic test called
a)
Electrocardiogram
b)
ElectroKalisis
c)
ElectroKinetic
26.
abnormally rapid heartbeat
a)
sinus rhythm
b)
tachycardia
c)
bradycardia
d)
gallop
27.
an abnormal sound associated with the turbulent flow of the blood 
a)
heart murmur
b)
sinus rhythm
c)
arrhythmia
d)
asystole
28.
The QRS-wave correlates with which event?
a)
atrium contraction /signals moving from SA node to AV node
b)
ventricle contraction
c)
ventricle repolarization
d)
both atrial and ventricle contraction
29.
What is the sequence of events in the transmission of an impulse through the heart muscle?
 a: AV node
 b: AV bundle
 c: SA node
 d: Through the atria
 e: Through the ventricles
 f: Bundle branches
 g: Purkinje fibers 
a)
d, b, a, c, f, g, e

b)
c, d, a, b, f, g, e

c)
b, a, d, c, f, g, e

d)
f, g, d, c, b, a, e

30.
Order the phases an action potential travels in the conduction system
a)
SA node--> AV bundle branches--> AV node--> Purkinje fibers
b)
SA node--> AV node--> AV bundle branches-->  Purkinje fibers
c)
Av bundle branches--> AV node--> SA node--> Purkinje fibers
d)
Purkinje fibers--> SA node--> AV node--> AV bundle branches
31.
The role of the atrioventricular node (AV node) is to
a)
initiate a sinus rhythm
b)
conduct impulses to the sinoatrial node (SA node)
c)
initiate ventricular depolarization
d)
slow down impulses so that the atria can contract to fill the adjacent ventricles with blood
32.
The P wave of an ECG represents
a)
atrial repolarization
b)
atrial depolarization
c)
ventricular repolarization
d)
ventricular depolarization
33.
The second heart sound (the dup of the lub-dup) is caused by the
a)
opening of the pulmonary and aortic valves
b)
closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
c)
closure of the pulmonary and aortic valves
d)
opening of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves
34.
Which of the following pairs of words are not equivalent ?
a)
Systole : Contraction
b)
Contraction : Depolarization
c)
Diastole : Deploarization
d)
Relaxation : Repolarization
35.
Mr. Shore's heart rate is 70 beats per minute and he has a stroke volume of 0.05 liters per stroke. What is his cardiac output? 
a)
5 Liters / minute
b)
4 Liters / minute
c)
3 Liters / minute
d)
3.5 Liters / minute
36.
 This triggers contraction in the atria:
a)
SA node
b)
AV node
c)
QT node
d)
AV Bundles
37.
What is going on in the heart during the P wave?
a)
SA node triggers depolarization in atria
b)
AV node triggers depolarization in ventricle, the main pumpung action
c)
Delay caused by the SA node
d)
Repolarization of the ventricle 
38.
The arrow is pointing to the...
a)
Posterior Interventricular Branch
b)
Anterior Descending Interventricualr Branch
c)
Marginal Branch of the Right Coronary Artery
d)
Circumflex Branch of the Left Coronary Artery
39.
The arrow is pointing to the...
a)
Left Coronary Artery
b)
Right Aortic Coronary Artery
c)
Right Coronary Artery
d)
Circumflex Branch of the Left Coronary Artery
40.
For a blood pressure reading, the number on top measures...
a)
Diastolic Pressure
b)
Systolic Pressure
c)
Diastemic Pressure
d)
Systemic Pressure
41.
Which of the following does NOT affect BP?
a)
Blood volume
b)
Stress
c)
Blood viscosity
d)
Blood temperature
42.
Normal blood pressure is...
a)
120/80 mmHg
b)
80/120 mmHg
c)
140/90 mmHg
d)
80/140 mmHg
43.
Peripheral resistance is affected primarily by:
a)
the length of myocardial fibers.
b)
blood viscosity and the diameter of arterioles.
c)
the capacity of the blood reservoirs.
d)
elasticity of the heart.
44.
The cardiovascular center is located in the
a)
pons
b)
medulla oblongata
c)
cerebrum
d)
cerebelum
45.
Which of the following is not a mechanism that increases blood volume and therefore venous return of blood to the heart?
a)
Antidiuretic hormone
b)
Aldosterone
c)
Atrial natriuretic hormone 
d)
Renin-angiotensin mechanism
46.

