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BC Intro-1.8.2 Tactical lvl accountability responsibilities

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the major goal of Command Function 1 in the Blue Card SOP?

a)

To provide and manage a steady, adequate, and timely stream of appropriate resources.

b)

To ensure the safety of all personnel on the scene.

c)

To document all incidents for future reference.

d)

To train new recruits in emergency response.

2.

What is the essence of incident control according to the Blue Card SOP?

a)

The ability of every IC to create, manage, and move the position and function of all resources in the Hazard Zone.

b)

The ability to quickly extinguish fires.

c)

The ability to communicate effectively with the public.

d)

The ability to document all incidents accurately.

3.

What is the major goal of the local Dispatch Center?

a)

To dispatch the appropriate amount and type of resource(s) to the scene of an emergency immediately after the receipt of the appropriate information.

b)

To train new recruits in emergency response.

c)

To document all incidents for future reference.

d)

To ensure the safety of all personnel on the scene.

4.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a component of the standard Deployment management that an IC must manage on every incident?

a)

Dispatch

b)

Standard incident response

c)

Training new recruits

d)

Recycling

5.

What should the call taker determine based on the information received from the caller?

a)

The type of fire extinguisher to use

b)

The appropriate Nature Code

c)

The number of firefighters needed

d)

The type of building on fire

6.

What does a 3-1 Assignment consist of?

a)

2 Engine Companies and 1 Ladder/Truck Company

b)

3 Engine Companies and 2 Ladder/Truck Companies

c)

3 Engine Companies and 1 Ladder/Truck Company

d)

2 Engine Companies and 2 Ladder/Truck Companies

7.

What is included in a 1st Alarm/Box Assignment?

a)

3 Engine Companies, 1 Ladder/Truck Company, and 1 Medic/Ambulance

b)

5 Engine Companies, 2 Ladder/Truck Companies, and 1 Medic/Ambulance

c)

4 Engine Companies, 2 Ladder/Truck Companies, and 1 Medic/Ambulance

d)

5 Engine Companies, 3 Ladder/Truck Companies, and 1 Medic/Ambulance

8.

What does the term "Working Fire" indicate?

a)

A fire that can be controlled by one unit

b)

A fire that requires the commitment of all responding companies

c)

A fire that does not require additional alarms

d)

A fire that is already extinguished

9.

When notified of a Working Fire First Alarm, what is the first action the Dispatch Center should take?

a)

Upgrade the dispatch to a Working Fire assignment

b)

Isolate a tactical channel

c)

Dispatch a Fire Investigator

d)

Dispatch PD for traffic and crowd control

10.

What should the Dispatch Center be prepared to do when the need is indicated?

a)

Dispatch a Fire Investigator

b)

Make notifications to pertinent personnel

c)

Dispatch gas and electric companies

d)

Dispatch any special agencies or equipment

11.

Who must be contacted if a fire occurs at a public-school facility?

a)

The on-duty State Fire Marshal

b)

The local police department

c)

The school principal

d)

The fire investigator

12.

What is the purpose of Elapsed Time Notifications (ETN)?

a)

To notify the public about the fire

b)

To begin elapsed time notifications for the incident

c)

To dispatch additional fire units

d)

To isolate a tactical channel

13.

How often will the TRO announce an elapsed time notification during a Working Fire incident?

a)

Every 10 minutes

b)

Every 15 minutes

c)

Every 5 minutes

d)

Every 20 minutes

14.

On which channel will all emergency incidents be dispatched?

a)

Channel 1

b)

Channel 2

c)

Channel 3

d)

Channel 4

15.

What should be done if an incident is declared a "Working Fire"?

a)

Use the same tactical radio channel for all incidents.

b)

Clear the assigned tactical radio channel of other incidents.

c)

Use a mobile phone to communicate.

d)

Ignore the incident.

16.

How many tactical radio frequencies should be used for all Hazard Zone transmissions?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

17.

Who is responsible for handling all communications between units assigned to an incident and the Dispatch Center?

a)

Incident Commander (IC)

b)

Tactical Radio Operator (TRO)

c)

Mobile Computer Terminal (MCT)

d)

Channel 1 Operator

18.

