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Edexcel Economics Unit 2 Quiz 1 (Macro Objectives)

Total questions: 1

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1-100.
1.

What does GDP stand for?

a)

Gross Domestic Product

b)

General Domestic Product

c)

Gross Development Product

d)

General Development Product

2.

What does Real GDP adjust for?

a)

Inflation

b)

Population

c)

Interest rates

d)

Exchange rates

3.

What is the measure of national income per person often used as a proxy for the standard of living?

a)

Real GDP per capita

b)

Nominal GDP

c)

Gross National Product

d)

Value v volume

4.

What does Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) measure?

a)

The total amount of goods and services that a single unit of a country’s currency can buy in another country

b)

The total value of goods and services produced in a country

c)

The total income of a country from abroad

d)

The total amount of goods and services produced per person

5.

What is included in Gross National Product (GNP) that is not included in GDP?

a)

Net property income from abroad

b)

Income from domestic production

c)

Income from government spending

d)

Income from exports

6.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that could make GNI higher than GDP?

a)

Income from worker remittances

b)

Income from interest on bonds and savings held overseas

c)

Income from domestic production

d)

Income from dividends on profits from overseas investment

7.

What does the term "Value v volume" refer to?

a)

The value of goods and services shows what they are worth; the volume shows the number that are produced

b)

The value of goods and services shows the number that are produced; the volume shows what they are worth

c)

The value of goods and services shows the total income; the volume shows the total expenditure

d)

The value of goods and services shows the total expenditure; the volume shows the total income

8.

What is the definition of the standard of living?

a)

A) A measure of economic welfare and wellbeing.

b)

B) A measure of political stability.

c)

C) A measure of environmental sustainability.

d)

D) A measure of technological advancement.

9.

Which of the following factors does NOT affect the standard of living?

a)

A) Access to good healthcare

b)

B) Quality of housing

c)

C) Political freedom

d)

D) The number of cars owned

10.

What do economists use as a proxy for the standard of living?

a)

A) Nominal GDP

b)

B) Real GDP per capita

c)

C) Inflation rate

d)

D) Unemployment rate

11.

What does "real" in real GDP per capita take into account?

a)

A) Population change

b)

B) Inflation

c)

C) Unemployment

d)

D) Technological advancements

12.

What is the Easterlin Paradox?

a)

A) Happiness increases indefinitely with income.

b)

B) Happiness does not increase with income.

c)

C) Happiness increases with income but only up to a point.

d)

D) Happiness decreases with income.

13.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects subjective happiness?

a)

A) Personality and genetics

b)

B) Social influences

c)

C) Income and wealth

d)

D) Number of cars owned

14.

What does the Human Development Index (HDI) measure?

a)

A) Economic growth

b)

B) Political stability

c)

C) Standard of living

d)

D) Technological advancement

15.

Which of the following is NOT a component of the HDI?

a)

A) Health

b)

B) Education

c)

C) Living standards

d)

D) Environmental sustainability

16.

What is one disadvantage of using the HDI?

a)

A) It is a broader measure.

b)

B) It does not take all aspects of wellbeing into account.

c)

C) It is a better measure of economic development.

d)

D) It includes life expectancy at birth.

17.

Which of the following is NOT an example of other measures of living standards?

a)

A) Happy Planet Index

b)

B) Social Progress Index

c)

C) ONS Well-being dashboard

d)

D) Consumer Price Index

18.

What is the definition of inflation?

a)

A sustained decrease in the general price level.

b)

A reduction in the rate of inflation.

c)

A sustained increase in the general price level.

d)

A measure of changes in the average cost for a household of buying a basket of different goods and services.

19.

What does CPI stand for in the context of inflation?

a)

Consumer Price Index

b)

Consumer Price Inflation

c)

Cost Price Index

d)

Cost Price Inflation

20.

How is the CPI Inflation Rate calculated?

a)

[(Current CPI - Previous CPI) / Current CPI] x 100

b)

[(Current CPI - Previous CPI) / Previous CPI] x 100

c)

[(Previous CPI - Current CPI) / Previous CPI] x 100

d)

[(Previous CPI - Current CPI) / Current CPI] x 100

21.

