wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Summer Biology Unit Review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In what part of the Cell Cycle does the cell grow and replicate DNA?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

c)

Meiosis

d)

Cytokinesis

2.

What is the order of the three phases in interphase?

a)

G1, G2, S

b)

S, G1, G2

c)

G1, S, G2

d)

G1, G2, G3

3.

What would happen if you are injured and the cell cycle is stopped in your body?

a)

You would form cancer

b)

The injury wouldn't heal

c)

You would mutate

d)

The injury would get worse

4.

How many daughter cells are formed during mitosis?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

5.

Do the daughter cells formed from mitosis have DNA identical to the parent cells or different to the parent cells?

a)

Identical

b)

Different

c)

Identical but different

6.

In which phase of the cell cycle does a cell spend the longest time?

a)

Interphase

b)

Mitosis

7.

How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have in a cell?

a)

92

b)

46

c)

23

d)

12

8.

How many daughter cells is made at the end of Meiosis?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

9.

What is happening during crossing over in Meiosis?

a)

chromatids are replicating

b)

chromatids are exchanging genetic information

c)

chromatids are changing color

d)

chromatids are being deleted

10.
What is the purpose of the cell cycle?
a)
To create new daughter cells
b)
To prevent cancer from developing
c)
To help the body fight viruses and bacteria
11.

Uncontrolled cell division which usually leads to tumors and disease is called:

a)

Metaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Cancer

d)

Diabetes

12.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
13.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
14.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
15.
RNA contains the sugar
a)
ribose
b)
deoxyribose
c)
glucose
d)
lactose
16.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
17.

DNA is responsible for

a)

Creating ribosomes

b)

Storing genetic information

c)

Relaying genetic information to other parts of the cell

d)

Building proteins

18.

Complete the code for the following RNA sequence:

AUG GCG UCA

a)

URC CGC RGU

b)

CAC CGC AUA

c)

TAC CGC AGT

d)

UAC CGC AGU

19.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

20.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

21.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

22.

mRNA occurs during this process

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Replication

d)

Delivery

23.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

24.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
25.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
26.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

27.

How many nucleotides code for 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

28.
How do fossils provide evidence that evolution has happened on Earth?
a)
Fossils show how the sizes of certain animals has changed drastically over millions of years
b)
Fossils show that some species have gone extinct
c)
Fossils show how life forms present today are different than those from the past
d)
Different sedimentary rock layers provide evidence for how the environment has changed over time
29.

What is this an example of?

a)

Homologous structure

b)

Analogous structure

c)

Vestigial organs

d)

Functional adaption

30.

The picture shows a/an ___________

a)

homologous structure

b)

vestigial structure

31.
The process by which populations slowly change over time is called__________
a)
selective breeding
b)
adaptation
c)
sepeciation
d)
evolution
32.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
33.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
34.
Whales are aquatic mammals that contain a pelvis bone.  Even though it does not aid in its movement, the function must have been used by a common ancestor of the whale.  Thus, the pelvis is referred to as a(n)
a)
vestigial structure
b)
analogous structure
c)
homologous structure
35.
All the animals to the right of the hagfish would have the common characteristic of -
a)
Fur
b)
Claws or nails
c)
Lungs
d)
Jaws
36.
According to this cladogram, birds are LEAST related to -
a)
Amphibians
b)
Sharks
c)
Ray Finned Fish
d)
Crocodiles
37.

Father of Evolution, wrote Origin of Species and studied organisms from Galapagos to support his proposal that natural selection occurs

a)

natural selection

b)

evolution

c)

homologous structures

d)

Darwin

38.

Survival of the fittest. The organism best able to survive passes on its genes in the gene pool

a)

natural selection

b)

adaptation

c)

fossil

d)

morphology

39.

Similarities in fossils, embryology, anatomy, or biochemistry all indicate

a)

No evolutionary ties

b)

Common ancestors

c)

Siblings

d)

Parents

40.
a)

gene flow

b)

natural selection

c)

bottleneck effect

d)

founder effect

41.

During a hurricane, a population of beetles almost gets completely wiped out. The only beetles that survived were lucky that they were in their nest at the time of the hurricane and had enough food to survive.

a)

Natural selection

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Non-Random Mating

42.

This term refers to the total genetic information found in a population; the complete collection of all the alleles found in a population

a)

Gene library

b)

Genome

c)

Gene pool

d)

Allele pool

43.
Variations in a population are caused by:
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Artificial Selection
d)
Random Mutations
44.

Which best describes punctuated equilibrium?

a)

Speciation occurs due to natural selection

b)

Speciation occurs due to isolation

c)

Speciation occurs slowly in geologic time, followed by long periods with very fast evolutionary change.

d)

Speciation occurs suddenly and rapidly in geologic time, followed by long periods with little evolutionary change.

45.

The large-scale events of speciation are called...

a)

macroevolution

b)

simplification

c)

adaptation

d)

microevolution

46.

