wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Exam #3 Review Quiz [KAPLAN]

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of cellular respiration

a)

convert glucose to organic food

b)

produce water

c)

convert glucose to ATP

d)

produce oxygen

2.
What type of respiration occurs in the presence of oxygen
a)
Light Dependent
b)
Aerobic
c)
Light independent
d)
Anaerobic
3.

What is the name of the first step of cellular respiration?

a)

Light dependent

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Kreb Cycle

d)

Electron Transport Chain

4.

Which of the following is the end products of cellular respiration

a)

C6H12O6 + ATP

b)

6CO2 + ADP

c)

6H20 + 6CO2 + ATP

d)

6H2O + 6CO2 + ADP and NADPH

5.
What is the net gain of ATP during glycolysis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
6.
This is made of proteins that need energy-carrying molecules from the Krebs cycle and oxygen to make ATP
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Kreb's Cycle
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Electron Transport Chain
7.

Up to how many total ATP molecules are made from the breakdown of one glucose molecule?

a)

2

b)

24

c)

38

d)

45

8.
This process does not make ATP alone, but it allows glycolysis to continue making ATP when oxygen is unavailable for cellular respiration.
a)
Fermentation
b)
Electron Transport Chain
c)
Glycolysis
d)
Kreb's cycle
9.

In order to enter the Kreb's Cycle, PA must be converted into

a)

NADH

b)

Amylase

c)

Pyruvate

d)

Acetyl CoA

10.

In glycolysis, NAD is _____________ to form NADH+H

a)

oxidized

b)

reduced

11.

One turn of the Citric Acid Cycle produces:

a)

2 NADH+H

2 FADH2

3 ATP

b)

1 NADH+H

3 FADH2

34 ATP

c)

2 PA

2 NADH+H

d)

3 NADH+H

1 FADH2

1 ATP

12.

Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the:

a)

cytoplasm

b)

kreb's cycle

c)

pyruvate conversion

d)

electron transport chain

13.

Glycolysis produces: _____ ATP

Krebs Cycle produces: ____ ATP

ETC produces: _____ ATP

a)

3

3

32

b)

2

2

34

c)

1

3

34

d)

2

3

24

14.

What molecule is the final electron (H+) acceptor at the end of the ETC?

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

ATP synthase

15.

________________ must consume organic food and _______________ can make their own organic food

a)

Heterotrophs, Autotrophs

b)

Autotrophs, Herbivores

c)

Omnitrophs, Autotrophs

d)

Heterotrophs, Phototrophs

16.

What is the purpose of photosynthesis?

a)

to produce carbon dioxide

b)

convert glucose to ATP

c)

convert ATP to organic molecules (food)

d)

to produce water

17.

Which is capable of photosynthesis?

a)

plants

b)

bacteria

c)

algae

d)

ALL OF THE ABOVE

18.
What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorosynthesis
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
ADP
d)
Electron Transport
19.

Most plants appear green because chlorophyll:

a)

absorbs green light.

b)

absorbs violet light.

c)

reflects green light.

d)

does not absorb violet light.

20.

Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?

a)

6CO2 + 6H2O --> 6O2 + C6H12O6

b)

6CO2 + C6H12O6 + 6H2O --> O2

c)

6O2 + 6H2O --> 6CO2 + C6H12O6

d)

C6H12O6+ 6O2 ---> 6H2O + 6CO2

21.

Where do the light-dependent reactions occur?

a)

thylakoid membrane

b)

stroma

c)

mesophyll

d)

mitochondria

22.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
23.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
24.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
25.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
26.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
27.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
28.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
29.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
30.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
31.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
32.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
33.

A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Duplication

34.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
35.

Where does transcription take place?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Nucleolus

d)

Ribosome

36.
The process of making mRNA from DNA is called.
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
37.
Which represents the correct order of "the central dogma of molecular biology"?
a)
protein to DNA to mRNA to trait
b)
DNA to mRNA to protein to trait
c)
DNA to protein to mRNA to trait
d)
trait to DNA to protein to mRNA
38.

Transcribe this DNA sequence to mRNA: AUGCCGGCC

a)

UUCGGCCGC

b)

TTTGGCGGG

c)

TTTGGCCGG

d)

UACGGCCGG

39.
What are the monomers of proteins?
a)
glycerol
b)
monosaccharides
c)
amino acids
d)
fatty acids
40.
Which of the following is NOT a difference between RNA and DNA?
a)
RNA is single stranded while DNA is double stranded
b)
RNA has uracil while DNA has thymine
c)
RNA has ribose while DNA has deoxyribose
d)
RNA is a nucleic acid while DNA is a protein
41.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
42.
This molecule carries genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
a)
rRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
mRNA
d)
DNA
43.
Each codon codes for a particular __.
a)
amino acid
b)
anti-codon
c)
nucleotide
d)
protein
44.
Translation occurs at the __.
a)
ribosome
b)
nucleus
c)
DNA
d)
polymerase
45.
What is the central dogma of biology?
a)
Proteins are made from RNA that assembles amino acids through DNA ribosomes.
b)
RNA copies all information for an organism onto DNA which assembles ribosomes, and creates amino acids from proteins
c)
DNA is the blueprint for an organism. RNA copies specific sections that need to be built and transfers that information to a ribosome which assembles proteins out of amino acids.
d)
RNA is the blueprint for an organism. It copies its information onto DNA, which takes amino acids (like lego building blocks) and assembles those acids into proteins.
46.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
47.

