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Y7 PHYSICS REVISION

Total questions: 208

Worksheet time: 4hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What does this tool measure?
a)
weight
b)
meters
c)
mass
d)
force
2.
Any object with mass has gravity.
a)
True
b)
Sometimes
c)
False
d)
Never
3.
As distance between two objects increase the pull of gravity 
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
4.
As mass increases, what happens to gravitational force?
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
d)
i don't know
5.
Which model has greater gravitational attraction (if any)
a)
Model A
b)
Model B
c)
Both Model A and Model B (same gravity)
6.
Which system has the greater gravitational attraction between the two objects (if any)?
a)
System A
b)
System B
c)
Same gravitational attraction fro System A and System B
7.
Which System has the greater gravitational pull between the two objects?
a)
System 1
b)
System 2
c)
Same: there is no gravitational attraction between the two objects
8.
As mass increases, what happens to gravitational force?
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
d)
i don't know
9.
Which of the following will not change in different gravitational fields?
a)
wieght
b)
force
c)
mass
d)
pounds
10.
Two factors effecting the magnitude of the force of gravity between 2 objects are...
a)
mass and distance 
b)
mass and matter
c)
distance and weight 
d)
weight and mass
11.
If Earth's mass was cut in half, what would happen to your mass?
a)
increase because gravitational force increases
b)
decrease because gravitational force decreases
c)
decrease because gravitational force increases
d)
nothing, mass is not affected by gravitational force
12.
Any object with mass has gravity.
a)
True
b)
Sometimes
c)
False
d)
Never
13.
The force of gravity acting on an object is the object's ______.
a)
mass
b)
matter
c)
weight 
d)
friction 
14.
Which of the following never changes no matter where in the universe?
a)
weight
b)
force
c)
mass
d)
pounds
15.
What is the SI unit used to measure force? 
a)
pounds 
b)
grams 
c)
newtons 
d)
friction
16.
The amount of matter in an object is 
a)
pressure
b)
weight
c)
mass
d)
force
17.
A person would weigh less on on the Moon than on the Earth because . . .
a)
Moon has more mass, and therefore more gravity
b)
Moon has less mass, and therefore more gravity
c)
Moon has more mass, and therefore less gravity
d)
Moon has less mass and therefore less gravity
18.
The farther apart two objects are, the __ their gravity.
a)
weaker
b)
stronger
c)
more equal
19.

Scientists were able to observe how the solar system is formed

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Which of these explain how a natural phenomenon works or happens?

a)

Theory

b)

Law

21.

A possible explanation to a problem that has not yet been tested

a)

data

b)

hypothesis

c)

theory

d)

fact

22.

What do we call the path that a body follows as it travels around another body in space?

a)

que

b)

journey

c)

flight

d)

orbit

23.

Any object with mass experiences gravity.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Why do astronauts bounce so high on the moon?

a)

The moon has more gravity.

b)

The moon has less gravity.

c)

The moon has no gravity.

25.

Which of these is the name given to a cloud of dust and gas in space

a)

moon

b)

star

c)

sun

d)

nebula

26.

A nebula is a

a)

cloud of ice.

b)

cloud of just gas.

c)

cloud of just dust.

d)

cloud of dust and gas.

27.

Every planet orbits the sun in a different plane.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

All the planets in the solar system orbit the sun in

a)

different directions

b)

opposite directions

c)

the same direction

d)

random directions

29.

The sun and all the planets spin on their axis in the same direction except:

a)

Venus and Jupitar

b)

Uranus and Mars

c)

Venus and Uranus

d)

Uranus and Mercury

30.

If the ball of dust and gas gets hot enough it turns into a

a)

planet

b)

star

c)

moon

d)

nebula

31.

Name the force that can pull particles of dust and gas together in space.

a)

Friction

b)

Kinetic

c)

Gravitational

d)

Magnetic

32.

Scientists use computers to create ________ . They are made for things that are difficult to observe.

a)

models

b)

predictions

c)

books

d)

riddles

33.

The opposite of agree or support of a hypothesis.

a)

Contradict

b)

different

c)

wrong

34.

the object that orbits the Earth and not the Sun.

a)

moon

b)

mercury

c)

sun

d)

planet

35.

the largest mass in the Solar System...............................

a)

Jupiter

b)

earth

c)

moon

d)

sun

36.

