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Evo Review Part 1_IB Bio (BioH Review, Spec, H-W, Origin)

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Who was the Scientist most famous for his study of natural selection and evolution?

a)

Theodor Schwann

b)

Robert Hooke

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Rudolf Virchow

2.

What is the process in which populations CHANGE gradually over time?

a)

evolution

b)

species

c)

variation

d)

competition

3.

What do you call similar structures that related species have inherited from a common ancestor?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Analogous Structure

c)

Vestigial Structure

d)

Homologous Structure

4.

What do we call structures that no longer perform their original function?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Analogous Structure

c)

Vestigial Structure

d)

Homologous Structure

5.

What do you call a characteristic that allows an organism to survive in an environment?

a)

variation

b)

adaptation

c)

selection

d)

overproduction

6.
Where humans have bred organisms together based on traits we like.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction 
d)
Artificial Selection
7.
A fossil of an extinct dinosaur is found and the anatomy of the fossil shows similarities to that of a bird. What could this mean?
a)
This is purely by chance and isn't significant
b)
The extinct dinosaur and modern bird share a common ancestor
c)
All dinosaurs evolved into birds and that's why there aren't any dinosaurs alive today
d)
Dinosaurs choose to fly, and evolved into birds to escape predation and capture food
8.
Which of the following organisms the kingdom animalia are not closely related?
a)
mouse and hagfish
b)
mouse and lizard
c)
mouse and pigeon
d)
mouse and chimp
9.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
10.
This is a group of organisms of the same species that live in a specific geographical area.
a)
Environment
b)
Evolution
c)
Biological diversity
d)
Populations
11.
This is the trace or remains of an organism that lived long ago, most commonly preserved in sedimentary rock.
a)
Competiton
b)
Extinction
c)
Evidence
d)
Fossil
12.
What is the study of the distribution of organisms around the world?
a)
geology
b)
biogeography
c)
paleontology
d)
geography
13.
Which layer is the oldest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
14.

The formation of a new species is called

a)

Natural selection

b)

Struggle for existence

c)

Speciation

d)

Darwinism

15.

When a population becomes divided by an event such as a new river forming, ____________ has occurred.

a)

Differentiation

b)

Reproductive isolation

c)

Adaptation

d)

Convergent evolution

e)

Adaptive radiation

16.

What do we call a group of individuals that can reproduce successfully in nature?

a)

species

b)

order

c)

speciation

d)

mom and dad

17.
The climate of a certain area is cold, and snow is found on the ground most of the year. Equal numbers of two populations of rabbits are introduced into this climate by a group of scientists. One of the populations is brown and the other is white. Predict what will happen over several generations.
a)
There will be equal numbers of brown and white rabbits
b)
There will be more brown rabbits that white rabbits
c)
There will be more white rabbits than brown rabbits
d)
There is no way to predict what will happen to the rabbit population
18.

The large-scale events of speciation are called...

a)

macroevolution

b)

simplification

c)

adaptation

d)

microevolution

19.

What type of selection is depicted in the picture?

a)

stabilizing

b)

directional

c)

disruptive

20.
What type of selection?
a)
Directional 
b)
Stabilizing
c)
Disruptive
21.
Which of the three graphs shows stabilizing selection?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
22.

A certain plant can grow in a range from 7 centimeters to 2 meters. The smallest plants often do not grow tall enough to get enough sunlight to survive. The tallest plants are easy targets for leaf eating insects. The leaves do not taste good to mammals however.


What graph best shows how this population is most likely going to change over time?

a)
b)
c)
d)
23.

Long ago, a species of Finches arrived on the Galapagos Islands. Some of these birds had larger beaks that were useful for breaking tree nuts, while others had smaller beaks that were useful for getting small insects from trees. Today we have a variety of finches that we consider separate species.


What type of natural selection has occurred on the Galapagos Finches?

a)

Directional Selection

b)

Stabilizing Selection

c)

Disruptive Selection

d)

Natural Selection has not occurred on the finches

24.

