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Home Safety Quiz

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a recommended way to reduce fall hazards in the home?

a)

Use slippery rugs

b)

Clear clutter and electrical cords

c)

Avoid using handrails

d)

Ignore worn carpet edges

2.

What should you install in bathrooms to help prevent falls?

a)

Night-lights

b)

Step stools

c)

Handrails and grab bars

d)

High cabinets

3.

Why is it important to replace burned-out light bulbs and use night-lights?

a)

To save electricity

b)

To improve home decor

c)

To reduce fall hazards

d)

To increase room temperature

4.

What should you use to reach high cabinets or shelves safely?

a)

A chair

b)

A table

c)

A step stool or ladder

d)

A broom

5.

What should you pay attention to in unfamiliar places to prevent falls?

a)

The weather

b)

Your surroundings

c)

The time of day

d)

Your footwear

6.

What should you do before using chemicals to ensure safe use?

a)

Ignore the label directions

b)

Read and follow label directions

c)

Mix chemicals together

d)

Use chemicals without any protection

7.

Where should chemicals be stored to prevent access by children and pets?

a)

In the kitchen

b)

In the bathroom

c)

In original containers in a locked area

d)

In open containers on a shelf

8.

What protective equipment should be worn when using chemicals?

a)

Sunglasses

b)

Sandals

c)

Goggles, gloves, or a mask

d)

A hat

9.

How should chemicals be disposed of?

a)

Pour them down the drain

b)

Throw them in the trash

c)

Dispose of them as described on the label

d)

Leave them outside

10.

What should you do before eating a plant?

a)

Eat it immediately

b)

Do not eat it unless you are certain about its safety

c)

Cook it without checking

d)

Assume it is safe

11.

How can you prevent mold in food?

a)

Leave food out in the open

b)

Store food in a warm place

c)

Refrigerate food and discard moldy food

d)

Keep food in a sealed bag at room temperature

12.

What is one of the key recommendations for preventing weapon-related injuries?

a)

Keep firearms and other weapons in an unlocked drawer.

b)

Store firearms and ammunition together.

c)

Keep firearms and other weapons locked in a safe place out of reach of other people, especially children.

d)

Leave firearms in plain sight for easy access.

13.

Where should firearms be stored to ensure safety?

a)

In a separate locked place from the ammunition.

b)

In the same place as the ammunition.

c)

In an unlocked cabinet.

d)

Under the bed.

14.

What should you do if you see a weapon?

a)

Pick it up and take it to an adult.

b)

Leave the area without touching it.

c)

Take a picture of it.

d)

Ignore it and continue with your activities.

15.

Who should you report to if you see someone using or playing with a weapon?

a)

A trusted adult.

b)

Your friends.

c)

No one, keep it to yourself.

d)

The person using the weapon.

16.

What does the Occupational Safety and Health Act require employers to provide?

a)

Higher wages

b)

Flexible working hours

c)

A safe working environment

d)

Paid vacations

17.

Which of the following is a worker responsibility?

a)

Refusing to do work that could cause injury

b)

Following workplace policies and procedures

c)

Receiving bonuses

d)

Taking extended breaks

18.

What should workers do if they encounter unsafe work practices or working conditions?

a)

Ignore the issue

b)

Alert supervisors

c)

Continue working

d)

Leave the job

19.

Which of the following is a worker right?

a)

Refusing to do work that could cause injury or illness

b)

Ignoring workplace policies

c)

Taking unlimited sick leave

d)

Demanding a promotion

20.

What protection do workers have when reporting workplace hazards and dangers?

a)

They can be fired

b)

They can be disciplined

c)

They cannot be fired or disciplined

d)

They receive a bonus

21.

What is the primary goal of ergonomics?

a)

To increase productivity

b)

To ensure health and safety during the performance of a task

c)

To reduce the cost of equipment

d)

To improve communication skills

22.

Which of the following is a common work injury that ergonomics aims to reduce?

a)

Headaches

b)

Repetitive strain injuries (like tendinitis)

c)

Eye strain

d)

Back pain

23.

What is one of the specific conditions that ergonomics helps to prevent?

a)

Asthma

b)

Carpal tunnel syndrome

c)

Diabetes

d)

Hypertension

24.

What should you wear when boating to prevent drowning?

a)

A) A swimsuit

b)

B) A life jacket

c)

C) A hat

d)

D) Sunglasses

25.

When is it unsafe to swim?

a)

A) Before or after a storm

b)

B) On a sunny day

c)

C) In a swimming pool

d)

D) In the morning

26.

What should you do if you believe someone is drowning?

a)

A) Jump in the water to save them

b)

B) Call 911 right away

c)

C) Wait for someone else to help

d)

D) Swim away quickly

27.

What should you avoid doing in shallow water?

a)

A) Swimming

b)

B) Diving

c)

C) Floating

d)

D) Wading

28.

What should you avoid swimming in to prevent drowning?

a)

A) Warm water

b)

B) Cold water

c)

C) Very cold water

d)

D) Hot water

29.

What is a substance called if it can cause illness or death on entering the body?

a)

Harmless

b)

Beneficial

c)

Poisonous

d)

Nutritious

30.

What should people do if they see a weapon like a firearm?

a)

Pick it up and examine it

b)

Leave the area without touching the weapon

c)

Call a friend to help

d)

Take a picture of it

31.

Which US law protects workers and gives them rights?

a)

Civil Rights Act

b)

Environmental Protection Act

c)

Occupational Safety and Health Act

d)

Freedom of Information Act

32.

Which of the following is considered part of your digital footprint?

a)

Online subscriptions

b)

Physical mail

c)

Handwritten notes

d)

Face-to-face conversations

33.

What does your digital footprint include?

a)

Social media posts and pictures

b)

Personal diaries

c)

Telephone conversations

d)

Handwritten letters

34.

Which of the following is NOT part of your digital footprint?

a)

Browsing history

b)

Online messages

c)

Presence in online forums

d)

Personal conversations at home

35.

What type of content is included in your digital footprint?

a)

Things shared about people

b)

Private thoughts

c)

Physical books

d)

In-person meetings

36.

Which of the following is an example of your digital footprint?

a)

Online messages

b)

Handwritten notes

c)

Face-to-face discussions

d)

Physical photographs

37.

Why do people often think they have anonymity online?

a)

Because they cannot see the person with whom they are talking

b)

Because they use a secure connection

c)

Because they use a strong password

d)

Because they are using a private browser

38.

Who can trace poor online behavior?

a)

Friends and family

b)

Law enforcement, officials, and employers

c)

Internet service providers

d)

Social media companies

39.

What is a consequence of poor online behavior?

a)

It has no consequences

b)

It can only affect online interactions

c)

It has consequences just as it does in person

d)

It is always anonymous

40.

What right protects original material posted online?

a)

Trademark

b)

Patent

c)

Copyright

d)

Fair Use

41.

Which online behavior draws people into arguments and disrupts discussions?

a)

Spamming

b)

Trolling

c)

Phishing

d)

Hacking

42.

Who uses personal information to find and harm people or violate their privacy?

a)

Hackers

b)

Spammers

c)

Internet Predators

d)

Cyberbullies

43.

What is the primary purpose of first aid?

a)

To provide treatment in the first moments after an accident or injury before medical professionals arrive

b)

To replace professional medical treatment

c)

To diagnose medical conditions

d)

To perform surgery

44.

Where should first-aid kits be kept?

a)

In homes, cars, and carried for outdoor activities

b)

Only in hospitals

c)

Only in schools

d)

Only in workplaces

45.

Which of the following is NOT typically included in a first-aid kit?

a)

First-aid manual and phone numbers for emergency services

b)

Gourmet food items

c)

Gauze pads and assorted bandages

d)

Antibiotic ointment and antiseptic wipes

46.

What type of supplies are gauze pads, assorted bandages, medical tape, cotton balls, and scissors categorized under in a first-aid kit?

a)

Supplies for Treating Wounds

b)

Resources

c)

OTC Medications

d)

Supplies for Preventing Infections

47.

Which of the following is an example of OTC medication found in a first-aid kit?

a)

Ibuprofen or acetaminophen

b)

Gauze pads

c)

Antibiotic ointment

d)

Elastic wrap

48.

What is the purpose of antibiotic ointment and antiseptic wipes in a first-aid kit?

a)

To prevent infections

b)

To treat wounds

c)

To provide pain relief

d)

To diagnose illnesses

49.

What is the first step in administering first aid according to the document?

a)

Check the injured person's condition and assess the situation.

b)

Call 911 or local emergency services.

c)

Give first aid immediately.

d)

Move the person to a safe location.

50.

When should you move an injured person according to the document?

a)

Only if the person is unresponsive.

b)

Only if the injury appears to be life-threatening.

c)

Only to leave a dangerous situation.

d)

Only if you have consent from the injured person.

51.

What should you do as soon as you can after assessing the injured person's condition?

a)

Call 911 or local emergency services.

b)

Give first aid immediately.

c)

Move the person to a safe location.

d)

Ask for consent to give first aid.

52.

What should you do if you are performing first aid and someone is nearby?

a)

Ask them to call 911 or local emergency services.

b)

Ask them to move the injured person.

c)

Ask them to give first aid.

d)

Ask them to assess the situation.

53.

What should you do if possible before giving first aid?

a)

Ask the injured person or their parent/guardian for consent.

b)

Move the injured person to a safe location.

c)

Call 911 or local emergency services.

d)

Check the injured person's pulse.

54.

Which of the following statements is true about cuts and scrapes?

a)

Often do not require professional medical treatment

b)

Always require professional medical treatment

c)

Never cause bleeding

d)

Always require stitches

55.

What should you do if a cut is deep and applying pressure does not easily press the edges together?

a)

Ignore it

b)

Cover it with a small bandage

c)

Seek medical attention

d)

Apply ice

56.

What is a common characteristic of puncture wounds?

a)

They usually bleed a lot

b)

They usually bleed a small amount and close up right away

c)

They never cause infections

d)

They always require stitches

57.

What is the first step to take if medical attention is needed for a cut, scratch, or puncture wound?

a)

Cleanse wound with water.

b)

Apply pressure to stop bleeding.

c)

Remove debris and cover with a bandage.

d)

Elevate wound until you receive medical attention.

58.

Which of the following is NOT a step to take for minor injuries?

a)

Apply pressure with a sterile bandage.

b)

Flush the wound with clean water.

c)

Apply antibiotic cream or ointment.

d)

Elevate wound until you receive medical attention.

59.

What should you do after cleansing a wound with water if medical attention is needed?

a)

Apply pressure to stop bleeding.

b)

Remove debris and cover with a bandage.

c)

Apply antibiotic cream or ointment.

d)

Apply a bandage and change it daily.

60.

For minor injuries, how often should you change the bandage?

a)

Every hour.

b)

Twice a day.

c)

Daily.

d)

Weekly.

61.

Which type of animal bite always requires a doctor's attention due to the risk of infection?

a)

Snake bites

b)

Insect bites

c)

Animal bites

d)

Fish bites

62.

What do nonpoisonous snake bites often look like?

a)

Puncture wounds

b)

Scratches

c)

Swelling

d)

Rashes

63.

What is a characteristic of poisonous snake bites?

a)

They look like scratches

b)

They cause mild itching

c)

They look like puncture wounds and become very serious

d)

They cause mild swelling

64.

Insect bites can cause reactions ranging from mild itching to what severe allergic reaction?

a)

Mild swelling

b)

Severe itching

c)

Severe swelling

d)

Extremely severe allergic reactions

65.

What are common sources of burns?

a)

Fire, steam, hot surfaces, chemicals, electrical current, or the sun

b)

Water, ice, cold surfaces, chemicals, electrical current, or the moon

c)

Fire, steam, cold surfaces, chemicals, electrical current, or the moon

d)

Water, steam, hot surfaces, chemicals, electrical current, or the sun

66.

What are some complications that can arise from serious burns?

a)

Infection, shock, dehydration, pain, and immobility of the affected body part

b)

Infection, fever, dehydration, pain, and mobility of the affected body part

c)

Infection, shock, hydration, pain, and immobility of the affected body part

d)

Infection, shock, dehydration, pleasure, and immobility of the affected body part

67.

What are the degrees of burns mentioned?

a)

First-, second-, and third-degree

b)

First-, second-, and fourth-degree

c)

First-, third-, and fourth-degree

d)

Second-, third-, and fourth-degree

68.

What is a medical emergency?

a)

A) A non-urgent situation

b)

B) A routine check-up

c)

C) An urgent, life-threatening situation

d)

D) A minor injury

69.

Which of the following is NOT typically included in medical emergencies?

a)

A) Third-degree burns

b)

B) Severe bleeding

c)

C) Minor cuts

d)

D) Electrical shock

70.

What should you do in a medical emergency?

a)

A) Wait for someone else to help

b)

B) Call 911 and provide emergency first aid until assistance arrives

c)

C) Ignore the situation

d)

D) Leave the scene immediately

71.

Which of the following situations requires CPR?

a)

A) A minor headache

b)

B) Choking

c)

C) A small bruise

d)

D) A sprained ankle

72.

What should you use to apply pressure to a wound in case of severe bleeding?

a)

A. A piece of cloth

b)

B. A sterile bandage

c)

C. A plastic wrap

d)

D. A paper towel

73.

How should you position the wound in relation to the heart if possible?

a)

A. Lower than the heart

b)

B. At the same level as the heart

c)

C. Higher than the heart

d)

D. It doesn't matter

74.

What should you do to keep the injured person calm while waiting for medical professionals?

a)

A. Leave them alone

b)

B. Cover the wound and keep applying pressure

c)

C. Give them water

d)

D. Move them around

75.

How should you treat an injured person for shock?

a)

A. Give them food

b)

B. Lay them down, elevate their legs, and turn their head to the side

c)

C. Make them sit up

d)

D. Keep them standing

76.

What is the main purpose of Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR)?

a)

To treat minor injuries

b)

To restore breathing and heartbeat

c)

To diagnose medical conditions

d)

To provide long-term care

77.

Which of the following is recommended for untrained rescuers?

a)

Full CPR

b)

Hands-Only™ CPR

c)

Rescue breathing only

d)

No CPR at all

78.

What does CPR stand for?

a)

Cardiovascular Pulmonary Resuscitation

b)

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

c)

Cardiorespiratory Procedure

d)

Cardiopulmonary Recovery

79.

What does CPR involve?

a)

Chest compressions and sometimes rescue breathing

b)

Only rescue breathing

c)

Only chest compressions

d)

Administering medication

80.

What is the first step you should take when performing Hands-Only™ CPR?

a)

Call or have someone else call 911 immediately.

b)

Position your hands over the center of the person’s chest.

c)

Push down at a rate of 100 compressions per minute.

d)

Do not slow down or stop until emergency services arrive.

81.

Where should you position your hands when performing Hands-Only™ CPR?

a)

Over the person's stomach.

b)

Over the person's chest.

c)

Over the person's head.

d)

Over the person's back.

82.

At what rate should you push down when performing Hands-Only™ CPR?

a)

50 compressions per minute.

b)

75 compressions per minute.

c)

100 compressions per minute.

d)

150 compressions per minute.

83.

How deep should you compress the chest when performing Hands-Only™ CPR?

a)

At least 1 inch.

b)

At least 2 inches.

c)

At least 3 inches.

d)

At least 4 inches.

84.

When should you stop performing Hands-Only™ CPR?

a)

When you become tired.

b)

When emergency services arrive.

c)

After 5 minutes.

d)

When the person starts breathing.