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WorksheetsModules 9 - 12
Total questions: 68
Worksheet time: 34mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?
a)
The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.
b)
The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
c)
The computer has an invalid default gateway address.
d)
The computer has an invalid IP address.
2.
A network administrator configures a router with the command sequence:
R1(config)# boot system tftp://c1900-universalk9-mz.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
R1(config)# boot system rom
What is the effect of the command sequence?
a)
On next reboot, the router will load the IOS image from ROM.
b)
The router will copy the IOS image from the TFTP server and then reboot the system.
c)
The router will load IOS from the TFTP server. If the image fails to load, it will load the IOS image from ROM.
d)
The router will search and load a valid IOS image in the sequence of flash, TFTP, and ROM.
3.
A network administrator is deploying QoS with the ability to provide a special queue for voice traffic so that voice traffic is forwarded before network traffic in other queues. Which queuing method would be the best choice?
a)
CBWFQ
b)
FIFO
c)
LLQ
d)
WFQ
4.
A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?
a)
A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
b)
The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.
c)
This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
d)
This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.
5.
A network engineer performs a ping test and receives a value that shows the time it takes for a packet to travel from a source to a destination device and return. Which term describes the value?
a)
bandwidth
b)
jitter
c)
latency
d)
priority
6.
A network manager wants lists the contents of flash. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?
a)
dir
b)
lldp enable
c)
service timestamps log datetime
d)
show file systems
7.
A network manager wants to add a time to log messages so that there is record of when the message was generated. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?
a)
show cdp interface
b)
service timestamps log datetime
c)
clock timezone PST -7
d)
ntp server 10.10.14.9
8.
A network manager wants to backup the running configuration to a file server. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?
a)
cd usbflash0:
b)
copy running-config tftp
c)
dir
d)
show file systems
9.
A network manager wants to configure the router to load a new image from flash during bootup. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?
a)
boot system
b)
clock set 14:25:00 nov 13 2018
c)
copy flash: tftp:
d)
copy tftp startup-config
10.
A network manager wants to determine the size of the Cisco IOS image file on the networking device. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?
a)
config-register 0x2102
b)
confreg 0x2142
c)
copy flash: tftp:
d)
show flash:0
11.
A network manager wants to ensure that the device will ignore the startup config file during startup and bypass the required passwords. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?
a)
config-register 0x2102
b)
confreg 0x2142
c)
copy running-config tftp
d)
copy usbflash0:/R1-Config
12.
A network manager wants to view the amount of available and free memory, the type of file system, and its permissions. What command should the administrator use on a Cisco router?
a)
clock timezone PST -7
b)
lldp enable
c)
ntp server 10.10.14.9
d)
show file systems
13.
A user is unable to reach the website when typing http://www.cisco.com in a web browser, but can reach the same site by typing http://72.163.4.161. What is the issue?
a)
Default Gateway
b)
DHCP
c)
DNS
d)
TCP/IP Protocol stack
14.
An administrator wants to replace the configuration file on a Cisco router by loading a new configuration file from a TFTP server. What two things does the administrator need to know before performing this task? (Choose two.)
a)
configuration register value
b)
name of the configuration file that is currently stored on the router
c)
name of the configuration file that is stored on the TFTP server
d)
router IP address
e)
TFTP server IP address
15.
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
a)
grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
b)
grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
c)
providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
d)
providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
16.
In which step of gathering symptoms does the network engineer determine if the problem is at the core, distribution, or access layer of the network?
a)
Determine ownership.
b)
Determine the symptoms.
c)
Document the symptoms.
d)
Gather information.
e)
Narrow the scope.
17.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. PC1 is unable to connect to PC2. What should the administrator do first when troubleshooting the OSPFv2 implementation?
a)
Disconnect the serial link between router R1 and R2.
b)
Implement the network 192.168.255.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 command on router R1.
c)
Test Layer 3 connectivity between the directly connected routers.
d)
Turn off OSPFv2.