The Sun’s gravity gets weaker as the distance from the Sun increases

a)

True

b)

False

37.

the direction in which the force of gravity from the Sun pulls on a planet is.......................

a)

towards the center of the earth

b)

towards the center of the sun

c)

towards the center of the planet

38.

The word used to describe a space that has no particles in it is.....................

a)

air

b)

vacuum

c)

universe

39.

A force caused by a moving object having to push against the particles in the air.

a)

water resistance

b)

air resistance

c)

gravity

d)

contact force

40.

Air resistance acts in the..................direction to movement.

a)

same

b)

opposite

c)

parallel

41.

The faster an object moves, the ....................... the air resistance on the object.

a)

equal

b)

smaller

c)

greater

42.

In space, there is a vacuum and no air resistance

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which of these forces acts on the Earth as it orbits the Sun?

a)

gravity only

b)

air resistance only

c)

gravity and air resistance

d)

gravity, air resistance and friction

44.

The moon’s gravity is weaker than Earth’s because If you went to the moon, you would

a)

SHRINK and become shorter

b)

WEIGH LESS than you do on Earth

c)

FLOAT OFF into space

d)

Not be able to JUMP

45.

Air resistance pushes against falling

objects and __________________.

a)

Speeds them up

b)

Keeps them afloat

c)

Slows them down

d)

Spins them

46.

Air resistance is a force caused by...

a)

Water pushing against moving objects

b)

Air pushing against moving objects

c)

Gravity pushing against moving objects

d)

Normal force pushing against moving objects

47.
What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
c)
new moon tide
d)
full moon tide
48.

What type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?

a)
full moon tide
b)
new moon tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
49.
Which phase of the moon is represented in this diagram?
a)
new moon
b)
first quarter
c)
full moon
d)
last quarter/third quarter
50.
What causes tides?
a)
gravity
b)
wind
c)
spring
d)
neap
51.
Which body has the greater effect on Earth's tides?
a)
Sun
b)
Saturn
c)
Moon 
d)
Venus
52.
Why does the moon's gravitational pull have more of effect on tides than the sun's gravitational pull?
a)
they are the same
b)
the moon is larger than the sun
c)
tides are not caused by the moon
d)
the moon is closer to the Earth than the sun
53.
How many high tides does a place have each day?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
5
d)
2
54.
What type of tide will occur at 9:30 a.m.?
a)
low 
b)
high 
c)
none
d)
high and low
55.
The bulge of water on the side of the Earth closest to the moon produces ___________.
a)
high tide
b)
low tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
56.
Tides are the cycle of rising and falling ocean water that repeats automatically every
a)
24 hours
b)
12.5 hours
c)
25 hours
d)
6.25 hours
57.
What is a difference between spring and neap tides?
a)
Spring tides occur when the earth and sun are IN LINE with the new or full moon. 
b)
Spring tides occur when moon in 3rd or 1st quarter phases
c)
Spring tides are LOWER than neap tides
d)
Spring tides occur in Spring and neap tides can occur in any season
58.
At the same time the sea is drawn to the moon, another tidal bulge takes place on other side of Earth.  True or False?
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Maybe
d)
I don't know!
59.
The diagram below shows the alignment of the sun, the moon, and Earth. In which locations are neap tides taking place?
a)
1 and 2
b)
1 and 3
c)
2 and 4
d)
3 and 4
60.
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
61.
a)
Spring Tide
b)
Neap Tide
62.

When fuel burns, it gives us____ and ____ energy

Choose all that apply

a)

Electrical

b)

Heat

c)

Light

d)

Electromagnetic

63.

Which one of them is not a fossil fuel?

a)

Coal

b)

Water

c)

Gas

d)

Oil

64.

Coal is formed from ______

a)

Plants

b)

Bacteria

c)

Virus

d)

Plankton

65.

Coal is formed due to plants that grew in swamps about ______ years ago

a)

265 million

b)

270 million

c)

275 million

d)

None of three

66.

Bacteria could not decompose the plants, buried in swamps, due to the lack of ______

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

None of three

67.

Natural gas is formed due to

a)

Plants

b)

Bacteria

c)

Plankton

d)

None of three

68.

Oil, obtained from earth, is formed from _____

a)

Plants

b)

Bacteria

c)

Plankton

d)

None of three

69.

Releasing a catapult contains which type of energy transformation?

a)

Strain to chemical energy

b)

Strain to Kinetic Energy

c)

Electrical to chemical energy

d)

None of three

70.

