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Year 12 Economics Quiz on exam topics

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement is a positive statement?

a)

The distribution of income and wealth in most western European countries is unequal.

b)

The government ought to increase income tax on high earners.

c)

There should be more legal rights given to workers to protect their status in the workplace.

d)

Wages of those on low incomes should be increased.

2.

What could not cause a shift in an individual’s demand curve for good Z?

a)

a change in advertising expenditure on Z

b)

a change in the individual’s income

c)

a change in the individual’s tastes

d)

a change in the price of Z

3.

Why is national defence provided by the government?

a)

In a free market it is excludable and rival in consumption.

b)

In a free market it is non-excludable and non-rival in consumption.

c)

The government has perfect information, so it can set the correct quantity required.

d)

The private sector firm would charge a high price for its use as it is a necessity.

4.

What is the main feature of an oligopoly market?

a)

Few large firms dominating the market

b)

No competition in the market

c)

One firm dominating the market

d)

Many small firms dominating the market

5.

How does product differentiation occur in monopolistic competition?

a)

By selling the same product as other companies

b)

Through branding, advertising, and unique product features.

c)

By reducing the quality of the product

d)

By lowering the price of the product

6.

What is a key feature of monopolistic competition?

a)

High barriers to entry

b)

Differentiated products

c)

Identical products

d)

Government regulation

7.

What is the concept of scarcity in economics?

a)

Limited availability of resources compared to unlimited wants and needs

b)

Equal availability of resources and wants and needs

c)

Scarcity refers to the excess of resources compared to wants and needs

d)

Unlimited availability of resources compared to limited wants and needs

8.

What does a point inside the production possibility curve indicate?

a)

No impact on resource utilization

b)

Overutilization of resources

c)

Efficient use of resources

d)

Underutilization of resources

9.

What does interdependence mean?

a)

It is where one or more groups respond to the actions of another group

b)

It is where one group responds to the actions of another group

c)

It is where multiple groups respond to the actions of another group

10.

Which one of the following statements is not a characteristic of monopolistic competition?

a)

Ease of entry into the industry

b)

Product differentiation

c)

A relatively large number of sellers

d)

A homogenous product

11.

In long-run equilibrium in a monopolistically competitive market, firms typically:

a)

earn a normal profit

b)

charge a price equal to marginal cost

c)

earn an above-normal profit

d)

charge a price equal to marginal revenue

12.

Under monopolistic competition price discrimination can be made easily.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What type of products will firms produce in monopolistic competition?

a)

Firms produce significantly differentiated products

b)

Firms produce slightly differentiated products

c)

Firms produce homogenous products with one modification

d)

Firms produce a variety of different products

14.

How can products be differentiated?

a)

Brand name

b)

Colour

c)

Appearance

d)

Packaging design

e)

All of the above

15.

Monopolistic competitors in long-run equilibrium will generally find that they are earning economic profits

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Tap Water

a)

monopoly

b)

oligopoly

c)

monopolistic competition

d)

perfect competition

17.

Coca-cola

a)

monopoly

b)

oligopoly

c)

monopolistic competition

d)

perfect competition

18.

One of the assumptions of monopolistic competition is that it is made of a ...... number of firms

a)

large

b)

small

c)

moderate

19.

The product differentiation is also known as....

a)

price competition

b)

non-price competition

c)

economics of scale

d)

price discrimination

20.

In the long run, in monopolistic competition, the producers will produce at a level of output .....

a)

that is socially optimum

b)

where AC is at a minimum

c)

where MC=MR

21.

A barrier to entry is

a)

An obstacle that makes it difficult for new firms to enter a market.

b)

A commitment on the part of big business to allow smaller companies to compete.

c)

An obstacle that prevents additional workers from entering an industry, such as a union.

22.

If there are many firms in an industry producing goods that are similar but slightly different, this is an example of

a)

Monopoly

b)

Monopolistic competition.