18.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show lldp neighbors command on a switch. What are two conclusions that can be drawn? (Choose two.)
a)
Dev1 is a switch with mixed types of interfaces.
b)
Dev1 is connected to interface Fa0/4 of Dev2.
c)
Dev1 is connected to interface Fa0/5 of S1.
d)
Dev2 is a switch.
e)
S1 has only two interfaces.
19.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configured an ACL preventing Telnet and HTTP access to the HQ web server from guest users in the Branch LAN. The address of the web server is 192.168.1.10 and all guest users are assigned addresses in the 192.168.10.0/24 network. After implementing the ACL, no one can access any of the HQ servers. What is the problem?
a)
Inbound ACLs must be routed before they are processed.
b)
Named ACLs require the use of port numbers.
c)
The ACL is applied to the interface using the wrong direction.
d)
The ACL is implicitly denying access to all the servers.
20.
Refer to the exhibit. A user has configured a NIC on the PC as shown but finds that the PC is unable to access the Internet. What is the problem?
a)
The default gateway address is incorrect.
b)
The preferred DNS address is incorrect.
c)
The settings were not validated upon exit.
d)
There should not be an alternate DNS server.
21.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R3 are connected to each other via the local serial 0/0/0 interface. Why are they not forming an adjacency?
a)
The connecting interfaces are configured as passive.
b)
They are in different subnets.
c)
They have different router IDs.
d)
They have different routing processes.
22.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:
R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?
When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?
a)
192.168.9.254
b)
192.168.10.1
c)
192.168.10.2
d)
192.168.11.252
e)
192.168.11.254
23.
Refer to the exhibit. What two types of devices are connected to R1? (Choose two.)
a)
hub
b)
repeater
c)
router
d)
Source Route Bridge
e)
switch
24.
Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?
a)
AP_2 and AP_1
b)
PC_3 and AP_2
c)
PC_3 and PC_2
d)
S1 and S4
e)
S4 and PC_2
25.
Refer to the exhibit. Which of the three Cisco IOS images shown will load into RAM?
a)
The router selects an image depending on the boot system command in the configuration.
b)
The router selects an image depending on the value of the configuration register.
c)
The router selects the second Cisco IOS image because it is the smallest IOS image.
d)
The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it contains the advipservicesk9 image.
e)
The router selects the third Cisco IOS image because it is the most recent IOS image.
26.
Refer to the exhibit. Why are routers R1 and R2 not able to establish an OSPF adjacency?
a)
The serial interfaces are not in the same area.
b)
A backbone router cannot establish an adjacency with an ABR router.
c)
The process numbers are not the same in both routers.
d)
The router ID values are not the same in both routers.
27.
The command ntp server 10.1.1.1 is issued on a router. What impact does this command have?
a)
determines which server to send system log files to
b)
ensures that all logging will have a time stamp associated with it
c)
identifies the server on which to store backup configurations
d)
synchronizes the system clock with the time source with IP address 10.1.1.1
28.
Voice packets are being received in a continuous stream by an IP phone, but because of network congestion the delay between each packet varies and is causing broken conversations. What term describes the cause of this condition?
a)
buffering
b)
jitter
c)
latency
d)
queuing
29.
What are the three layers of the switch hierarchical design model? (Choose three.)
a)
access
b)
core
c)
data link
d)
distribution
e)
enterprise
30.
What are three functions provided by the syslog service? (Choose three.)
a)
to gather logging information for monitoring and troubleshooting
b)
to periodically poll agents for data
c)
to provide statistics on packets that are flowing through a Cisco device
d)
to select the type of logging information that is captured
e)
to specify the destinations of captured messages
31.
What are two approaches to prevent packet loss due to congestion on an interface? (Choose two.)
a)
Decrease buffer space.
b)
Disable queuing mechanisms.
c)
Drop lower-priority packets.
d)
Increase link capacity.
e)
Prevent bursts of traffic.
32.