These cellular proteins allow cardiac muscle to communicate affectively.

a)

intercalated discs

b)

gap junction

c)

Z lines

d)

Desmosomes

47.

These structures help to prevent the AV valves from prolapsing/inverting.

a)

Semilunar valves

b)

Myocardium

c)

Pericardial sac

d)

Chordae tendineae

48.

The long cardiac plateau (absolute refractory period) due to Ca+ entry prevents this from happening in cardiac muscle

a)

contraction

b)

tetanus

c)

relaxation

d)

action potential generation

49.

Which is the correct representation of cardiac output?

a)

CO = HR / SV

b)

CO = SV / HR

c)

CO = HR x SV

d)

CO = ADH X EPO

50.

If Dr. Brand's CO = 8000 mL/min and his SV = 80 ml/beat, what is his heart rate?

a)

7920 bpm

b)

100 bpm

c)

120 bpm

d)

90 bpm

51.

When comparing the right a left ventricles, which of the following is true?

a)

The right & left ventricles eject different volumes and the left ventricle applies greater pressure to the blood.

b)

The right & left ventricles eject the same volume but the left ventricle applies greater pressure to the blood.

c)

The right & left ventricles eject the same volume & apply the same pressure to the blood.

d)

The right & left ventricles eject different volumes but apply the same pressure to the blood.

52.

Which of the following shows the correct relationship for stroke volume?

a)

SV = EDV - ESV

b)

SV = ESV - EDV

c)

SV = EDV / ESV

d)

SV = ESV / EDV

53.

If Dr. Brand's EDV=90ml and ESV=15ml, what is his stroke volume?

a)

105 mL

b)

1350 mL

c)

90 mL

d)

75 mL

54.

If preload (venous return) increased, which of the following will be true?

a)

Stroke volume and cardiac output will decrease

b)

Heart rate will decrease and cardiac output will increase

c)

Stroke volume and cardiac output will increase

d)

Afterload and cardiac output will increase

55.

When blood pressure decreases, how will the ANS respond?

a)

sympathetic input will increase

b)

sympathetic input will decrease

c)

parasympathetic input will increase

d)

action potentials will increase through the vagus nerve

56.

These vessels are known as the pressure reservoirs because they help maintain BP when the ventricles are in diastole.

a)

elastic arteries

b)

muscular arteries

c)

arterioles

d)

veins

57.

These vessels are known as the blood reservoirs due to the fact that they hold about 65% of the blood.

a)

Elastic arteries

b)

Veins

c)

Muscular arteries

d)

Venules

58.

Blood viscosity impacts blood pressure. Which of the following has the greatest impact on increasing blood viscosity.

a)

increasing ADH

b)

decreasing RBC count

c)

increasing aldosterone

d)

increasing erythropoietin

59.

The greatest drop in blood pressure occurs within these vessels

a)

arteries

b)

arterioles

c)

capilaries

d)

venules

60.

Which of the follow is the correct equation for mean arterial pressure (MAP)

a)

MAP = diastolic x 1/3 pulse pressure

b)

MAP = diastolic + 1/3 pulse pressure

c)

MAP = systolic + 1/3 diastolic pressure

d)

MAP = systolic + 1/2 pulse pressure

61.

What is Dr. Brand's MAP if his blood pressure is 135/75?

a)

155 mmHg

b)

60 mmHg

c)

95 mmHg

d)

210 mmHg

62.