The United States is known as a melting pot because many different types of people compose society. People from all parts of the world have moved to the United States in search of religious freedom, to escape poverty or violence, or as a refugee after being displaced due to environmental factors. Which of these is a likely outcome of movement by people?

a)

Gene flow occurs between populations.

b)

Allele frequencies suddenly change dramatically.

c)

Relative genotypic frequencies reach a constant state.

d)

Intermediate phenotypes increase in the species.

25.

What mechanism of evolution occurs when allele frequencies change over generations due to random chance?

a)

Genetic Drift

b)

Mutation

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Gene Flow

26.

A small group of squirrels gets separates them from the rest of the population due to a large flood. These squirrels, now confined to this new island, begin to start a new population. This is an example of which of the following?

a)

Founder effect

b)

Bottleneck effect

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Gene Flow

27.

Severe population reduction reduces the gene pool

and increases the rate of genetic drift. Woolly mammoths became extinct. Elephants survived.

a)

Gene Pool

b)

Bottleneck Effect

c)

Founders Effect

d)

Gene Frequency

28.
The opossum and kangaroo both incubate their young in a pouch. This provides evidence that they---
a)
are descended from a common ancestor
b)
Have very similar skeletal structures
c)
belong to the same species
d)
must range great distances to eat
29.

Fossils show us evidence of evolution because...

a)

They show a gradual change in species over time

b)

They show rapidly changing species

c)

They only show evidence of genetic mutations

d)

Fossils are not evidence

30.

Which type of structures have DIFFERENT origin but similar function?

a)

Analogous

b)

Homologous

31.

Which type of structures have SAME origin but different function?

a)

Analogous

b)

Homologous

32.

The five-factors for evolution are gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, natural selection and ....

a)

non-random mating

b)

controlled mating

c)

emigration

d)

immigration

33.
Yellow toucan birds seek out one another to make babies together and tend to avoid the green toucan birds.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Non-random mating
c)
Gene flow
d)
Mutation
34.

Closely related species that look very different as a result of using an existing physical structure to become better suited to their respective niches in the environment.

a)

Adaptive Radiation

b)

Macro-evolution

c)

Micro-evolution

d)

Speciation

35.

Grass plants in a population range in height from 6 cm to 25 cm. The short plants receive little sunlight, and the tall plants are eaten by grazing animals. Which statement best describes the effect of natural selection on the grasses?

a)

Because average height grass plants are favored, stabilizing natural selection is occurring.

b)

Because average height grass plants are favored, disruptive natural selection is occurring.

c)

Because tall grass plants are favored by the animals that eat grass, directional selection is occurring.

d)

Because short and tall grass plants are favored, normal natural selection is occurring.

36.

Which of the following statements best describes what will most likely occur to the moth populations in the image above?

a)

The light moths will be captured by predators more easily than the dark moths, and the population of dark moths will rise.

b)

The light moths will be captured by predators more easily than the dark moths, and the population of light moths will rise.

c)

The dark moths will be captured by predators more easily than the light moths, and the dark moths will probably go extinct.

d)

The light moths will change their wing color to match that of the dark moths.

37.

Due to pollution, a pond becomes darker over time. Which trait variation became more common?

a)

light fish

b)

dark fish

c)

fast fish

d)

strong fish

38.

Process by which unrelated organisms develop similarities due to living in similar environments

a)

family descent

b)

survival of the fittest

c)

convergent evolution

d)

divergent evolution

39.

Who would have stated "acquired traits" such as a giraffe needing a long neck so they stretch it over time

a)

Darwin

b)

Lamarck

c)

Redi

d)

Pasteur

e)

Miller & Urey

40.

Which of the following are examples of sexual dimorphisms? (Select all that apply)

a)

male lions have manes, females lions don't

b)

soft, down feathers in chicks, where as adult birds have sturdy feathers

c)

antlers on a male deer when a female doesn't have them

d)

dull colored female birds and colorful plumage in male birds

e)

insect wings lack bones, whereas bird wings have bones

41.

Vertebrate embryos pass through similar stages of development is evidence for

a)

use and disuse

b)

analogous structures

c)

common ancestry

d)

acquired characteristics

e)

convergent evolution

42.