What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)
a)
decreased number of critical points of failure
b)
increased bandwidth availability
c)
increased flexibility
d)
increased network management options
e)
reduced costs
33.
What are two characteristics of the best-effort QoS model? (Choose two.)
a)
It allows end hosts to signal their QoS needs to the network.
b)
It does not provide a delivery guarantee for packets.
c)
It provides preferential treatment for voice packets.
d)
It treats all network packets in the same way.
e)
It uses a connection-oriented approach with QoS.
34.
What are two characteristics of voice traffic? (Choose two.)
a)
It can tolerate latency up to 400 ms.
b)
It consumes few network resources.
c)
It is bursty.
d)
It is delay sensitive.
e)
It is insensitive to packet loss.
35.
What are two characteristics of voice traffic? (Choose two.)
a)
Dropped voice packets are not retransmitted.
b)
Voice traffic consumes lots of network resources.
c)
Voice traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.
d)
Voice traffic latency should not exceed 150 ms.
e)
Voice traffic requires at least 384 kbs of bandwidth.
36.
What are two reasons to create a network baseline? (Choose two.)
a)
to design a network according to a proper model
b)
to determine if the network can deliver the required policies
c)
to determine what kind of equipment to implement
d)
to evaluate security vulnerabilities in the network
e)
to identify future abnormal network behavior
37.
What configuration scenario would offer the most protection to SNMP get and set messages?
a)
SNMP community strings
b)
SNMPv1 with out-of-band management in a private subnet
c)
SNMPv2 for in-band management with read-write community strings
d)
SNMPv3 configured with the auth security level
38.
What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?
a)
aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains
b)
aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries
c)
provides access to the user
d)
provides fault isolation
39.
What is a definition of a two-tier LAN network design?
a)
access and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the distribution layer on a separate tier
b)
access and distribution layers collapsed into one tier, and the core layer on a separate tier
c)
access, distribution, and core layers collapsed into one tier, with a separate backbone layer
d)
distribution and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the access layer on a separate tier
40.
What is the benefit of deploying Layer 3 QoS marking across an enterprise network?
a)
Layer 3 marking can be carried in the 802.1Q fields.
b)
Layer 3 marking can be used to carry non-IP traffic.
c)
Layer 3 marking can carry QoS information on switches that are not IP aware.
d)
Layer 3 marking can carry the QoS information end-to-end.
41.
What is the function of a QoS trust boundary?
a)
A trust boundary identifies the location where traffic cannot be remarked.
b)
A trust boundary identifies which devices trust the marking on packets that enter a network.
c)
A trust boundary only allows traffic from trusted endpoints to enter the network.
d)
A trust boundary only allows traffic to enter if it has previously been marked.
42.
What is the function of the MIB element as part of a network management system?
a)
to change configurations on SNMP agents
b)
to collect data from SNMP agents
c)
to send and retrieve network management information
d)
to store data about a device
43.
What is the principle that is applied when a network technician is troubleshooting a network fault by using the divide-and-conquer method?
a)
Once it is verified that a component in a particular layer is functioning properly, testing can then be performed on any other layer.
b)
Once it is verified that components in a particular layer are functioning properly, it can then be assumed that components in the layers below it are also functional.
c)
Testing is performed at all layers of the OSI model until a non-functioning component is found.
d)
Testing is performed at Layer 7 and at Layer 1, then at Layers 6 and 2, and so on, working towards the middle of the stack until all layers are verified as operational.
44.
What is the term used to indicate a variation of delay?
a)
jitter
b)
latency
c)
serialization delay
d)
speed mismatch
45.
What network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a failure occur?
a)
the configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway
b)
the deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer switch connections between them
c)
the installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network
d)
the reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network core
46.
What role do network devices play in the IntServ QoS model?
a)
Network devices are configured to service multiple classes of traffic and handle traffic as it may arrive.
b)
Network devices ensure that resources are available before traffic is allowed to be sent by a host through the network.
c)
Network devices provide a best-effort approach to forwarding traffic.
d)
Network devices use QoS on a hop-by-hop basis to provide excellent scalability.
