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FINAL EXAM IN BACTERIOLOGY (B)

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which genera of the Enterobacteriaceae are known to cause diarrhea and are considered enteric pathogens?

a)

Enterobacter, Klebsiella, Providencia, and Proteus

b)

Pseudomonas, Moraxella, Acinetobacter, and Aeromonas

c)

Enterobacter, Citrobacter, and Morganella

d)

Escherichia, Salmonella, Shigella, and Yersinia

2.

What organism presents as a pink colony with a halo on MacConkey media and a green metallic sheen on EMB?

a)

Salmonella enterica

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Proteus mirabilis

d)

Klebsiella pneumonia

3.

Direct spread of pneumonic plague disease occurs by which route?

a)

Rat bite

b)

Fecal–oral route

c)

Inhalation of contaminated airborne droplets

d)

Ingestion of contaminated tissue

4.

What are the primary antigens used in serologic grouping of salmonellae?

a)

Somatic A antigen and flagellar O antigens

b)

Capsular A antigen and somatic O antigen

c)

Flagellar H antigen and somatic O antigen

d)

Flagellar H antigen and capsular A antigen

5.

Why is it that most cases of salmonella food poisoning are not treated with antibiotics?

a)

The organisms are very resistant to antibiotics.

b)

Antibiotics cannot reach the organisms, as they are deeply embedded in the intestinal walls.

c)

Antibiotics would only kill the bacteria, then release the endotoxins into the blood, making things worse.

d)

The disease is self-limiting and will subside on its own.

6.

The Escherichia coli serotype O157:H7 is associated with all the following EXCEPT:

a)

Hemorrhagic diarrhea

b)

Liver damage

c)

Colitis

d)

Hemolytic-uremic syndrome

7.

A microbiologist is reading a stool culture and notices a very moist and mucoid pink colony on MacConkey agar. What is the most likely organism?

a)

Klebsiella pneumoniae

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Proteus vulgaris

d)

Acinetobacter

8.

What two bacteria produce swarming colonies on nonselective media such as sheep blood agar (SBA)?

a)

Proteus mirabilis and Escherichia coli

b)

Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis

c)

Enterobacter aerogenes and Serratia marcescens

d)

Proteus pannier and Klebsiella pneumoniae

9.

What organism in the genus Providencia is incriminated in nosocomial outbreaks in burn units and has been isolated from urine cultures?

a)

Providencia heimbachae

b)

P. alcalifaciens

c)

P. stuartii

d)

P. rustigianii

10.

What is the name of the organism that has been a documented cause of nursery outbreaks of neonatal meningitis and brain abscesses?

a)

Citrobacter freundii

b)

C. asteroides

c)

C. braakii

d)

C. koseri

11.

What organism possesses the Vi antigen?

a)

Salmonella serotype Typhi

b)

S. sonnei

c)

Shigella sonnei

d)

Citrobacter freundii

12.

Characterized by stool with RBCs, neutrophils, and mucus and cause Shigella like infection.

a)

EPEC

b)

EHEC

c)

EIEC

d)

ETEC

13.

The following are correct about Proteus, EXCEPT:

a)

Source of antigens for Widal Test

b)

Can cause UTI, bacteremia, pneumonia, nosocomial infections

c)

EITHER

d)

NEITHER

14.

What substance, when produced by Salmonella spp. that cause gastroenteritis, has been implicated as a significant virulence factor?

a)

Hyaluronidase

b)

Protease

c)

Enterotoxin

d)

Endotoxin

15.

Klebsiella spp.

a)

Motile

b)

Without capsule

c)

Either

d)

Neither

16.

Which Pseudomonas is usually associated with a lung infection related to cystic fibrosis?

a)

P. flfluorescens

b)

P. aeruginosa

c)

P. putida

d)

Burkholderia pseudomallei

17.