23.
Firms in monopolistic competition can leave the market easily in the long run.
a)
True
b)
False
24.
The jeans industry would fall into what type of market structure? ( jeans are similar but there are some differences in the product)
a)
monopoly
b)
oligopoly
c)
perfect competition
d)
monopolistic competition
25.
A price war occurs when competing sellers________ their prices _____________________.
a)
drop, below the competition
b)
drop, above the competition
c)
raise, below the competition
d)
raise, below the competition
26.

Since the airline industry is controlled by only a few very big companies, which type of market structure would best describe it.

a)

Monopoly

b)

Perfect Competition

c)

Oligopoly

27.

Going to the Dallas Farmers Market to buy apples, you will find this type of market structure.

a)

Monopoly

b)

Perfect Competition

c)

Monopolistic Competition

d)

Oligopoly

28.

What are the characteristics of monopolistic competition?

a)

Large number of small firms, high barriers to entry, homogeneous products, high market power

b)

Large number of small firms, low barriers to entry, differentiated products, low market power

c)

Small number of large firms, high barriers to entry, differentiated products, high market power

d)

Small number of large firms, low barriers to entry, homogeneous products, low market power

29.

Elsie, James, and Samuel are discussing the outcome for firms in monopolistic competition in the long-run, such as a local coffee shop. What is the most likely outcome for these firms in the long-run?

a)

Supernormal profit

b)

Normal profit

c)

Losses

d)

Maximum profit

30.

What characterizes a free market?

a)

Only one seller controls the market

b)

The government does not intervene in day-to-day economic activities

c)

The government intervenes in day-to-day economic activities

d)

There are no buyers in the market

31.

Which of the following is an example of an oligopoly?

a)

The oil industry

b)

The online retail industry

c)

The grocery store industry

d)

The local farmers market

32.

An essential characteristic of a public good is that it is non-excludable. This means that

a)

Public goods are of equal benefit to all consumers

b)

There is no opportunity cost in the provision of public goods.

c)

People could consume the good without paying for it.

d)

The government should not levy a tax for providing public goods.

33.

Which one of the following goods is excludable?

a)

A city bus

b)

A bridge that does not charge a toll

c)

Protection from the police force

d)

The atmosphere

34.

Negative externalities in production results in market failure. This is because at the free market equilibrium

a)

marginal social cost is greater than the marginal private cost

b)

marginal private benefit is greater than the marginal private cost

c)

marginal private benefit is greater than the marginal private cost

d)

marginal social cost is less than the marginal private benefit

35.

Public goods are provided by the government because

a)

Private firms do not take into account the impact of external costs

b)

Governments are more efficient than private firms at producing public goods

c)

Private firms will make an economic profit

d)

Free-rider problems result in underproduction by private markets

36.

Free riding can occur if a good is

a)

A private good

b)

Excludable and nonrival

c)

Non-excludable and rival

d)

Non-excludable and non-rival

37.

Which one of the following goods exhibits non-excludability?

a)

Consumption by one person reduces the amount available for others

b)

Consumption by one person does not affect others

c)

Consumption by one person increases the amount available for others

d)

Consumption is limited to a specific group

38.

What is the free rider problem?

a)

scarcity even when you pay for a good

b)

Reaping all the benefits without contributing

c)

Common goods that don't have a price

d)

none of the above

39.

What statement best explains why the government provides goods and services to its citizens?

a)

To provide benefits to small groups of people in certain areas of the country.

b)

To provide goods and services that would not be available if individuals had to provide them.

c)

To compete with businesses in the private sector.

d)

To make a large profit by providing certain goods and services to it's citizens.

40.

What is one reason that local law enforcement is considered a public good?

a)

Everyone in the community benefits from it.

b)

Nobody in the community has to pay for it.

c)

Private firms make a profit from producing it.

d)

Individual citizens pay directly for it.

41.

The goal of government welfare programs is to

a)

maintain a poverty threshold that matches the median income.

b)

eliminate the dependence of people on the welfare system.

c)

eliminate the income gap between the richest Americans and the poorest.

d)

raise the standard of living of certain less-fortunate members of society.

42.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a public good?

a)

Fireworks display

b)

National Defense

c)

Public transportation

d)

Lighthouse

43.