47.
What type of traffic is described as being able to tolerate a certain amount of latency, jitter, and loss without any noticeable effects?
a)
data
b)
video
c)
voice
48.
What type of traffic is described as consisting of traffic that gets a lower priority if it is not mission-critical?
a)
data
b)
video
c)
voice
49.
What type of traffic is described as consisting of traffic that requires a higher priority if interactive?
a)
data
b)
video
c)
voice
50.
What type of traffic is described as having a high volume of data per packet?
a)
data
b)
video
c)
voice
51.
What type of traffic is described as not resilient to loss?
a)
data
b)
video
c)
voice
52.
What type of traffic is described as predictable and smooth?
a)
data
b)
video
c)
voice
53.
What type of traffic is described as requiring latency to be no more than 150 milliseconds (ms)?
a)
data
b)
video
c)
voice
54.
What type of traffic is described as requiring latency to be no more than 400 milliseconds (ms)?
a)
data
b)
video
c)
voice
55.
What type of traffic is described as tending to be unpredictable, inconsistent, and bursty?
a)
data
b)
video
c)
voice
56.
What type of traffic is described as traffic that requires at least 30 Kbps of bandwidth?
a)
data
b)
video
c)
voice
57.
When is the most appropriate time to measure network operations to establish a network performance baseline?
a)
at random times during a 10 week period, so that abnormal traffic levels can be detected
b)
at the same time each day across a set period of average working days, so that typical traffic patterns can be established
c)
during quiet vacation periods, so that the level of non-data traffic can be determined
d)
whenever high network use is detected, so that how the network performs under stress can be monitored
58.
When QoS is implemented in a converged network, which two factors can be controlled to improve network performance for real-time traffic? (Choose two.)
a)
delay
b)
jitter
c)
link speed
d)
packet addressing
e)
packet routing
59.
Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?
a)
Add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network.
b)
Continually purchase backup equipment for the network
c)
Immediately replace a nonfunctioning module, service ,or device on a network.
d)
Implement STP PortFast between the switches on the network.
e)
Purchase backup equipment for every network device at the distribution layer.
60.
Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?
a)
ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
b)
ability to build a routing table
c)
ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)
d)
ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself
61.
Which device would be classified as a trusted endpoint?
a)
firewall
b)
IP phone
c)
router
d)
switch
62.
Which device would be classified as a trusted endpoint?
a)
Firewall
b)
IP conferencing station
c)
Router
d)
Switch
63.
Which queuing algorithm has only a single queue and treats all packets equally?
a)
CBWFQ
b)
FIFO
c)
LLQ
d)
WFQ
64.
Which statement describes SNMP operation?
a)
An NMS periodically polls the SNMP agents that are residing on managed devices by using traps to query the devices for data.
b)
An SNMP agent that resides on a managed device collects information about the device and stores that information remotely in the MIB that is located on the NMS.
c)
The NMS uses a set request to change configuration variables in the agent device.
d)
The SNMP agent uses a get request to query the device for data.
65.
Which statement describes SNMP operation?
a)
A get request is used by the SNMP agent to query the device for data.
b)
A set request is used by the NMS to change configuration variables in the agent device.
c)
An NMS periodically polls the SNMP agents that are residing on managed devices by using traps to query the devices for data.
d)
An SNMP agent that resides on a managed device collects information about the device and stores that information remotely in the MIB that is located on the NMS.
66.
Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host?
a)
baselining tool
b)
CiscoView
c)
knowledge base
d)
protocol analyzer
67.
Which type of network traffic cannot be managed using congestion avoidance tools?
a)
ICMP
b)
IP
c)
TCP
d)
UDP
68.
Why is QoS an important issue in a converged network that combines voice, video, and data communications?
a)
Data communications are sensitive to jitter.
b)
Data communications must be given the first priority.
c)
Legacy equipment is unable to transmit voice and video without QoS.
d)
Voice and video communications are more sensitive to latency.
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