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the CPI inflation measure?

a)

CPI inflation is only calculated for an 'average' family.

b)

It considers the quality of goods/services.

c)

Needs regular updating to reflect changes in patterns of spending.

d)

International comparisons may not be accurate if other countries do not calculate inflation in the same way.

22.

What are 'shoe leather costs' in the context of inflation?

a)

Costs of redoing menus, parking changes, price labels & lists.

b)

Costs of shopping around when prices change rapidly.

c)

Costs of negotiating real wage increases.

d)

Costs of fiscal drag increase tax paid if thresholds are frozen.

23.

What is the 'headline' rate of inflation?

a)

The annual % change in the CPI.

b)

The monthly % change in the CPI.

c)

The annual % change in the RPI.

d)

The monthly % change in the RPI.

24.

What does 'disinflation' refer to?

a)

A sustained increase in the general price level.

b)

A sustained decrease in the general price level.

c)

A reduction in the rate of inflation.

d)

A measure of changes in the average cost for a household of buying a basket of different goods and services.

25.

Which of the following is a benefit of a low rate of inflation?

a)

It implies aggregate demand is running behind aggregate supply.

b)

It reduces the real value of debt.

c)

It makes malign deflation more likely.

d)

It increases the real value of wages.

26.

What is demand-pull inflation caused by?

a)

Excess AD in the economy

b)

Increases in the costs of production

c)

Decrease in consumer confidence

d)

Lower commodity prices

27.

Which of the following is a cause of demand-pull inflation?

a)

Lower interest rates

b)

Higher commodity prices

c)

Skill shortages

d)

Increasing input costs

28.

What happens to the price level when AD shifts right in demand-pull inflation?

a)

It rises from PL1 to PL2

b)

It falls from PL2 to PL1

c)

It remains constant

d)

It fluctuates randomly

29.

What is cost-push inflation caused by?

a)

Increases in the costs of production

b)

Excess AD in the economy

c)

Decrease in consumer confidence

d)

Lower commodity prices

30.

Which of the following is a cause of cost-push inflation?

a)

Rapid wage rises/higher labour costs

b)

Lower interest rates

c)

High consumer confidence

d)

Positive wealth effects

31.

What is stagflation?

a)

When the economy stagnates as price level rises

b)

When the economy grows rapidly with stable prices

c)

When the economy experiences deflation

d)

When the economy has high employment and low inflation

32.

What do monetarists argue is the cause of inflation?

a)

Excessive growth of the money supply

b)

Decrease in consumer confidence

c)

Lower commodity prices

d)

Lower interest rates

33.

What can help with "inflationary expectations" and anchor inflation to the 2% target?

a)

Having an inflation target

b)

Increasing input costs

c)

Lowering interest rates

d)

Increasing consumer confidence

34.

What causes deflation due to a fall in Aggregate Demand (AD)?

a)

Increase in short run aggregate supply

b)

Lack of AD in the economy

c)

Increase in production costs

d)

Technological advances

35.

What happens when AD shifts left?

a)

Price level rises from PL1 to PL2

b)

Price level falls from PL1 to PL2

c)

Real national output increases

d)

Real national output remains constant

36.

What is a consequence of lower Aggregate Demand (AD)?

a)

Increase in cash flow and profits for businesses

b)

Decrease in real value of debt

c)

Over supply

d)

Decrease in cyclical unemployment

37.

What causes deflation due to an increase in short run aggregate supply (AS)?

a)

Increase in production costs

b)

Decrease in production costs

c)

Increase in AD

d)

Decrease in AD

38.

What is a benefit of deflation?

a)

Falling prices for consumers

b)

Decrease in real incomes

c)

Decreased spending power for those on fixed incomes

d)

Reduced international competitiveness

39.

Which of the following is a cause of 'malign' deflation?

a)

Technological advances

b)

Improvements in productivity

c)

Global recession

d)

Falling price of energy prices

40.

Which of the following is a cause of 'benign' deflation?

a)

Negative demand shock

b)

Globalisation/economies of scale

c)

Global recession

d)

Appreciation of currency

41.

What is the definition of the working population?

a)

The total number of individuals who are of working age and are either employed or actively seeking employment.

b)

The total number of individuals who are of working age and are employed.

c)

The total number of individuals who are of working age and are unemployed.

d)

The total number of individuals who are of working age and are economically inactive.