True or False:

Public goods/services can run out when people use them.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

An example of a public good is:

a)

McDonaldʻs hamburger

b)

Sidewalks

c)

Pokemon Cards

45.

True or False:

Movie Tickets are a public good.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

True or False:

Parks are a public good.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

An example of a public service:

a)

Grocery Store Cashier

b)

Doctors

c)

Military

48.

An example of a public good is...

a)

Roads

b)

Cars

c)

Jamba Juice smoothie

49.

A public good

a)

can only be consumed by one person at a time.

b)

can be consumed simultaneously by many people.

c)

is any good provided by a company owned by a member of the public.

d)

is any good provided by the government.

e)

is both rival and excludable.

50.

Define Income Elasticity of Demand

a)

YED measures the degree of responsiveness of quantity demanded for a good to a change in consumer's income, ceteris paribus

b)

YED measures the degree of responsiveness of demand for a good to a change in consumer's income, ceteris paribus

c)

YED measures the degree of responsiveness of consumer's income to a change in quantity demanded for a good, ceteris paribus

d)

YED measures the degree of responsiveness of consumer's income to a change in demand for a good, ceteris paribus

51.

Consumers demand less of this type of goods when their income increases.

a)

Low grade rice

b)

salt

c)

bungalore

d)

furniture

52.

YED = 0 is referring to

a)

Normal Goods

b)

Inferior Goods

c)

Luxury Goods

d)

Necessity Goods

53.

This car are referring to

a)

Normal Goods

b)

Inferior Goods

c)

Luxury Goods

d)

Compulsary Goods

54.

Income elasticity is can be measured by

a)

comparing the percentage change in demanded with the percentage change in income

b)

comparing the percentage change in quantity demanded with the percentage change in price

c)

comparing the percentage change in quantity demanded with the percentage change in income

d)

comparing the percentage change in quantity supply with the percentage change in income

55.

For normal goods, YED will typically be......

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

None of the above

d)

Both of the above

56.

The graph of a demand curve that is perfectly elastic is:

a)

positively sloped.

b)

horizontal.

c)

vertical

d)

negatively sloped.

57.

For inferior goods, Income Elasticity of Demand will typically be...…

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Both

d)

None of these

58.

For luxury goods, Income Elasticity of Demand will typically be.....

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

59.

What is the formula to calculate income elasticity of demand?

a)

Percentage change in quantity demanded / Percentage change in price

b)

Percentage change in quantity demanded / Percentage change in income

c)

Percentage change in price / Percentage change in quantity demanded

d)

Percentage change in income / Percentage change in quantity demanded

60.

What does an income elasticity greater than 1 indicate?

a)

Demand for luxury products rises more than the change in income

b)

Demand for necessities rises more than the change in income

c)

Demand for luxury products rises less than the change in income

d)

Demand for necessities rises less than the change in income

61.

Tesco Value Baked Beans

a)

Normal Good

b)

Inferior Good

c)

Luxury Good

62.

If the income elasticity of demand for a car is 2, how would you classify this good?

a)
Normal good
b)
Inferior good
c)
Luxury good
d)
Substitute good
63.

The quantity demanded for an inferior good decreases from 300 to 240 units when consumer income increases from £20,000 to £25,000. What is the income elasticity of demand?

a)

-0.2

b)

-0.4

c)

-0.6

d)

-0.8

64.

What does this curve represent?

a)

Supply

b)

Equilibrium

c)

Demand

d)

Surplus

65.
Goods that are bought and used together are 
a)
complementary goods
b)
substitute goods
c)
income goods
d)
unrelated goods
66.

Which diagram shows the supply curve?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

67.
In the long-run, the ATC will be tangent to the demand curve at:
a)
Q1
b)
Q2
c)
Q3
d)
none of the above
68.
The graph shows a monopolistically competitive firm:
a)
making a profit in the short-run
b)
incurring a loss in the short-run
c)
making a profit in the long-run
d)
breaking even in the long-run
69.

What is the profit-maximizing price and quantity?

a)

P1, Q1

b)

P2, Q4

c)

P3, Q3

d)

P4, Q2

e)

P5, Q1

70.

If this graph is for a monopolistically competitive firm, it best represents

a)

short run economic loss.

b)

short run extra-normal profit.

c)

long run economic profit.

d)

long run equilibrium at normal profit.

e)

short run accounting loss.

71.
In which market structure is there the LEAST competition?
a)
Monopoly
b)
Oligopoly
c)
Monopolistic Competition
d)
Perfect Competition
72.

Markets with very few barriers to entry are usually

a)

Monopolies

b)

Oligopolies

c)

Competitive Markets

73.
Monopolistically competitive firms are considered inefficient in allocating society’s resources for which of the following reasons? 
a)
In long-run equilibrium, the marginal benefit exceeds the price charged by the firms. 
b)
In long-run equilibrium, the price is greater than the marginal cost. 
c)
In long-run equilibrium, average total costs are minimized.
d)
In long-run equilibrium, the firm is earning economic profits. 
74.
Which of the following market structures results in allocative efficiency? 
a)
Monopoly
b)
Monopolistic Competition
c)
Perfect Competition
d)
Oligopoly
75.

Rent control is an example of a ________, when the government sets a maximum price for a good/service.

a)

Price Ceiling

b)

Equilibrium

c)

Black Market

d)

Price Floor

76.
What is the production possibilities curve?
a)
a graph that shows how much an economy can produce between 2 goods
b)
how much money something is
c)
the opportunity one has to give up in order to gain something else
d)
land, labor, capital, entrepreneurs
77.

What is the marginal product with 3 labourers?

a)

5 unit

b)

5.5 units

c)

6 units

d)

7 units

78.

What is a barter system in economics? 

a)

An exchange system using standardized currency.

b)

A system where goods and services are directly exchanged without money.

c)

A digital payment system for online transactions.

d)

A complex economic theory. 

79.

In a barter system, what is the "double coincidence of wants"? 

a)

A requirement to have two forms of currency.

b)

The need for two parties to have matching desires for each other's goods or services.

c)

A requirement for two intermediaries in a trade.

d)

The need for two separate transactions to complete a trade. 

80.

Which of the following is a limitation of barter systems? 

a)

Lack of divisibility of goods

b)

Uniformity in the value of exchanged goods.

c)

Efficient allocation of resources.

d)

Reduced complexity in trading.

81.

Why is barter system considered inefficient?

a)

Because it requires double coincidence of wants.

b)

Because it promotes economic growth.

c)

Because it simplifies transactions.

d)

Because it allows for easy calculation of exchange rates.

82.

What is the history of barter?

a)

Barter was only used in one specific ancient civilization

b)

Barter is a system of exchange where goods or services are directly exchanged for other goods or services without using a medium of exchange, such as money. It has been used for centuries, dating back to ancient civilizations.

c)

Barter was invented in the 21st century

d)

Barter was never a common practice

83.

Which is not a characteristic of an oligopoly

a)

Few producers in a market

b)

Similar products

c)

High barriers to enter

d)

one producer in the market

84.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

85.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

86.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

87.

The following diagram shows the production possibility frontier for an economy that produces bread and honey.


If the economy is initially at point W, then the opportunity cost of moving to point X is

a)

6 units of honey.

b)

8 units of honey.

c)

12 units of bread.

d)

23 units of bread.

88.
What does point B represent?
a)
Production at greater than the country's minimum potential
b)
Production is less than the country's minimum potential
c)
Productive inefficiency
d)
Productive efficiency
89.

The following diagram shows the production possibility frontier for an economy that produces bread and honey.


If the economy is initially at point W, then the opportunity cost of moving to point X is

a)

6 units of honey.

b)

8 units of honey.

c)

12 units of bread.

d)

23 units of bread.

90.

Which scenario contributes towards the shifting of the curve in the picture above?

a)

When a country is struck by a natural disaster, natural resources are either exhausted or reduced due to the incident.

b)

Huge reduction in Construction Expenses and equipment manufacturing

c)

Economic decline due to Covid 19

d)

None of the above