Burning gas in bunsen burner represents which type of energy transformation?

a)

Chemical to Light Energy

b)

Chemical to Heat energy

c)

Chemical to Heat and Light Energy

d)

None of three

71.

Taking a a photograph represents which type of energy transformation?

a)

Light energy to chemical energy

b)

Light energy to electromagnetic energy

c)

Light energy to heat energy

d)

None of three

72.

A car accelerated by engine represents which type of energy transformation?

a)

Chemical to light energy

b)

Chemical to Kinetic Energy of car

c)

Chemical to Electromagnetic energy

d)

None of three

73.

What type of energy transformation is there when a person plays the guitar

a)

Chemical to Sound

b)

Sound to chemical

c)

Kinetic energy to Sound

d)

None of three

74.

What kind of energy transformation is this?

a)

Chemical to Light Energy

b)

Kinetic to Strain Energy

c)

Chemical to Electromagnetic energy

d)

None of three

75.

What kind of energy transformation is this?

a)

Kinetic to Electrical Energy

b)

Kinetic to Electromagnetic Energy

c)

Electrical to Kinetic Energy

d)

None of three

76.

The unit of energy is ____

a)

Kilogram

b)

Grams

c)

Joules

d)

None of three

77.

How many Joules are there in 5KJ

a)

520

b)

500

c)

5000

d)

5200

78.

If you raise an object of weight 10N by 1 meter, the energy used is 

10×1=10Joules10\times1=10Joules  
How many joules would be used to raise 2 meters?

a)

10 Joules

b)

20 Joules

c)

5 Joules

d)

None of three

79.

If you raise an object of weight 10N by 1 meter, the energy used is

10×1=10 Joules

Joe weighs 400N and climbs the stairs to his apartment. The height of stairs is 8 meters.

How much energy does he use climbing the stairs?

a)

50Joules

b)

408Joules

c)

3200Joules

d)

None of three

80.

A slingshot that has been pulled back, but has not been let go.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Potential

81.

A bobsled is moving at its greatest speed around the final turn.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Potential

82.

A girl is swinging and she is at her highest point of the swing.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Potential

83.

A grasshopper reaches the highest point in its jump from one plant to another.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Potential

84.

A cliff diver is just about to jump off an 18 m high cliff.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Potential

85.

A sky diver is traveling at his fastest speed (terminal velocity) when falling.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Potential

86.

A basketball sits on the rim before falling into the hoop.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Potential

87.

A satellite that is orbiting the earth at nearly 20,000 miles/hour.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Potential

88.

An arrow is released from a bow and travels towards the target.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Potential

89.

A baseball has reached its highest point after being hit towards the top of the stadium.

a)

Kinetic

b)

Potential

90.

Energy in motion is ____________ energy.

a)

Potential

b)

Energy

c)

Kinetic

d)

Friction

91.

____________ is the ability to do work or cause change.

a)

Energy

b)

Force

c)

Friction

d)

Motion

92.

The faster an object moves, the ________ kinetic energy it has.

a)

more

b)

less

93.

__________ energy is stored energy.

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

c)

Force

d)

Gravity

94.

Gravitational potential energy depends on the ________ and ________ of the object.

a)

Position (height) and mass

b)

Friction and movement

c)

Mass and Movement

d)

Height and Friction

95.

When you stretch a rubber band, you are storing __________ energy.

a)

kinetic

b)

potential

96.

At which point is potential energy greatest?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

97.

What energy does a rock at the edge of a cliff have?

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

98.

What are the two factors that affect kinetic energy?

a)

time and energy

b)

power and mass

c)

mass and speed

d)

time and work

99.

What position has the least amount of potential energy?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

100.

In order to INCREASE the potential energy of an object, you need to:

a)

put the object lower to the ground

b)

raise the object higher

101.

What is this part (red line) called?

a)

wavelength

b)

trough

c)

crest

d)

amplitude

102.

What is this part (red line) called?

a)

wavelength

b)

trough

c)

crest

d)

amplitude

103.

What is this part (red line) called?

a)

wavelength

b)

trough

c)

crest

d)

amplitude

104.

What is this part (red line) called?

a)

wavelength

b)

trough

c)

crest

d)

amplitude

105.

What is this part (red line) called?

a)

crest

b)

trough

c)

amplitude

d)

wavelength

106.

What is this part (red line) called?

a)

amplitude

b)

trough

c)

crest

d)

wavelength

107.

Which one has a higher pitch?

a)

Cello

b)

Violin

108.