42.

What does the labour force include?

a)

Only employed individuals.

b)

Only unemployed individuals.

c)

Both employed and unemployed individuals.

d)

Only economically inactive individuals.

43.

What is economic inactivity?

a)

Being engaged in the labour force.

b)

Not being engaged in the labour force.

c)

Actively seeking employment.

d)

Being employed full-time.

44.

What is the labour force participation rate?

a)

The proportion of people of working age who are in employment.

b)

The number of people in the working population.

c)

Workers in the labour force compared to the number of people in the working population.

d)

The percentage of the labour force that are unemployed.

45.

What is the employment rate?

a)

The proportion of people of working age who are in employment.

b)

The number of people in the working population.

c)

Workers in the labour force compared to the number of people in the working population.

d)

The percentage of the labour force that are unemployed.

46.

Who is considered unemployed?

a)

Someone of working age, willing and able to work, and actively seeking work, but cannot find a job.

b)

Someone of working age who is employed.

c)

Someone of working age who is economically inactive.

d)

Someone of working age who is retired.

47.

What does the unemployment rate measure?

a)

The percentage of the labour force that are unemployed.

b)

The number of people in the working population.

c)

The proportion of people of working age who are in employment.

d)

The number of people who are economically inactive.

48.

What is the Labour Force Survey?

a)

A survey that counts the total number of recipients of Job Seeker's Allowance.

b)

A survey that asks UK households to self-classify as being employed, unemployed, or economically inactive.

c)

A survey that measures the employment rate.

d)

A survey that measures the labour force participation rate.

49.

What is the Claimant Count?

a)

A count of the total number of recipients of Job Seeker's Allowance and those looking for work to claim Universal Credit.

b)

A count of the total number of people in the labour force.

c)

A count of the total number of people who are economically inactive.

d)

A count of the total number of people who are employed.

50.

What is regional unemployment?

a)

Unemployment rate varies across regions.

b)

People unemployed for over 12 months.

c)

Unemployment rate for 16 to 24 year-olds.

d)

Inactive work-seekers who have ceased to seek work.

51.

What is long term unemployment?

a)

Unemployment rate varies across regions.

b)

People unemployed for over 12 months.

c)

Unemployment rate for 16 to 24 year-olds.

d)

Inactive work-seekers who have ceased to seek work.

52.

What is youth unemployment?

a)

Unemployment rate varies across regions.

b)

People unemployed for over 12 months.

c)

Unemployment rate for 16 to 24 year-olds.

d)

Inactive work-seekers who have ceased to seek work.

53.

Who are discouraged workers?

a)

People who are employed but their employment is insufficient.

b)

Inactive work-seekers who have ceased to seek work because they believe there are no suitable available jobs.

c)

People who do not work but are not counted in government reports.

d)

People who perform short-term, flexible, and often freelance work.

54.

What is hidden unemployment?

a)

People who are employed but their employment is insufficient.

b)

Inactive work-seekers who have ceased to seek work because they believe there are no suitable available jobs.

c)

People who do not work but who are not counted in government reports.

d)

People who perform short-term, flexible, and often freelance work.

55.

What is underemployment?

a)

People who are employed but their employment is insufficient.

b)

Inactive work-seekers who have ceased to seek work because they believe there are no suitable available jobs.

c)

People who do not work but who are not counted in government reports.

d)

People who perform short-term, flexible, and often freelance work.

56.

What is the gig economy?

a)

A work arrangement where people perform short-term, flexible, and often freelance work.

b)

The displacement of human workers by machines, automation, and technology.

c)

The total number of individuals who are of working age and are either employed or actively seeking employment.

d)

The proportion of people of working age who are in employment.

57.

What is technological unemployment?

a)

The displacement of human workers by machines, automation, and technology.

b)

A work arrangement where people perform short-term, flexible, and often freelance work.

c)

The total number of individuals who are of working age and are either employed or actively seeking employment.

d)

The proportion of people of working age who are in employment.

58.