During microevolution, a(n) __________________ will become more or less common within a population.

a)

species

b)

allele

c)

ribosome

d)

fossil

47.

Which of the following is required for a population to diverge into two separate species?

a)

The two populations must have evolved different physical appearances.

b)

The two populations must have mutated at least 10 times.

c)

The two populations must have become reproductively isolated.

d)

The two populations must have evolved analogous structures.

48.
The hypothesis that evolution of a species occurs gradually over time as a slow and constant process is known as
a)
speciation
b)
punctuated equilibrium
c)
gradualism
d)
microevolution
49.
Which is necessary for speciation to occur?
a)
adaptation
b)
mass extinction
c)
isolation
d)
acquired traits
50.
The evolution of a new species from an existing species is ____.
a)
natural selection
b)
isolation
c)
speciation
d)
genetic variation
51.

Speciation can occur as a result of geographic isolation because _________.

a)

members of a species can no longer find mates

b)

populations that live in different environments may be exposed to different selection pressures

c)

exchange of genes during recombination

d)

movement of genes within a population because of interbreeding

52.
Which of the following is a factor in natural selection?
a)
Individuals of species compete with one another to survive.
b)
All species are genetically diverse.
c)
Individuals better able to adapt to changes leave more offspring.
d)
All are correct 
53.

Which of these is a condition that must be met for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

extremely small population size

b)

no natural selection

c)

gene flow

d)

nonrandom mating

54.

According to this image, which two domains of life are most related?

a)

Bacteria & Archaea

b)

Archaea & Eukarya

c)

Eukarya & Bacteria

55.

Who is the closest relative to the brown bear?

a)

Giant panda

b)

Dog

c)

Lesser panda

d)

Sun bear

56.

After observing dihybrid crosses, Mendel concluded that the presence of one trait didn't affect the presence of another. This is called

a)

The Law of Inheritance

b)

The Law of Segregation

c)

The Law of Natural Descent

d)

The Law of Independent Assortment

57.

A __________ is the visible trait or physical appearance.

a)

Genotype

b)

Dominant

c)

Co-dominance

d)

Phenotype

58.

When the genotype has 2 identical alleles it is known as...

a)

Heterozygous

b)

Co-dominance

c)

Homozygous

d)

Recessive

59.

A ___________ is the genetic makeup or allele combination.

a)

Phenotype

b)

Gene

c)

Genotype

d)

Homozygous

60.

A heterozygous organism shows a mixture of both true-breed traits in this type of inheritance pattern:

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

co-dominance

c)

complete dominance

d)

recessive pattern

61.

A heterozygous organism shows a combination of both true-breed traits in this type of inheritance pattern:

a)

complete dominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

co-dominance

d)

Indomitable

62.

Two or more genes control a trait in this type of inheritance pattern:

a)

Multiple Alleles

b)

Several Genes

c)

Polygenetic Traits

d)

Genotype

63.

Two or more versions of a gene control a trait in this type of inheritance pattern:

a)

Polygenic

b)

Multiple Genes

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polysaccharide

64.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
65.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
66.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
67.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
68.

If a heterozygous parent and a homozygous recessive parent mate, what percentage of their offspring will be dominant?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

69.
A homozygous dominant brown mouse is crossed with a heterozygous brown mouse (tan is the recessive color). 
a)
100 % tan
b)
100 % brown 
c)
50 % brown and 50% tan 
d)
75 % brown and 25 % tan 
70.
What is the phenotype of the offspring? (A-Brown hair; a-blond hair) 
a)
50 % Brown Hair and 50% Blond Hair 
b)
25 % Brown Hair and 75% Blond Hair 
c)
75 % Brown Hair and 25% Blond Hair 
d)
0% Brown Hair and 100% Blond Hair 
71.

individuals with alleles for an extreme type are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

72.

the selection pressure favors the extreme phenotypes, dividing the population into 2 distinct groups

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

73.

Individuals with intermediate traits are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

directional selection

c)

disruptive selection

74.

Tall kelp have a distinct advantage over shorter kelp in receiving needed sunlight in their ocean environment

a)

directional selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

stabilizing selection

75.

Aspen trees that are over 25 m tend to blow over in high winds; aspen that are under 15 m don't get enough sun

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

76.

On average, human newborns weigh 7.2 pounds.

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

77.

Fish that produce 40,000+ eggs have greater fitness than fish that produce less than this number

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

78.

Robins typically lay fours eggs. If more then four eggs are produced then the baby chicks are malnourished while smaller egg numbers result in no viable (able to live) baby chicks. This is an example of

a)

stabalizing

b)

disruptive

c)

direction

79.
If finches with large beaks and finches with small beaks increase in a population while finches with average sized beaks decreases, which pattern of natural selection has occurred?
a)
Directional selection
b)
Disruptive selection 
c)
Stabilizing selection
80.

In Canada, the people have overfished the salmon in a particular river. They catch the larger salmon and throw the smaller salmon back into the river. Over time, what type of selection is likely to take place?

a)

directional selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

stabilizing selection