Which one has a lower pitch?

a)

Cello

b)

Violin

109.

Which one is louder?

a)

Cello

b)

Violin

c)

They have the same loudness

110.

Which sound wave has low pitch?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

111.

Which sound wave has high pitch?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

112.

Which sound wave is loud?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

113.

Which sound wave is soft?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

114.

Which of these used the application of reflection of sound in medical field?

a)
b)
c)
115.

Why is the school library covered with carpet?

a)

to help absorb water

b)

to help absorb sounds to keep it quiet

c)

because it looks good

116.

A sound reflection, in which sound bounces off of an object, is called an ___.

a)

sound wave

b)

echo

c)

refraction

117.

_______________________ is a system that uses sound waves to determine locations of objects in the water

a)

ultrasonic scan

b)

sonar

c)

periscope

118.

When Mr. Albbert yells his name in a cave, the sound reflects off the walls of the cave and travels back to his ears. What is this called?

a)

refraction

b)

echo

c)

excretion

119.

Sound can be reflected better on ........... surface

a)

hard

b)

smooth

c)

soft

120.

Sara and Maria made a telephone using two cups and a string. It was a very long string. Maria went upstairs in her house and Sara stayed downstairs. Maria spoke softly into the can. "I can hear you!" Sara said back. How can this happen?

a)

Sound waves travel through a vacuum.

b)

Sound waves travel through solids like the string.

c)

Sound waves travel from high to low.

d)

Maria talked so loudly that Sara could hear her without the phone.

121.
Soft surfaces _______ sound waves. 
a)
Reflect
b)
Absorb
122.

Tick the correct applications of sound reflection in daily life

a)
b)
c)
d)
123.

Which of these animals uses ultrasound?

a)
b)
c)
d)
124.

Fishermen use a depth finder to send ultrasonic waves into the water to find fish. Which property of sound involved ?

a)

reflection of sound

b)

refraction of light

c)

sound can be absorbed

125.

Ultrasound is a sound that humans cannot hear but can be heard by animals such as whales.

a)

False.

b)

True

126.

Why do sound echo in an empty gym?

a)

Sound has nowhere to go

b)

There are hard surfaces so sound reflects

c)

Sound travels in waves

127.
Will sound be reflected or absorbed by these objects:
hair, cotton, carpet, flag, pillow
a)
Reflected
b)
Absorbed
128.
Will sound be absorbed or reflected by these objects:
brick, concrete, glass, tile, wood
a)
Reflected
b)
Absorbed
129.

Tick ALL areas where echoes can be heard.

a)

Cave

b)

Field

c)

Tunnel

d)

A closed hall

130.

Which of these used sonar technology?

a)

Submarine

b)

Solar panel

c)

car

131.

___________ and _________ make use of ultrasound waves to estimate the distance while flying and hunting for prey.

(2 answers)

a)

bats

b)

dogs

c)

birds

d)

dolphins

132.

What are echoes?


Sounds that are _______ from a hard surface.

a)

absorbed

b)

reflected

c)

propagate

133.

Tick ALL areas where echoes can be heard.

a)

Cave

b)

Field

c)

Tunnel

d)

A closed hall

134.

__________ is a sound reflection technology applied in ships at sea using the reflection of sound waves to determine the depth of the sea.

a)

Reflection

b)

Echo

c)

Solar

d)

Sonar

135.

___________ and _________ make use of ultrasound waves to estimate the distance while flying and hunting for prey.

(2 answers)

a)

bats

b)

dogs

c)

birds

d)

dolphins

136.

What is the name given to a sound wave with a frequency which is higher than the audible limit of hearing in humans?

(a)  

137.

The frequency of sound that can be detected by humans is within the range of _________

a)

67 Hz to 45 000 Hz

b)

16 Hz to 12 000 Hz

c)

20 Hz to 20 000 Hz

d)

2 000 Hz to 110 000 Hz

138.

Tick the devices to overcome human limitations of hearing


(2 answers)

a)

Microscopes

b)

Stethoscopes

c)

A megaphone

d)

Periscope

139.

What is the purpose of transmitting the sound wave?

a)

Giving a warning signal

b)

Detecting the distance

c)

Delivering information

d)

Determine the rock size

140.

SONAR is a technique or device that used for :

I. detecting objects under water

II. detect cracks in metal structures

III. measure depth of the sea

IV. investigate the abdomen and heart conditions

a)

I and II

b)

II and III

c)

I and III

d)

I and IV

141.