What is frictional unemployment?

a)

Unemployment caused by fluctuations in the business cycle.

b)

Short-term unemployment caused by people moving between jobs or re-entering the workforce.

c)

Unemployment caused by changes in the economy, such as the decline of certain industries.

d)

Unemployment caused by wages being too high relative to the productivity of workers.

59.

What is cyclical unemployment also known as?

a)

Structural unemployment

b)

Frictional unemployment

c)

Demand-deficient unemployment

d)

Real wage unemployment

60.

What causes structural unemployment?

a)

Seasonal changes in the demand for labor

b)

Fluctuations in the business cycle

c)

Changes in the economy, such as the decline of certain industries or the rise of automation

d)

Wages being too high relative to the productivity of workers

61.

What is real wage unemployment caused by?

a)

Seasonal changes in the demand for labor

b)

Fluctuations in the business cycle

c)

Changes in the economy, such as the decline of certain industries or the rise of automation

d)

Wages being too high relative to the productivity of workers

62.

What is an example of seasonal unemployment?

a)

Unemployment caused by people moving between jobs

b)

Unemployment caused by fluctuations in the business cycle

c)

Construction workers being without paid jobs due to the time of year when there is less need for their work

d)

Unemployment caused by wages being too high relative to the productivity of workers

63.

What is one of the benefits of some unemployment?

a)

Increase in poverty and welfare dependency

b)

Reduced risk of inflation

c)

Loss of output foregone

d)

Increase in physical and mental health issues

64.

What is one of the economic costs of unemployment?

a)

Increase in self-employment start-ups

b)

Increase in poverty and welfare dependency

c)

Loss of output foregone

d)

Pool of unemployed available for growing businesses

65.

What happens when the current wage is above the market-clearing wage?

a)

There is a shortage of labor.

b)

There is an excess supply of labor.

c)

The unemployment rate decreases.

d)

The unemployment rate remains unchanged.

66.

What is the definition of the Balance of Payments?

a)

A record of all the flows of money between the residents of one country and the rest of the world

b)

The value of exports of goods and services minus the value of imports of goods and services

c)

An overseas produced good/service purchased by UK citizens

d)

A UK produced good/service sold overseas

67.

What results in an outflow of income from the UK?

a)

Export

b)

Import

c)

Trade surplus

d)

Trade deficit

68.

What is the value of exports of goods and services minus the value of imports of goods and services called?

a)

Balance of Payments

b)

Current account

c)

Balance of trade in goods and services

d)

Primary income

69.

Which of the following is NOT a category recorded in the current account?

a)

Trade in goods

b)

Trade in services

c)

Primary income

d)

Capital account

70.

Which of the following is a structural cause of a current account deficit?

a)

Overvalued exchange rate

b)

Boom in domestic demand

c)

Under-investment

d)

Slump in global prices of exports

71.

What does the current account on the balance of payments record?

a)

Only the exports of goods

b)

Only the imports of goods

c)

The exports and imports (inflows and outflows) for goods, services, primary and secondary income

d)

The value of exports minus the value of imports

72.

Which of the following is an example of primary income?

a)

Net current transfers between countries

b)

The inflow of interest, profits, and dividends on UK assets held abroad

c)

Payments to and from the EU

d)

Travel and tourism services

73.

What is a potential benefit of running a current account deficit?

a)

Loss of jobs in home-based industries

b)

Depreciation of the currency

c)

More imports can add to the standard of living

d)

Withdrawal from the circular flow

74.

Which of the following is a cyclical cause of a current account deficit?

a)

Under-investment

b)

Relatively low productivity

c)

Overvalued exchange rate

d)

Inadequate R&D, innovation

75.

Which organization monitors and promotes tariff-free international trade?

a)

EU

b)

USMCA

c)

CPTPP

d)

WTO

76.

Which of the following is the largest component of Aggregate Demand (AD)?

a)

Capital Investment (I)

b)

Government Consumption (G)

c)

Net Trade (X - M)

d)

Consumption (C)

77.

What does the formula AD = C + I + G + X - M represent?

a)

Aggregate Supply

b)

Aggregate Demand

c)

Gross Domestic Product

d)

Net National Product

78.

Which of the following is NOT included in Government Consumption (G)?

a)

Healthcare

b)

Education

c)

Transfer payments

d)

Defence

79.