Which organism is associated with immunodeficiency syndromes and melioidosis (a glanders-like disease in Southeast Asia and northern Australia)?

a)

Pseudomonas stutzeri

b)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

c)

Pseudomonas putida

d)

Burkholderia pseudomallei

18.

Which one of the virulence factors associated with Haemophilus spp. plays the most significant role in the invasiveness of the organism?

a)

Pili

b)

IgA protease

c)

Capsule

d)

Enterotoxin

19.

What organism causes Brazilian purpuric fever (BPF)?

a)

Haemophilus parainfluenzae

b)

H. aphrophilus

c)

H. aegyptius

d)

H. influenzae biogroup aegyptius

20.

Which species of Haemophilus requires both X and V factors?

a)

H. parainfluenzae

b)

H. aphrophilus

c)

H. influenzae

d)

H. paraphrophilus

21.

What is the drug of choice for treating a life-threatening illness caused by H. influenzae?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Macrolides

c)

Aminoglycosides

d)

Ceftriaxone

22.

The HACEK group includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Haemophilus spp.

b)

Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans

c)

Cardiobacterium hominis

d)

Clostridium difficile

23.

What are the names of the two diseases caused by Legionella species?

a)

Rabbit fever and Pontiac fever

b)

Scalded skin syndrome and Legionnaire’s disease

c)

Malta fever and undulating fever

d)

Legionnaire’s disease and Pontiac fever

24.

What is the specimen of choice for Bordetella species?

a)

Throat cultures

b)

Nasopharyngeal swabs

c)

Bronchial aspirations

d)

Sputum specimens

25.

Which Haemophilus species is difficult to isolate and recover from genital ulcers and swollen lymph nodes?

a)

H. haemolyticus

b)

H. parahaemolyticus

c)

H. ducreyi

d)

H. aphrophilus

26.

Infections with Vibrio spp. can be contracted in all of the following situations EXCEPT:

a)

Increased travel to either coastal or cholera-endemic areas

b)

Increased consumption of seafood (particularly uncooked)

c)

Greater numbers of Vibrio spp. in the environment

d)

Increased use of recreational water facilities

27.

What disease manifests in acute cases as a severe gastroenteritis, accompanied by vomiting followed by diarrheic stools that are described as rice water and occur 10 to 30 times a day?

a)

Cholera

b)

Typhoid

c)

Dysentery

d)

Food poisoning

28.

What is the name of the organism that is responsible for “summer diarrhea” in Japan?

a)

Vibrio cholerae

b)

V. vulnificus

c)

V. parahaemolyticus

d)

V. trota

29.

A patient is brought to the emergency department with a severe case of gastroenteritis. The patient experienced gastrointestinal upset after eating raw oysters. What organism can be the culprit of this patient’s condition?

a)

Vibrio trota

b)

V. parahaemolyticus

c)

V. cholerae

d)

V. vulnificus

30.

What organism is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis worldwide?

a)

Campylobacter jejuni

b)

C. fetus

c)

C. lari

d)

C. coli

31.

Organism that is strongly associated with gastric, peptic, and duodenal ulcers as well as GI carcinoma.

a)

Campylobacter jejuni

b)

H. rectus

c)

Helicobacter pylori

d)

C. curvus

32.

A microbiologist is working the miscellaneous bench reading stool cultures. The campy plate from a culture has growth on the plate that was incubated at 42° C. The colonies are nonhemolytic, moist, “runny looking,” and spreading. The Gram stain shows tiny gram-negative rods with some S-shapes and seagull-wing shapes. What is growing on the plate?

a)

Aeromonas

b)

Helicobacter

c)

Campylobacter

d)

Acinetobacter

33.

What is the name of the group of bacteria that are slightly curved, gram-positive rods often referred to as club-shaped or Chinese letters when viewed in a Gram stain?

a)

Corynebacterium

b)

Staphylococcus

c)

Neisseria

d)

Listeria

34.