As blood pressure increase above normal, all the of the follow would occur EXCEPT

a)

stroke volume will decrease

b)

cardiac output will increase

c)

vasodilation

d)

sympathetic input decreases

63.

As blood pressure decreases below normal, all of the following will occur EXCEPT

a)

contractility of the heart will increase

b)

vasoconstriction

c)

ADH & aldosterone levels will decrease

d)

erythropoietin (EPO) increases

64.

These capillaries have large intercellular clefts which allow RBC's to enter and leave the blood stream freely.

a)

tight capillaries

b)

sinusoidal capillaries

c)

fenestrated capillaries

d)

gap capillaries

65.

All of the following local conditions would cause capillaries to dilate EXCEPT

a)

increased temperature

b)

decreased CO2

c)

decreased pH

d)

decreased O2

66.

All of the following aid in venous return EXCEPT

a)

muscle pumps

b)

vasoconstriction of veins

c)

respiratory pump

d)

atrial contraction

67.

Which of the following variables has the greatest has the greatest impact on blood flow?

a)

vessel resistance (radius)

b)

stroke volume

c)

pressure gradient

d)

viscosity

68.

Which organ has the greatest long term impact on blood pressure?

a)

Heart

b)

Kidney

c)

Liver

d)

Pancreas

69.

All of the follow impact total peripheral resistance EXCEPT

a)

vascular resistance

b)

stroke volume

c)

viscosity

d)

turbulence

70.

Once a person looses 30%+ of BV, shock sets in and all of the following would be appropriate responses EXCEPT

a)

increased ADH

b)

vasodialation

c)

increased angiotensin

d)

increased heart rate

71.
What is the pituitary gland?
a)
the master gland
b)
helps you go to sleep
c)
influence metabolic rate
d)
decrease blood calcium
72.
Function of adrenal glands:
a)
produces hormones that control BSL (blood sugar level)
b)
control female characteristics and menstrual cycle
c)
control male characteristics and sperm production
d)
help prepare the body for stress
73.
Letter H is pointing to
a)
Thymus
b)
Pancreas
c)
Pituitary
d)
Pineal
74.
What is gland #3?
a)
Adrenal Gland
b)
Pancreas
c)
Ovaries
d)
Testes
75.

Cells that have receptors for a particular hormone.

a)

gland cells

b)

neurons

c)

hormones

d)

target cells

76.

Which hormone regulates water balance by reducing the amount of water leaving the body

a)

aldosterone

b)

antidiuretic hormone

c)

growth hormone

d)

thyroxine

77.

A hormone antagonist is one that has the opposite function. The hormone antagonist of insulin is _________

a)

glucagon

b)

gastrin

c)

secretin

d)

calcitonin

78.

Calcitonin decreases calcium in the blood while Parathyroid hormone works antagonistically. What is the function of PTH (Parathyroid Hormone)?

a)

To increase the amount of calcium in the blood so that it is available for the bones

b)

To decrease the amount of calcium in the blood so that it is available for the bones

c)

To break down bones to release calcium into the blood

d)

To build up bones

79.

This hormone maintains circadian rhythms and is most active during sleep

a)

melanin

b)

melatonin

c)

Thymic factor hormone

d)

Thyroid stimulating hormone

80.
What is the fight or flight hormone?
a)
Cortisol 
b)
Epinephrine and Norepinphrine 
c)
Testorerone 
d)
Aldosterone 
81.
Insulin causes
a)
a decrease in the concentration of blood glucose
b)
a decrease in the permeability of cell membranes to glucose
c)
an increase in the production of glucose from glycogen
d)
none of these is correct
82.
The hormone that causes calcium to be deposited in bone is
a)
calcitonin
b)
parathyroid hormone
c)
thyroxine
d)
insulin
83.
Which gland helps respond to stress and danger?
a)
Thyroid
b)
Adrenal
c)
Pancreas
d)
Parathyroid

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