What should the Dispatch Center do if no reply is received after three attempts to contact the unit?

a)

Ignore the unit

b)

Send a cover assignment

c)

Wait for another minute

d)

Contact the unit's family

19.

What information should be provided to the Dispatch Center when reporting a non-emergency incident?

a)

Nature of the incident

b)

Exact location of the incident

c)

Resource request required to control the incident

d)

All of the above

20.

What should the Channel 1 Operator do after receiving a report of a non-emergency incident?

a)

Ignore the report

b)

Assign a separate tactical frequency for the incident

c)

Call the police

d)

Send an email to the supervisor

21.

What is the role of the TRO when a unit is substituting for another unit or responding in addition to the original assignment?

a)

The TRO should cancel the original unit dispatched if the substituting unit is closer to the scene.

b)

The TRO should send both units to the scene.

c)

The TRO should ignore the substituting unit.

d)

The TRO should wait for further instructions.

22.

What does Code-1 status indicate?

a)

Assigned to a non-emergency service call.

b)

Assigned to an emergency call using lights and sirens.

c)

Not assigned to a service call.

d)

Assigned to a fire emergency.

23.

What should all fire and EMS responses be classified as unless otherwise indicated by the Dispatch Center or Command?

a)

Code-1

b)

Code-2

c)

Code-3

d)

Code-4

24.

What must Company Officers review while enroute to an incident?

a)

Tactical information on their MCT, map books, and any pre-fire planning info.

b)

The weather forecast.

c)

The latest news updates.

d)

Their personal messages.

25.

What should all personnel do before the truck moves?

a)

Ensure all radios are set to the assigned channel.

b)

Securely fasten their seat belts.

c)

Open station doors fully.

d)

All of the above.

26.

What is the importance of effective communications during the response period?

a)

It can set the stage for effective action and improve the overall rescue and fire attack effort.

b)

It allows for casual conversation.

c)

It helps in reducing the response time.

d)

It ensures the safety of the dispatch center.

27.

What is the responsibility of the Co-driver in an emergency response vehicle?

a)

Operating the vehicle safely

b)

Being a second set of eyes and ears

c)

Managing the intersection

d)

Using warning devices

28.

What should drivers do when stopped at the scene of an incident?

a)

Keep the vehicle running

b)

Place the vehicle to protect personnel working in the street

c)

Turn off all lights

d)

Leave the vehicle unattended

29.

What should personnel do before stepping off the apparatus?

a)

Look both ways and verify the outside surroundings

b)

Turn off the engine

c)

Remove all equipment

d)

Call for backup

30.

What should be done at night to illuminate the scene?

a)

Use headlights only

b)

Use mounted floodlights and any other available lighting

c)

Use handheld flashlights

d)

Use the vehicle's interior lights

31.

What should all personnel working in or near traffic lanes wear?

a)

Casual clothing

b)

High visibility vests

c)

Fire-resistant suits

d)

Reflective helmets

32.

What should drivers avoid whenever possible?

a)

Speeding

b)

Backing

c)

Using sirens

d)

Stopping

33.

What is the purpose of using warning devices in traffic?

a)

To alert pedestrians

b)

To request the right-of-way in a safe and predictable manner

c)

To signal other emergency vehicles

d)

To indicate a stop

34.

What must drivers consider when their moving vehicle poses to fire ground personnel and spectators?

a)

The speed of the vehicle

b)

The dangers their vehicle poses

c)

The color of the vehicle

d)

The size of the vehicle

35.

What should be done when stopped at the scene of an incident to protect personnel working in the street?

a)

Turn off the vehicle

b)

Use warning lights

c)

Sound the horn

d)

Move the vehicle to the side

36.

When can personnel exit a vehicle or piece of apparatus?

a)

When the vehicle is moving slowly

b)

When the vehicle is at a complete stop

c)

When the vehicle is in neutral

d)

When the vehicle is parked on a slope

37.

What must personnel dismounting the apparatus do before stepping off?

a)

Look both ways and verify the surroundings

b)

Check the fuel level

c)

Adjust their seatbelt

d)

Turn off the engine

38.

What should drivers do when waiting for personnel to return to the truck before repositioning closer to the scene?

a)

Keep the apparatus moving slowly

b)

Keep the apparatus at a full stop

c)

Turn off the engine

d)

Sound the horn

39.