What is the Savings ratio formula?

4 lines
80.

Which of the following is a benefit of rising consumption?

a)

Inflation pressure

b)

Unbalanced growth

c)

Falling unemployment

d)

More household debt

81.

What does the Keynesian paradox of thrift suggest?

a)

Increased saving leads to increased economic activity

b)

Increased saving leads to decreased economic activity

c)

Increased consumption leads to decreased economic activity

d)

Increased consumption leads to increased economic activity

82.

What does the Average Propensity to Consume (APC) formula represent?

a)

C/Y

b)

S/Y

c)

change in C/change in Y

d)

change in S/change in Y

83.

Which factor is likely to increase consumer spending due to a positive wealth effect?

a)

Increase in interest rates

b)

Increase in job security

c)

Increase in the value of assets

d)

Increase in immigration

84.

What is the definition of investment according to the document?

a)

Addition to capital stock of the economy

b)

Value of the capital stock that falls in value over time

c)

Investment before depreciation

d)

Investment undertaken by businesses in the private sector

85.

What is gross investment?

a)

Investment before depreciation

b)

Investment after depreciation

c)

Investment undertaken by businesses in the private sector

d)

Investment made by a company based in one country in another country

86.

Which of the following is NOT a reason why firms invest?

a)

To expand their business and increase their output capacity

b)

To reduce average costs of production due to economies of scale

c)

To decrease market demand

d)

To increase efficiency and productivity through innovation and technological progress

87.

Which factor does NOT influence investment according to the document?

a)

Interest rate

b)

Availability of finance

c)

Demand for the final product

d)

Population growth

88.

What is the impact of investment on aggregate demand (AD) and aggregate supply (AS)?

a)

Causes short run growth, lower unemployment, and long run non-inflationary growth

b)

Causes short run decline, higher unemployment, and long run inflationary growth

c)

Causes short run growth, higher unemployment, and long run non-inflationary growth

d)

Causes short run decline, lower unemployment, and long run inflationary growth

89.

Which of the following is a type of investment made by the government often in infrastructure?

a)

Private sector investment

b)

Public sector investment

c)

Foreign direct investment (FDI)

d)

Depreciation (capital consumption)

90.

How does a lower interest rate influence investment?

a)

Increases the cost of borrowing and reduces investment

b)

Reduces the cost of borrowing and increases investment

c)

Has no effect on investment

d)

Increases the cost of borrowing and has no effect on investment

91.

What is the effect of technological change on investment?

a)

Reduces investment in new technologies

b)

Ensures businesses do not lag behind their competitors

c)

Has no effect on investment

d)

Increases the cost of investment

92.

What is government consumption also known as?

a)

Capital spending

b)

Current spending

c)

Transfer payments

d)

Discretionary spending

93.

Which of the following is NOT included in government consumption?

a)

Wages to public sector workers

b)

Energy bills for government offices

c)

Transfer payments

d)

Rent bills for schools

94.

What is the role of government spending in influencing economic regions?

a)

Increasing taxes

b)

'Levelling up'

c)

Reducing public goods

d)

Decreasing AD

95.

What does a budget deficit indicate?

a)

Government spending equals tax revenue

b)

Government spending exceeds tax revenue

c)

Government spending is less than tax revenue

d)

Government can pay back some of its debt

96.

What is net trade (X-M)?

a)

The value of imports less the value of exports

b)

The value of exports less the value of imports

c)

The value of government spending

d)

The value of tax revenue

97.

What happens to government spending on welfare benefits and support for businesses during an economic downturn?

a)

It decreases

b)

It remains the same

c)

It increases

d)

It is eliminated

98.

Which factor does NOT influence net trade?

a)

Real income

b)

Exchange rate

c)

State of global economy

d)

Government consumption

99.

What is the fiscal multiplier used to estimate?

a)

The initial change in government spending

b)

The final change in real national income (GDP)

c)

The total tax revenue

d)

The level of AD

100.

What is the definition of national income?

a)

The total value of goods and services produced by households.

b)

The monetary value of the flow of output produced in an economy over a period of time.

c)

The total amount of money saved by the financial sector.

d)

The value of imports and exports in an economy.