A new river forms and splits two populations, causing ______________ speciation

a)

Sympatric

b)

Allopatric

c)

Extreme

d)

Convergent

43.

A speciation in which new species evolve from a single ancestral species while inhabiting the SAME geographic region.

a)

Sympatric speciation

b)

Allopatric speciation

c)

Complex speciation

d)

Divergent speciation

44.

When the Grand Canyon in Arizona formed, two populations of one squirrel species were separated by the giant canyon. This is an example of _____________ speciation.

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

c)

Simple

d)

Divergent

45.

Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are now mating only with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

hybrid sterility

c)

temporal isolation

d)

mechanical isolation

46.
A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
temporal isolation 
c)
gametic isolation
d)
geographic isolation 
47.

In the Great Lakes region of North America, gray wolves and coyotes are similar species but do not mate because their breeding periods occur at different times of the year.

a)

Geographic isolation

b)

Behavioral isolation

c)

Temporal isolation

d)

Mechanical isolation

48.
Which of the following is NOT an example of Prezygotic Reproductive Isolation?
a)
Geographic
b)
Behavioral
c)
Low Hybrid Viability
d)
Gametic
49.
Which of the following depends on reproductive structures being compatible between partners in breeding? 
a)
Mechanical
b)
Gametic
c)
Behavioral
d)
Temporal
50.

Sex is possible between these closely related species but the sex cells (egg and sperm) can not fertilize each other due to lack of egg penetrance, difference in hormonal levels , hostile environment for the sperm etc...

a)

Mechanical isolation

b)

Gametic isolation

c)

Ecolgical isolation

d)

Behavioral isolation

e)

Geographical isolation

51.

Allopatric or Sympatric speciation?

a)

Allopatric

b)

Sympatric

52.

The theory that species evolve during short periods of rapid change.

a)

punctuated equilbrium

b)

reproductive isolation

c)

rate of speciation

d)

directional selection

53.

The mule is an example of

a)

pre-zygotic barriers

b)

post-zygotic barriers

54.

When Animals have reproduced offspring that are not frail and are vigous, yet their chromosomal differences are too great to produce fertile offspring, are an example of this post-zygotic barrier.

a)

Reduced Hybrid Viability

b)

Reduced Hybrid Fertility

c)

Hybrid Breakdown

d)

None of the above

55.

Most of the time this post zygotic barrier is seen in plants and affects the offspring's offspring. In other words, the initial hybrids are perfectly strong but when the offspring try to reproduce that next generation is stunted or sterile.

a)

Reduced hybrid fertility

b)

Reduced hybrid viability

c)

Hybrid breakdown

d)

All of the above

56.

What is NOT true about speciation

a)

Has to involve some form isolation

b)

Can happen slowly or in bursts

c)

Can only happen when in Hardy-Weinberg equalibrium

d)

can happen from allopatric and sympatric isolation

57.

Punctuated equalibrium or gradualism?

a)

Punctuated equalibrium

b)

Gradualism

58.

Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals in a population?

a)

p2

b)

2pq

c)

q2

d)

p2 + 2pq

59.
What does the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium measure?
a)
changes in allele frequencies
b)
numbers of mutations
c)
goodness of fit
d)
genetic diversity
60.
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, q2 is the frequency of what?
a)
The recessive allele 
b)
the dominant allele
c)
the recessive genotype
d)
the dominant genotype
61.
A population of 150 individuals has an allele frequency of 0.3 for the dominant allele (B) and a frequency of 0.7 for the recessive allele (b). Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation to determine the frequency of the genotype (bb).
a)
0.09
b)
0.42
c)
0.49
d)
0.21
62.

The allele frequency of p=.20 What is the percentage of recessive genotype?

a)

.80

b)

.04

c)

.32

d)

.64

63.
The Hardy-Weinberg Model is...
a)
available at local hobby stores and retailers throughout the Greater Tazewell area.
b)
a mathematical tool that biologists can use to predict allele frequencies and determine whether or not evolution is occurring within a population.
c)
always occurring within individual organisms in nature.
d)
only useful in the lab and cannot be practically applied to real-world populations of organisms.  
64.