What should be used to illuminate the scene at night?

a)

Vehicle mounted floodlights

b)

Flashlights

c)

Streetlights

d)

Headlights

40.

What must all personnel working in or near traffic lanes wear?

a)

Helmets

b)

High visibility vests

c)

Gloves

d)

Boots

41.

What is required of all department employees when operating a vehicle?

a)

Use seat belts at all times

b)

Use the horn frequently

c)

Drive at high speeds

d)

Turn off the headlights

42.

Who is responsible for the safety of all vehicle operations and managing compliance of the procedure?

a)

The driver

b)

The Company Officer

c)

The passenger

d)

The dispatcher

43.

Under what conditions are Fire Department vehicles authorized to exceed posted speed limits?

a)

During heavy traffic

b)

Under favorable conditions

c)

During bad weather

d)

On narrow roads

44.

What is the maximum permissible speed when emergency vehicles must travel in center or oncoming traffic lanes?

a)

10 mph

b)

15 mph

c)

20 mph

d)

25 mph

45.

When emergency vehicles must use center or oncoming traffic lanes to approach controlled intersections, what must they do before proceeding through the intersection?

a)

Slow down and proceed with caution

b)

Come to a complete stop

c)

Flash their lights and honk

d)

Speed up to clear the intersection quickly

46.

What should a vehicle do when approaching a negative right-of-way intersection (red light, stop sign)?

a)

Slow down and proceed with caution

b)

Yield to oncoming traffic and proceed

c)

Come to a complete stop and proceed only when safe

d)

Flash their lights and proceed

47.

For incidents located directly on a freeway, who must use their best judgment on the proper response (Code 2 or 3)?

a)

The first arriving unit

b)

The IC (Incident Commander)

c)

Company officers

d)

Dispatch Center

48.

What is the role of the first unit to arrive at the scene of a multi-unit dispatched incident?

a)

To start rescue operations immediately

b)

To establish command of the incident

c)

To wait for additional units to arrive

d)

To assess the damage and report back

49.

What is the primary responsibility of the IC (Incident Commander) at the incident scene?

a)

To manage the work and resources at the scene

b)

To provide medical assistance

c)

To direct traffic around the scene

d)

To communicate with the media

50.

Which of the following is NOT a question the IC needs to answer to create a basic response profile for the incident?

a)

What resources are on the scene?

b)

How much work is there beyond the capability of the initial assignment?

c)

What type of command support do I need to manage the dispatched resource?

51.

What is the role of the IC (Incident Commander) in managing resources during an incident?

a)

To provide medical assistance

b)

To allocate resources and manage work cycles on the strategic level

c)

To conduct fire safety inspections

d)

To handle public relations

52.

What is the purpose of Level 1 Staging procedures?

a)

To increase radio traffic

b)

To allow the IC to evaluate conditions prior to assigning companies

c)

To delay the response time of units

d)

To reduce the number of resources available

53.

What happens if units disregard staging procedures and "auto-assign" themselves in a Hazard Zone?

a)

They will be rewarded for quick action

b)

They will be reassigned to a different incident

c)

They will make the scene unsafe for everyone else

d)

They will receive additional resources

54.

What is one of the benefits of effective utilization of Level 1 Staging procedures?

a)

Increases apparatus congestion at the scene

b)

Reduces radio traffic during the critical initial stages of the incident

c)

Delays the implementation of the Incident Action Plan (IAP)

d)

Increases confusion and pressure on the Command

55.

When are Level 1 Staging procedures automatically activated?

a)

When the IC arrives at the scene

b)

When the initial arriving unit clears the Dispatch Center and assumes command

c)

When the fire alarm is triggered

d)

When the last unit arrives at the scene

56.

What is the primary responsibility of Level 1 Staged units?

a)

To immediately proceed to the incident site

b)

To wait for an assignment from the IC before proceeding out of their Level 1 Staging location

c)

To assist in setting up the incident command post

d)

To provide support to the Ladder/Truck companies

57.

What should all initial responders on the 1st Alarm do?

a)

Wait for further instructions at the station

b)

Respond directly to the scene

c)

Set up a perimeter around the incident site

d)

Assist in traffic control

58.