Mutations can be caused by:

a)

cigarette smoke

b)

radiation

c)

viruses

d)

All of the above

48.
Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
49.
Why is the order of amino acids so important?
a)
The order of amino acids dictates what shape the protein will fold into.
b)
It is not important. The protein folding chamber will force the protein to fold into the correct shape.
50.

What is it called when body cells grow uncontrollably

a)

Spinal Stenosis

b)

Anemia

c)

Cancer

d)

Apoptosis

51.

Germ line cells give rise to ___________________

a)

body cells

b)

eggs and sperm

c)

immune response cells

d)

basal cells

52.

Mutations in somatic cells are passed to offspring

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

What even is a somatic cell?

53.

A _______________ signals the beginning of transcription and a _________________ signals the end of transcription

a)

Cap, Promoter

b)

Promoter, Germ cell

c)

Promoter, Terminator

d)

Initiator, Cap

54.

Spontaneous mutations occur naturally while induced mutations are caused by environmental agents

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

55.

Radiation and viruses are types of physical mutagens

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

56.

______________ are agents that increase the likelihood of developing cancer

a)

Carcinogens

b)

Atlerogens

c)

Bronchogens

d)

Carcotronitrogens

57.
Autosomes are
a)
chromosomes found in autotrophs, only
b)
chromosomes that automatically correct all errors in the DNA
c)
chromosomes that determine traits other than sex
d)
chromosomes that determine the sex of the individual
58.
A pair of chromosomes that consists of  XX is  a __________________.
a)
Male
b)
Female
59.
The structures labeled B are
a)
centrioles
b)
chromatids
c)
centromeres
d)
chromopheres
60.
chromosomes that have the same sequence of genes and the same structure
a)
homologous chromosomes
b)
alleles
c)
phenotypes
d)
genotypes
61.
Which of the following would be categorized as a gamete?
a)
skin cell
b)
blood cell
c)
sperm cell
d)
liver cell
62.

1n = haploid

2n = ?

a)

autosome

b)

sex chromsome

c)

double haploid

d)

diploid

63.
What are the 5 steps of the cell cycle?
a)
1. Cytokinesis 
2. Mitosis
3. G1
4. G2
5. S
b)
1. G1
2. G2
3. S
4. Mitosis
5. Cytokinesis
c)
1. S
2. G1
3. Mitosis
4. G2
5. Cytokinesis
d)
1. G1
2. S
3. G2
4. Mitosis
5. Cytokinesis
64.
G1, S, and G2 are all steps in
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
cytokinesis
65.
Before a cell can ever divide
a)
the cell must have a nucleus
b)
the cell must be healthy
c)
the cell's DNA must be copied
d)
the cell must be fully grown
66.
Step one in Mitosis is
a)
metaphase
b)
interphase
c)
prophase
d)
telophase
67.
During prophase
a)
chromosomes line up at the cell's equator
b)
nuclear envelope reappears at each end of the cell
c)
chromosomes are pulled apart into chromatids towards opposite ends of the cell
d)
chromosomes become visible and the nuclear envelope dissolves
68.
Step two in mitosis is
a)
metaphase
b)
anaphase
c)
telophase
d)
prophase
69.

Identify this phase of Mitosis.

HINT: chromatids align in the middle of the cell (equator)

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

70.
Which of the following is NOT a somatic cell?
a)
sperm
b)
skin cell
c)
blood cell
d)
bone cell
71.

Identify this phase of mitosis. HINT- chromatids separate and chromosomes move to opposite ends

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

72.

What occurs during telophase?

a)

the cell splits in half

b)

2 nuclei re-form at opposite poles of the cell

c)

the chromatids begin to pull apart

d)

nuclear envelope disappears

73.
What is cytokinesis?
a)
final division of the cytoplasm 
b)
splitting of the cell into two new cells
c)
the final stage in the cell cycle
d)
all of the above
74.
This produces 2 identical cells.
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
75.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
76.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
77.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of
a)
one haploid gamete
b)
three diploid gametes
c)
four diploid gametes
d)
four haploid gametes
78.
What are small stretches of DNA that code for traits
a)
Nucleus
b)
Chromosomes
c)
Gene
d)
Centromeres
79.
Where is all the genetic information in a cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Nucleotides
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Cytoplasm
80.

Do you feel ready for Exam #3?

a)

OH YEAH

b)

yes

c)

hmmmmm

d)

not really

e)

NO omg

Similar Resources on Wayground

Clinically Important Microbes

84 questions

Clinically Important Microbes

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Cells & Cell Transport Review (BIO100)

84 questions

Cells & Cell Transport Review (BIO100)

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Biology 1 Review - 2019-2020

75 questions

Biology 1 Review - 2019-2020

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade - University

Neurology

79 questions

Neurology

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

Anatomy and Physiology- Semester 1 Final Review

75 questions

Anatomy and Physiology- Semester 1 Final Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade - University

Module 6 recap

84 questions

Module 6 recap

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University

Unit 5 Review

75 questions

Unit 5 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th Grade - University

Introduction to Genetics Quiz

79 questions

Introduction to Genetics Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - University