wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Private Pilot Training - Module 2

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When flying along a road, the wind from the right:

a)

Will not affect the airplane's ground track.

b)

Will cause the airplane to drift to the left of the road.

c)

Will cause the airplane to drift to the right of the road.

2.

In order to fly parallel next to a straight road with a crosswind coming from the side, you must:

a)

Do nothing since the wind will not adversely affect your track across the ground.

b)

Point the nose of the aircraft away from the direction of the wind.

c)

Point the aircraft into the wind to offset its effect.

3.

A line drawn from one point to another on a chart is called:

a)

The course.

b)

The track.

c)

The heading.

4.

The three types of ground reference maneuvers are:

a)

S turns, chandelles, and slow flight.

b)

Rectangular course, S-turns across a road, and turns around a point.

c)

Rectangular courses, straight-and-level flight, and chandelles.

5.

Ground reference maneuvers are flown:

a)

At lower altitudes - between 600 and 1,000 feet above the ground.

b)

At a minimum of 2,500 feet MSL.

c)

No lower than 1,000 feet above the ground.

6.

An airplane flying in an uncontested area with persons, vessels, vehicles or structures nearby on the ground may not fly lower than:

a)

500 feet above them.

b)

1,000 feet above them.

c)

There is no altitude restriction in this situation.

7.

How far must you remain from large stadiums that are actively hosting a sporting event?

a)

At least 5,000 feet above within a 1 mile radius from the stadium.

b)

3,000 feet above the ground within a 3 miles radius from the stadium.

c)

At least 2,500 feet above the stadium within a 5 miles radius.

8.

The rectangular course ground reference maneuver is very similar to what normal aviation procedure?

a)

An engine out emergency landing scenario.

b)

An airport traffic pattern.

c)

An emergency landing situation.

9.

The preferred entry into the rectangular course maneuver is:

a)

A 45 degree entry to the downwind leg.

b)

A straight in entry.

c)

A 90 degree entry to the upwind leg.

10.

When flying the crosswind leg of a rectangular course the airplane must be:

a)

Crabbed away from the wind.

b)

Flown parallel to the ground reference.

c)

Crabbed into the wind.

11.

In an internal combustion engine, the ratio of air to fuel is correct in the full rich position only at:

a)

10,000 feet MSL.

b)

Sea level.

c)

5,000 feet MSL.

12.

As an airplane climbs, the fuel air mixture becomes:

a)

Remains the same.

b)

Richer.

c)

Leaner.

13.

A mixture that is set too rich:

a)

Will create spark plug fouling.

b)

Will limit fuel flow to the engine.

c)

Will cause the engine to overheat.

14.

For best economy, lean the mixture to peak EGT and:

a)

Leave it set at peak EGT.

b)

Increase the peak EGT by 50 degrees.

c)

Reduce the peak EGT by 50 degrees.

15.

The mixture must be reset whenever you change:

a)

Once set at the cruise altitude, there is no further need to change the mixture.

b)

Altitude or power.

c)

Direction.

16.

How do you set the mixture if your airplane has no EGT?

a)

Lean till the engine temperature increases by 50 degrees.

b)

If your engine has no EGT there is no need to lean.

c)

Lean till the engine runs roughly and then enrich until the engine runs smoothly again.

17.

Detonation occurs when:

a)

There is an explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder's combustion chamber.

b)

The temperature of the fuel/air mixture is too cool and no ignition of fuel occurs.

c)

When the fuel/air mixture ignites prior to the engine's normal ignition point.

18.

Preignition occurs when:

a)

The fuel/air mixture ignites prior to the engine's normal ignition point.

b)

There is an explosive ignition of the fuel/air mixture within the cylinder's combustion chamber.

c)

The temperature of the fuel/air mixture is too cool causing the fuel to ignite before the spark plugs are set to fire.

19.

The most reliable indicator of preignition is:

a)

Loss of power.

b)

A decrease in engine temperature.

c)

An increase in RPMs.

20.

What is induce drag?

a)

The drag caused by the lifting upward force of the elevator.

b)

The drag caused by the fuselage and other protrusions disrupting the flow of air.

c)

The rearward retarding force caused by the wings creating lift.

21.

What is parasite drag?

a)

The rearward retarding force caused by the wings creating lift.

b)

The drag caused by the fuselage and other protrusions disrupting the flow of air.

c)

The drag caused by the lifting upward force of the elevator.

22.

What is meant by angle of attack?

a)

How quickly the airplane is climbing.

b)

The angle between the chord line and the relative wind.

c)

Any increase in pitch attitude of the airplane.

23.

What is the critical angle of attack?

a)

The point at which the wing will stall.

b)

The pitch angle that will create the best climb performance.

c)

The angle of attack that will achieve the greatest climb speed at a given altitude.

24.

Wingtip vortices are the result of:

a)

Relative wind.

b)

Lift.

c)

Aircraft weight.

25.

As the airplane slows down in flight, the angle of attack must be:

a)

Increased to maintain altitude.

b)

Decreased to prevent a stall.

c)

Decreased to maintain altitude.

26.

How does an airplane's wing design prevent a completely stalled condition?

a)

It has high-speed airfoil design at the wing tip.

b)

The smoothness of its surface helps prevent a stall.

c)

The wing is twisted from root to tip allowing the tip to have a lower angle of attack.

27.

What factors cause the airplane to turn to the left in a nose high attitude?

a)

Both of the other two answers are correct.

b)

Engine torque and spiraling slipstream.

c)

Gyroscopic precession and asymmetrical propeller loading.

28.

In order to maintain altitude at a slower airspeed, the angle of attack must:

a)

Be increased.

b)

Be decreased.

c)

Remain the same.

29.

Parasite drag increases when airspeed is:

a)

Increased.

b)

Parasite drag always remains constant.

c)

Decreased.

30.

The use of flaps in slow flight:

a)

Should never be used in slow flight.

b)

Can only be deployed up to ten degrees.

c)

May be used to demonstrate their slow speed handling characteristics.

31.

Slow flight is taught in order to familiarize you with:

a)

Landing on a grass field.

b)

Low speed engine management.

c)

The feel and sounds of an approaching stall.

32.

In a turn at slow flight speed, you must:

a)

No power change is necessary to maintain altitude.

b)

Decrease power to maintain altitude.

c)

Add power to maintain altitude.

33.

Induced drag increases when airspeed is:

a)

Decreased.

b)

Increased.

c)

Increased by a factor of two.

34.

Extending the flaps:

a)

Allows for more stable control in a slow flight condition.

b)

Lowers the stalling speed.

c)

Increases the stalling speed.

35.

When practicing full stalls:

a)

Allow the stall to progress until you have full up elevator and nose down pitching.

b)

Recover immediately before you have full up elevator pressure.

c)

Complete the stall by initiating a moderate drive.

36.

The load factor on an airplane increases with:

a)

Any moderate change in pitch attitude, increase in weight, and steep turns.

b)

Increase in weight, an increase in power, and any moderate pitch change.

c)

Flying steep turns and making abrupt changes in airplane attitude.

37.

Stall recovery is made:

a)

By lowering the nose and retarding the throttle to idle.

b)

By maintaining the nose attitude and adding full power.

c)

By lowering the nose and simultaneously adding full power.

38.

The objective for doing stalls is:

a)

Both of the other two answers are correct.

b)

To learn how to avoid them.

c)

To learn how to recover to normal flight.

39.

To recover from a power-on stall:

a)

Add full power and lower the pitch attitude.

b)

Add full power and climb.

c)

Lower the pitch attitude to slightly below level flight.

40.

To prevent the airplane from rolling in the stall:

a)

Slowly add right rudder until the pedal hits the floor.

b)

Add sufficient aileron pressure opposite the turn.

c)

Keep the ball centered throughout the maneuver.

41.

Stalls are primarily caused by:

a)

Change in the wind direction and speed.

b)

Rough handling of the controls.

c)

An excessive angle of attack.

42.

The factors that affect the angle of attack are:

a)

Airspeed, weight, and load factor.

b)

Load factor, thrust, and pitch attitude.

c)

Thrust, drag, and weight.

43.

A turning power-off stall should be made at:

a)

20 degrees of bank.

b)

30 degrees of bank.

c)

45 degrees of bank.

44.

In performing a power-on stall:

a)

Slow to rotation speed, and takeoff power, and raise the nose to an attitude above what's required for a normal climb.

b)

Lower the nose, increase the speed, and then begin a normal climb.

c)

Slow to rotation speed, maintain present power setting, and raise nose to begin climb.

45.

Power-off stalls are also called:

a)

Departure stalls.

b)

High power stalls.

c)

Approach to landing stalls.

46.

An imminent stall:

a)

Recovery is held off until the aircraft is in a complete stall.

b)

You immediately put the airplane in a spin configuration.

c)

Recovery is initiated at the first sign of the stall.

47.

What is the minimum recovery altitude when practicing stalls?

a)

800 feet above the ground.

b)

1,500 feet above the ground.

c)

5,000 feet AGL.

48.

On final approach, one of the fixed valued you should maintain is:

a)

The approach speed.

b)

Your crab angle.

c)

Your desired flap setting.

49.

Just before touchdown, the airplane:

a)

Must be crabbed into the wind.

b)

Must accelerate in order to land without stalling.

c)

Is stalled about one foot above the runway.

50.

The turn from downwind to base leg:

a)

Should occur when the intended touchdown point is even with the tip of your wing.

b)

Should occur when you are approximately one mile from the intended touchdown point.

c)

Should occur when the intended touchdown point is approximately 45 degrees behind the wing.

51.

During landing you should always try to touch down:

a)

First on the nose wheel then on the main gear.

b)

In a nose high attitude.

c)

On all three wheels at once.

52.

During the approach, align the aiming point on the runway to a place on the windshield. If the windshield mark stays on the aiming point:

a)

You are above the glidepath.

b)

You are below the glidepath.

c)

You are on the glidepath.

53.

The recommended entry into the airport traffic pattern is:

a)

A straight-in entry to the crosswind leg.

b)

A 45 degree angle into the downwind leg.

c)

A straight-in entry to the downwind leg.

54.

The pre-landing checklist items include:

a)

Fuel selector on both, controls moving freely, and mixture lean.

b)

Seats and seat belts secured, fuel selector on both, and mixture full rich.

c)

Seats adjusted and secure, controls moving freely, and transponder on.

55.

When flying the airport pattern legs, it's a good practice:

a)

To remain about two miles parallel to each leg.

b)

To fly close enough to the runway to be able to land if you lose engine power.

c)

To fly at cruise airspeed.

56.

Whenever possible, always enter the traffic pattern:

a)

Slightly below pattern altitude to better see other airplanes.

b)

At pattern altitude.

c)

In a descending entry into the pattern.

57.

At touchdown, the sideslip is held:

a)

Throughout the landing procedure.

b)

Until the upwind gear touches the runway.

c)

Until the airplane is approximately one foot above the runway.

58.

With a left quartering crosswind, you takeoff with:

a)

A normal takeoff speed.

b)

A lower than normal takeoff speed.

c)

A higher than normal takeoff speed.

59.

In a go-around situation:

a)

Retract the flaps a little at a time.

b)

Quickly retract all the flaps at one time.

c)

Leave the flaps in their original position.

60.

The purpose of the forward slip is to:

a)

To counteract a crosswind.

b)

Create a high rate of descent.

c)

Hold the airplane on the centerline of the runway.

61.

If you land without the use of flaps, the approach will be:

a)

Slower and shallower.

b)

Slower and steeper.

c)

Faster and shallower.

62.

After takeoff and established in a climb, when the airplane is well above the runway:

a)

Keep the airplane in a sideslip.

b)

Neutralize the controls for a normal takeoff.

c)

Allow the airplane to crab into the wind.

63.

With experience in crosswind landing conditions, in order to compensate for drift:

a)

Use only the sideslip method to land.

b)

Use only the crab method to land.

c)

Use both a crab and then a sideslip to compensate for drift.

64.

The key to setting up a landing on final approach is:

a)

Your ability to properly judge the turn from base leg to final.

b)

To properly initiate either the crab or slip on final.

c)

Using the proper degree of flaps on base leg.

65.

Which crosswind landing technique is best for landing without causing a side load on the gear?

a)

The sideslip.

b)

Neither method is appropriate for landing in a crosswind.

c)

The crab.

66.

Whenever you are in doubt about a landing:

a)

Go-around for another try.

b)

Add full power to lower the nose.

c)

Retard the throttle and use a forward slip to quickly lose altitude.

67.

An aircraft always, when possible, takes off:

a)

Into the wind.

b)

With the wind.

c)

With full flaps.

68.

With a left quartering crosswind, you takeoff with:

a)

The left aileron up-control wheel positioned fully to the left.

b)

The left aileron up-control wheel positioned fully to the right.

c)

The right aileron up-control wheel positioned fully to the right.

69.