Ultrasound is a kind of sound wave with its frequency of more than ......

a)

50 kHz

b)

40 kHz

c)

30 kHz

d)

20 kHz

142.

What is the thinnest layer of the Earth?

a)

Mantle

b)

Core

c)

Crust

143.

The thickest layer of the Earth is

a)

The crust

b)

The mantle

c)

The core

144.

The inner core is:

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gaseous

145.
Which two metals are thought to be found in the core?
a)
iron and steel
b)
iron and nickel
c)
gold and silver
d)
iron and copper
146.
Which layer of the Earth is the most dense?
a)
Crust
b)
Inner core
c)
Mantle
d)
Outer core
147.
Which portion of the crust is thicker?
a)
Continental
b)
Oceanic
148.
Which letter represents the entire mantle?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
D
d)
F
149.
Which layer represents the lithosphere?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
150.
All of the living things on the Earth
a)
Biosphere
b)
Atmosphere
c)
The continents
d)
Hydrosphere
151.
When the early Earth began to have molten rock, layers formed because of their
a)
shapes.
b)
densities.
c)
water.
d)
No layers formed
152.

Which color would be the innercore?

a)

yellow

b)

orange

c)

red

d)

the earth on the outside

153.

Which color would be the outercore?

a)

Outside on the earth

b)

red

c)

orange

d)

yellow

154.

Which color would be the mantel?

a)

Outside on the earth

b)

red

c)

orange

d)

yellow

155.

What color would be the earth's crust?

a)

Outside on the earth.

b)

red

c)

orange

d)

yellow

156.

What part of the earth makes up less than 1% of the earth?

a)

The crust

b)

The mantel

c)

The outer core

d)

The inner core

157.

Which part of the earth, makes up 67% of the earth?

a)

The crust

b)

The mantel

c)

The outer core

d)

The inner core

158.

Which is the outermost, rigid layer of the earth, made of the crust and the rigid upper part of the mantle.

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Asthenosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Outer core

e)

Inner core

159.

Which is the soft layer of the mantel on which the tectonic plates move?

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Asthenosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Outer core

e)

Inner Core

160.

Which is the strong lower part of the mantel?

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Asthenosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Outer Core

e)

Inner core

161.

The earth's mantel is made up of which two parts?

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Asthenosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Outer core

e)

Inner core

162.

Which part of the earth's core is liquid?

a)

Outer core

b)

Inner core

163.

Which part of the earth's core is solid and dense?

a)

Outer core

b)

Inner core

164.

A tectonic plate is a block of......

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Asthenosphere

c)

Mesosphere

165.

Convergent boundary

a)

Where two tectonic plates collide

b)

Where two tectonic plates separate

c)

Where two tectonic plates slide past each other

166.

Divergent boundary

a)

Where two tectonic plates collide

b)

Where two tectonic plates separate

c)

Where two tectonic plates slide past each other

167.

Transform Boundary

a)

Where two tectonic plates collide

b)

Where two tectonic plates separate

c)

Where two tectonic plates slide past each other

168.

Subduction is when

a)

a yellow submarine

b)

old ocean crust gets pushed up by continental crust

c)

old ocean crust gets pushed down by continental crust.

d)

a yellow submarine

169.

What type of boundary?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

170.

What type of boundary is this?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

171.

What type of boundary is this?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

172.

The partial or total blocking of one object in space by another is called a(n)

a)

Umbra

b)

Penumbra

c)

Eclipse

d)

Shadow

173.

Is this alignment for a solar or lunar eclipse?

a)

Solar

b)

Lunar

174.

Identify the umbra and the penumbra

a)

2 is the umbra and 1 is the penumbra

b)

1 is the umbra and 2 is the penumbra

175.

Is this alignment for a solar or a lunar eclipse?

a)

Solar

b)

Lunar

176.

Identify the umbra and the penumbra

a)

2 is the umbra and 1 is the penumbra

b)

1 is the umbra and 2 is the penumbra

177.

You are less likely to see a total solar eclipse than a lunar eclipse because

a)

The Moon's shadow covers all of Earth during a solar eclipse.

b)

The Moon's umbra only covers a small area on Earth's surface.

c)

Only people on the daytime side of Earth can see a solar eclipse.

178.

A total solar eclipse is visible from

a)

all over the Earth.

b)

only within the moon's penumbra.

c)

only within the moon's umbra.

d)

only the dark side of the Earth.