Which of the following is true about Nocardia spp.?

a)

These organisms grow well on standard nonselective media.

b)

Growth may take a week or more.

c)

Infections occur in immunocompromised patients.

d)

All of the above.

35.

What organism is responsible for spontaneous abortion and stillborn neonates and can cause meningitis with a fatality rate approaching 50% in newborns?

a)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

b)

Rhodococcus equi

c)

Rothia dentocariosa

d)

Listeria monocytogenes

36.

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae produces all the following diseases EXCEPT:

a)

Septicemia

b)

Meningitis

c)

Endocarditis

d)

Erysipeloid

37.

All the following are general characteristics of the genus Bacillus EXCEPT:

a)

Aerobic

b)

Gram positive

c)

Form endospores

d)

Cocci

38.

The symptoms of gastrointestinal anthrax include all the following EXCEPT:

a)

Abdominal pain

b)

Rice water stools

c)

Bloody diarrhea

d)

Vomiting

39.

What antibiotic, in 2000, was approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for post exposure inhalation anthrax?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Cephalosporin

d)

Ciprofloxacin

40.

What organism is a member of the human oropharyngeal flora, but has been isolated from people with endocarditis?

a)

Listeria monocytogenes

b)

Rhodococcus equi

c)

Rothia dentocariosa

d)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

41.

Gonococcal infections occur primarily in all the following sites EXCEPT:

a)

Urethra

b)

Endocervix

c)

Uterus

d)

Anal canal

42.

What is the common manifestation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men?

a)

Painful ejaculation and prostatitis

b)

Purulent discharge and dysuria

c)

Dysuria and prostatitis

d)

Purulent discharge and painful ejaculation

43.

If a male is infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae, what would be the results of a Gram stain of purulent discharge from his urethra?

a)

Many polymorphonuclear white blood cells, some with gram-negative intracellular diplococci and gram-negative diplococci

b)

Many mononuclear white blood cells, gram-negative cocci

c)

Few white blood cells, many red blood cells, and gram-negative rods

d)

Many polymorphonuclear white blood cells, some gram-negative intracellular rods, and gram-negative rods

44.

Why do Thayer-Martin and Martin-Lewis media have antibiotics added?

a)

To permit the growth of Neisseria spp., Mycoplasma spp., and Ureaplasma spp., because these organisms use the antibiotics as growth factors

b)

To allow the growth of gram-negative rods

c)

To allow the growth of gram-positive rods

d)

To prevent overgrowth of normal florae

45.

Under what conditions should inoculated plates for Neisseria gonorrhoeae culture be incubated?

a)

35° C and 3% to 5% carbon dioxide

b)

25° C and room air

c)

35° C and room air

d)

25° C and 3% to 5% carbon dioxide

46.

What is the name of the condition in which there is hemorrhage in the adrenal glands?

a)

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome

b)

Leventhal-Stall

c)

Waldenström’s

d)

Niemann-Pick

47.

If a Gram stain of urethral discharge from a male has more than four polymorphonuclear leukocytes per field but no bacteria, what organism is suspected of causing the infection?

a)

Neisseria meningitidis

b)

Chlamydia trachomatis

c)

N. gonorrhoeae

d)

C. pneumoniae

48.

What disease can newborns acquire through a birth canal infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

a)

Conjunctivitis

b)

Ophthalmia neonatorum

c)

Ophthalmitis

d)

Blindness

49.

What is a major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease in women?

a)

Untreated gonococcal cervicitis

b)

Untreated meningococcal cystitis

c)

Treated gonococcal cervicitis

d)

Treated meningococcal cystitis

50.

How is Neisseria meningitidis spread?

a)

Contaminated food

b)

Respiratory droplets

c)

Airborne

d)

Blood borne

51.

What is the cell wall of streptococci and enterococci made out of?

a)

Lipopolysaccharide and carbohydrates

b)

Protein A and phospholipids

c)

Cholesterol and teichoic acid

d)

Teichoic acid and peptidoglycan

52.

Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating most streptococcal infections?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Cephalothin

c)

Penicillin

d)

Gentamicin

53.

What causes the red spreading rash in scarlet fever?

a)

Hyaluronidase

b)

Streptolysin O

c)

Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins

d)

Streptolysin S

54.

Which group of streptococci is associated with erythrogenic toxin production?

a)

Group A

b)

Group B

c)

Group C

d)

Group G

55.

S. pneumoniae and the viridans streptococci can be

differentiated by which test?

a)

CAMP test

b)

Bacitracin disk test, 0.04 unit

c)

Optochin disk test, 5 μg/mL or less

d)

Bile esculin test

56.

The quellung test is used to identify which Streptococcus species?

a)

S. pyogenes

b)

S. agalactiae

c)

S. sanguis

d)

S. pneumoniae

57.

A non–spore-forming, slender gram-positive rod forming palisades and chains was recovered from a vaginal culture and grew well on tomato juice agar. The most likely identification is:

a)

Lactobacillus spp.

b)

Bacillus spp.

c)

Streptococcus spp.

d)

Neisseria spp.

58.

Staphylococcus epidermidis (coagulase negative) is recovered from which of the following sources?

a)

Urinary tract

b)

Intravenous catheters

c)

Prosthetic heart valves

d)

All of these option

59.

Staphylococcus saprophyticus is best differentiated from Staphylococcus epidermidis by resistance to:

a)

5 μg of lysostaphin

b)

5 μg of novobiocin

c)

10 units of penicillin

d)

0.04 unit of bacitracin

60.

What is the function of protein A in the cell wall of Staphylococcus aureus?

a)

To keep the structural integrity of the cell wall and keep out antibiotics

b)

To bind the IgG and prevent phagocytosis

c)

To bind the IgM and inactivate natural killer cells

d)

To block the activation of the complement cascade

61.

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus are suppurative, meaning:

a)

These infections ooze lymph fluid.

b)

The infection is filled with pus and necrotic tissues.

c)

The acute inflammatory response gorges the area with red blood cells.

d)

The toxins activate the coagulation system, which isolates the infection.

62.

This is a rare but potentially fatal multisystem disease characterized by high fever, hypotension, and shock, and it is associated with highly absorbent tampons.

a)

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

b)

Scalded skin syndrome

c)

Bullous impetigo

d)

Toxic shock syndrome

63.

Infections by this organism are predominantly hospital acquired, and some predisposing factors include catheterization, medical implantation, and immunosuppressive therapy.

a)

Staphylococcus aureus

b)

S. intermedius

c)

S. epidermidis

d)

S. saprophyticus

64.

The tests used to detect clumping factor will differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococcal species. What are these tests?

a)

Novobiocin and hemolysin A

b)

Coagulase and latex agglutination

c)

Complement fixation and coagulase

d)

Latex agglutination and enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

65.

Which is the specimen of choice for proof of food poisoning by Bacillus cereus?

a)

Sputum

b)

Blood

c)

Stool

d)

Food

66.

Can cause bacterial vaginosis with fishy odor discharge and characterized by "clue cells".

(a)  

67.

Safety pin appearance

(a)  

68.

Shigella Group C

(a)  

69.

Tumbling motility

(a)  

70.

Mercury droplet colonies

(a)  

71.

K Antigen: (a)   antigen

72.

Characteristic: rice watery stool

(a)  

73.

H. aegypticus causes pink eye (a)  

74.

Streptococcus : Catalase ________________

a)

POSITIVE

b)

NEGATIVE

75.

Group B in Lancefield classification

(a)  

76.

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae: (a)   growth in semi solid medium

77.

Montezuma's revenge

a)

ETEC

b)

EIEC

78.

Haemophilus means: (a)  

79.

Febrile disease without pulmonary involvement

(a)  

80.

Your favorite bacteria :)

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