Immediately after liftoff in a crosswind:

a)

Neutralize the controls or a normal takeoff.

b)

Keep the airplane in a sideslip.

c)

Allow the airplane to crab into the wind.

70.

Many airports in the U.S. have automated weather information available, depending on their complexity, the facility may be classified as either:

a)

An ASOS, AWOS or UNICOM system.

b)

An ASOS or AMOS system.

c)

An ASOS, AWOS or the newer AWSS system.

71.

When landing at a pilot-controlled airport, it's a good idea to announce your position:

a)

When approaching the airport and on each leg of the pattern.

b)

Final only.

c)

Downwind only.

72.

If an airport has both UNICOM and CTAF frequencies and you want information regrading the airport FBO services:

a)

Call the local ATC center.

b)

Call on the airport's CTAF frequency.

c)

Call on the UNICOM frequency.

73.

CTAF is an acronym for Common Traffic Advisory Frequency.

a)

It allows pilots to communicate their intentions in the environment of a pilot-controlled airport.

b)

It is used for communication with FSS.

c)

It allows pilots to communicate with an air traffic control tower.

74.

Select the best statement regarding communications and position reporting at non-towered airports:

a)

Radio position reports are mandatory when entering each leg of the pattern.

b)

Radio position reports are only necessary when there are other aircraft in the pattern.

c)

Radio position reports are not mandatory, but are encouraged for a safer environment in and near the traffic pattern.

75.

When does wake turbulence become and remain a hazard?

a)

When an airplane rotates for takeoff, and remains a hazard until the airplane lands.

b)

During taxi, and remains a hazard until the airplane rotates.

c)

Just after engine start, and remains a hazard until takeoff power is applied.

76.

While flying under visual condition, to avoid wake turbulence in flight, you should:

a)

Avoid flying behind and below a large aircraft, and if possible, adjust position laterally, towards the downwind.

b)

Avoid flying behind and below a large aircraft, and if possible, adjust position laterally, towards the upwind.

c)

Fly behind and below the large aircraft, and adjust position to stay downwind of the large aircraft path.

77.

You are landing on a runway behind where another large airplane is departing. You should:

a)

Stay in ground effect until you can touch down beyond the point the aircraft rotated.

b)

Watch where it rotates, and land before that point.

c)

Watch where it rotates, and land beyond that point.

78.

You are landing on a crossing runway behind a large departing airplane. You should be aware that:

a)

If the large aircraft rotates before the runway intersection, you will be safe from vortices as long as the departing aircraft climbs at a steep rate.

b)

If the large aircraft routes after the runway intersection, you still may be affected by low lying vortices.

c)

If the large aircraft rotates before the runway intersection, vortices will have been generated and flight under the large airplane's path should be avoided.

79.

When is wake turbulence the strongest?

a)

Behind large, slow airplanes during take off or landing.

b)

Behind slow, fast airplanes during take off or landing.

c)

Behind large, fast airplanes during take off or landing.

80.

You are landing on the same runway behind a large airplane.

a)

Stay below the large airplane's flight path and note where it touches down. Land at that same point.

b)

Stay above the large airplane's flight path and note where it touches down. Land beyond that point.

c)

Stay above the large airplane's flight path and note where it touches down. Land before that point.

81.

Wake turbulence strength is determined by:

a)

Fuselage shape, speed, and weight of the airplane.

b)

Wing shape, speed, and weight of the airplane.

c)

Strictly the speed and angle of attack.

82.

If taking off or landing behind a large aircraft, a safe way to avoid wake turbulence is:

a)

Follow in the path of the large airplane, as wake turbulence tends to sink.

b)

Asking the controller to allow at least three minute prior to departing or landing behind a large airplane.

c)

There is no safe way to avoid wake turbulence, other than not flying near large aircraft.

83.

Wake turbulence vortices tend to:

a)

Descend about 400-500 feet per minute, and level off about 900 feet below the flight path of the generating airplane.

b)

Climb about 400-500 feet per minute, and level off about 900 feet above the flight path of the generating airplane.

c)

Stay level behind the generating airplane.

84.

You are following behind a large airplane to land on the same runway. You should:

a)

Stay below the airplane's flight path, and touch down after where the large aircraft landed.

b)

Stay above the airplane's flight path, and touch down beyond where the large aircraft landed.

c)

Stay below the airplane's flight path, and touch down before where the large aircraft landed.