179.

During a total lunar eclipse the moon is in Earth's

a)

penumbra

b)

orbit

c)

corona

d)

umbra

180.

If each month has a full moon, why is there not also an eclipse each month?

a)

There is an eclipse each month

b)

The moon's orbit is tilted

c)

Seasons on Earth change atmospheric viewing conditions

d)

As the moon gets closer to Earth its gravity changes its orbit

181.

Which moon phase do lunar eclipses occur?

a)

Full Moon

b)

Waxing Gibbous

c)

New Moon

d)

First Quarter

182.

Both solar and lunar eclipses have which of the following types?

a)

Total

b)

Annular

c)

Partial

d)

Total and Partial

183.

When can a solar eclipse occur?

a)

Anytime

b)

During a new moon

c)

During a full moon

d)

Waning gibbous

184.

When the moon does not completely cover the sun it is known as a

a)

Partial lunar eclipse

b)

Partial solar eclipse

c)

Total solar eclipse

d)

Penumbral lunar eclipse

185.

Which type of eclipse is this?

a)

Partial lunar eclipse

b)

Partial solar eclipse

c)

Penumbral solar eclipse

d)

Total lunar eclipse

186.

Which type of eclipse is this?

a)

Partial solar eclipse

b)

Partial lunar eclipse

c)

Total solar eclipse

d)

Total lunar eclipse

187.

When the second bulb is added, they get

a)

brighter

b)

dimmer

c)

broken

d)

cold

188.

What is the measuring device shown?

a)

bulb

b)

cell

c)

ammeter

d)

voltmeter

189.

What can you say about the current in the series circuit?

a)

it splits across the components

b)

it changes constantly

c)

it is different in different places

d)

it is the same everywhere

190.

Which component provides the energy for the charges?

a)

cell

b)

bulb

c)

switch

d)

ammeter

191.

If the ammeter says the current is 5A, what is the current flowing through one bulb?

a)

2.5A

b)

10A

c)

5A

d)

0

192.

If one bulb was broken, what would happen?

a)

current would no longer flow, so everything would be off

b)

the ammeter would measure a current from the other bulb

c)

the switch would keep the current flowing

d)

the cell would burn out and catch fire

193.

What is the name of the device which measures current?

(a)  

194.

Current is measured in

a)

Volts

b)

Watts

c)

Seconds

d)

Amps

195.

If the switch was opened, what would happen?

a)

the ammeter would measure a current flowing

b)

current would no longer flow, so everything would be off

c)

the bulbs would stay on because they're connected to the cell

d)

the bulbs would burn out and catch fire

196.

Name the charged particle, which is part of an atom, that flows in a circuit

a)

proton

b)

electron

c)

neutron

d)

elepton

197.

What causes a decrease in current?

a)

Adding another bulb

b)

increasing resistance

c)

decreasing voltage from the supply

d)

decreasing the resistance

198.

If the current flowing through the cell is 2A, what is the ammeter reading?

a)

5A

b)

1A

c)

6A

d)

2A

199.

What is an insulator?

a)

a material that slows the transfer of heat

b)

a material that is fluffy

c)

a material that transfers heat easily

d)

a material that is temperature controlled

200.

What is the BEST example of a conductor of thermal energy?

a)

A wool oven mitt

b)

A plastic mug

c)

A metal pan

d)

A wooden block

201.

What is a conductor?

a)

a material that slows the transfer of heat

b)

a material that is fluffy

c)

a material that is temperature controlled

d)

a material that transfers heat easily

202.

What is NOT an example of an insulator in the kitchen?

a)

An oven mitt

b)

Pots and pans

c)

A wooden spoon

d)

A plastic measuring cup

203.

The handle of a frying pan is often coated in rubber because rubber provides...

a)

Heat insulation

b)

Heat conduction

c)

A low melting point

d)

A nonstick surface

204.

Conductors are materials that...

a)

Stop heat from passing through

b)

Stop cold from passing through

c)

Allow heat to pass through

d)

Allow cold to pass through

205.

A conductor allows energy to easily pass by.  

a)

True 

b)

False

206.

True or False: An insulator is a type of material that allows heat to escape from an object quickly.

a)

True

b)

False

207.

An insulator is an object which (a)  

208.

Wooden spoons are used while stirring hot liquids because?

a)

Wood is a conductor

b)

Wood is an insulator

c)

Wood is the cheapest material to use

d)

Wood does not affect the environment

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