The allele frequency of p=.20 What is the percentage of Heterozygous Dominant genotype?

a)

.80

b)

.04

c)

.32

d)

.64

65.

A population's recessive allele frequency 25%. What is the percentage of the Homozygous Dominant genotype?

a)

.5625

b)

.3750

c)

.0625

d)

.25

e)

.75

66.

64% of the population has the recessive phenotype. What is the percentage of the recessive genotype?

a)

.04

b)

.32

c)

.64

d)

.2

e)

.8

67.

64% of the population has the recessive phenotype. What is the allele frequency for p?

a)

.04

b)

.32

c)

.64

d)

.2

e)

.8

68.
Miller/Urey and other scientists have shown that:
a)
 Life on early Earth required material from space
b)
Cells survived in the primitive atmosphere
c)
Amino acids could be produced from inorganic molecules 
d)
Simple cells can be produced in a laboratory
69.
Based upon the conditions of the early Earth, which forms of live most likely appeared first?
a)
Prokaryotic and aerobic
b)
Prokaryotic and anaerobic 
c)
Eukaryotic and aerobic
d)
Eukaryotic and anaerobic
70.
The theory of Endosymbiosis explains...
a)
The origin of eukaryotes
b)
How species develop
c)
How bacteria evolved
d)
Why cells rely on one another
71.
RNA World Theory states that ...
a)
Life came from RNA
b)
Life came from life
c)
Life came from non living things
d)
Life came from outer space
72.
The Miller-Urey experiment of 1953 was designed to test the hypothesis that lightning supplied the energy needed to turn atmospheric gases into organic molecules such as amino acids. Which of the following describes why the Miller-Urey theory is widely accepted today? 
a)
Amino acids spontaneously form from molecules in the atmosphere today
b)
 Organic molecules are present today in extremely high concentrations
c)
The process of synthesizing organic molecules from a mixture of gases has been successfully modeled in the laboratory
d)
No other alternative hypotheses have been introduced
73.

In the Miller-Urey experiment, the electrical sparks mimicked...

a)

the Sun's energy

b)

lightning

c)

volcanic eruptions

d)

cosmic radiation

74.

Which statement provides evidence for endosymbiosis?

a)

Early prokaryotes contributed to a large increase in oxygen in the atmosphere.

b)

Eukaryotic mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own circular DNA.

c)

Eukaryotic mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own circular contain 80s ribosomes

d)

Experiments by Miller and Urey produced simple organic molecules in abiotic conditions.

75.

Pasteur carried out a series of experiments that provided strong evidence against a widely supported theory. What was this theory?

a)

Endosymbiosis

b)

Spontaneous generation

c)

Conservative replication of DNA

d)

Evolution

76.
All of the following are evidence of endosymbiosis EXCEPT
a)
mitochondria and chloroplast ribosomes are similar to bacterial ribosomes
b)
mitochondria and chloroplast are similar in size to bacteria
c)
mitochondria and chloroplast have double membranes
d)
mitochondria and chloroplast have a nucleus
77.

The diagram below shows how Louis Pasteur investigated the origin of cells. What was the purpose of stage A of the experiment?

a)

To make the microorganisms grow back.

b)

To make it easier to remove the neck.

c)

To prove that cells come from pre-existing cells.

d)

To destroy all living cells and microorganisms.

78.

Theory that says eukaryotic cells formed from symbiosis among several different prokaryotes.

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Biogenesis Theory

c)

Evolutionary Theory

d)

Endosymbiotic Theory

e)

Theory of Spontaneous Generation

79.

There are three tenets of the Cell Theory. Which of the following is NOT a tenet?

a)

Cells are the basic structure and function of life.

b)

All living things are made of one or more cells.

c)

The cell is the basic unit of matter.

d)

All cells come from preexisting cells.

80.

The first "cell" that contained non-living materials

a)

protocell

b)

bobocell

c)

photocell

81.

Enzyme like RNA

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Ribozyme

c)

Ribose

d)

Robust

82.

What was the independent variable in Redi's experiment?

a)

The type of meat he put in the jars

b)

The amount of time in his experiment

c)

The type of covering on the jars containing meat

d)

The flies's eggs

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