What is the definition of Level 2 Staging?

a)

A location for initial responders to gather

b)

A centralized staging location, adjacent to the incident scene where later arriving resources will assemble

c)

A location for the public to gather for information

d)

A place for media personnel to set up

59.

What is the most preferable method of communication in the Level 2 Staging area?

a)

Radio communication

b)

Text messaging

c)

Face-to-face communication

d)

Email communication

60.

Who will become the Level 2 Staging Manager in the absence of an assigned manager?

a)

The first fire department officer to arrive at the staging area

b)

The incident commander

c)

The senior most firefighter on site

d)

The dispatch center operator

61.

What is one of the options for an engine company officer's crew when they arrive at the Level 2 Staging location?

a)

They can assist the Company Officer with Level 1 Staging operations.

b)

They can be assigned as manpower to another company in Level 2 Staging.

c)

They can be moved up to form a minimum of a 3-person company.

d)

They can be assigned to the Command Post.

62.

Who should the Level 2 Staging Manager notify upon their arrival at the staging area?

a)

The Company Officer

b)

The Operations Section Chief

c)

The Incident Commander (IC) or Ops Section Chief

d)

The Dispatch Center

63.

What should the Level 2 Staging Manager maintain in the staging area?

a)

A list of available companies

b)

A list of all equipment

c)

A list of all personnel

d)

A list of all vehicles

64.

What information should be relayed to companies when they are assigned out of Level 2 Staging?

a)

The location of the nearest hospital

b)

The tactical channel on which they are to operate

c)

The names of all personnel in the staging area

d)

The weather conditions

65.

What should companies leaving staging do?

a)

Communicate directly with the Dispatch Center

b)

Communicate directly with Command or their assigned S/D Supervisor

c)

Communicate directly with the Company Officer

d)

Communicate directly with the Operations Section Chief

66.

What should the first arriving Ladder/Truck company assume when they arrive in Level 2 Staging first?

a)

Level 1 Staging

b)

Level 2 Staging

c)

Incident Command

d)

Hazard Zone

67.

What should be done with un-needed, subsequent arriving apparatus at the incident site?

a)

Parked in the Hazard Zone

b)

Left out of the way in the Level 2 Staging area

c)

Parked in front of the incident site

d)

Left in the Level 1 Staging area

68.

What is one of the major objectives of the Incident Commander (IC)?

a)

To control the position/location and function of all resources assigned to the Hazard Zone

b)

To manage the financial aspects of the incident

c)

To oversee the media communications

d)

To handle the medical emergencies

69.

What are the three components the IC should consider when assigning any unit into the Hazard Zone?

a)

Tasks, Location of tasks, Objectives of tasks

b)

Time, Resources, Budget

c)

Safety, Efficiency, Communication

d)

Equipment, Personnel, Strategy

70.

Who has the greatest stake in the accountability system at the task level?

a)

Incident Commander

b)

Staff Officers

c)

Companies working on the task level

d)

Ladder/Truck companies

71.

Which of the following is NOT a task level responsibility?

a)

Following all staging procedures

b)

Being properly assigned into the Hazard Zone

c)

Freelancing

d)

Staying together as a company

72.

What is the maximum depth into a structure based on air supply?

a)

100-150 feet

b)

175-200 feet

c)

200-225 feet

d)

150-175 feet

73.

How many firefighters with at least one portable radio are required to be assigned to a crew or team operating in a Hazard Zone?

a)

One firefighter

b)

Two firefighters

c)

Three firefighters

d)

Four firefighters

74.

Which of the following is NOT a method for personnel to be in contact with their Company Officer?

a)

Voice (radio)

b)

Vision (TIC)

c)

Touch (hoseline)

d)

Email

75.

Who should give an accountability report upon exiting the Hazard Zone?

a)

Any firefighter

b)

Company Officers

c)

Division Supervisor

d)

Safety Officer

76.

Who is responsible for managing the companies assigned to an operational area?

a)

The first Company Officer assigned to the area

b)

The Office-in-Charge of that area

c)

The Safety Officer

d)

The Division Supervisor

77.

Which of the following is a responsibility of a Chief Officer assigned as a S/D boss?

a)

Implement and manage the S/D IAP

b)

Freelancing

c)

Ignoring tactical priorities

d)

Avoiding risk management