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Aviagen Turkeys Quiz

Total questions: 1

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1-99.
1.

What is Aviagen Turkeys known for?

a)

Supplying turkey breeding stock worldwide

b)

Manufacturing turkey feed

c)

Providing turkey farming equipment

d)

Offering turkey meat products

2.

Which brands are supported by Aviagen Turkeys?

a)

B.U.T. and Nicholas

b)

Tyson and Perdue

c)

Butterball and Jennie-O

d)

Foster Farms and Pilgrim's

3.

Where are Aviagen Turkeys' pedigree breeding programs located?

a)

USA and Europe

b)

Asia and Africa

c)

South America and Australia

d)

Canada and Mexico

4.

What do multiple breeding programs and production centers provide for Aviagen Turkeys?

a)

A more secure, global supply source

b)

Cheaper turkey feed

c)

Larger turkey eggs

d)

Faster turkey growth

5.

What is key to product development for Aviagen Turkeys?

a)

Investment and innovation

b)

Reducing costs

c)

Increasing turkey size

d)

Expanding market reach

6.

What is the primary focus of Aviagen Turkeys' breeding program?

a)

Developing pedigree lines of birds for the global turkey industry

b)

Increasing the size of turkey flocks

c)

Reducing the cost of turkey feed

d)

Enhancing the color of turkey feathers

7.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a welfare trait improved by Aviagen Turkeys' breeding program?

a)

Robustness

b)

Cardiovascular fitness

c)

Feather color

d)

Leg strength

8.

What are the three main factors that genetic potential depends on according to the document?

a)

Environment, dietary regime, and biosecurity

b)

Size of the flock, type of feed, and water quality

c)

Temperature, air quality, and light exposure

d)

Genetic modification, selective breeding, and feed additives

9.

Which of the following is NOT one of the five freedoms of animal welfare listed in the document?

a)

Freedom from thirst and hunger

b)

Freedom from discomfort

c)

Freedom from pain, injury, and disease

d)

Freedom from social interaction

10.

What is the primary goal of a biosecurity program in poultry farming?

a)

To increase the production of poultry

b)

To identify and suppress sources of disease

c)

To improve the taste of poultry products

d)

To reduce the cost of poultry farming

11.

Which of the following should visitors wear when entering a poultry farm?

a)

Casual clothes and sandals

b)

Poultry house designated clean clothing and footwear

c)

Formal attire and dress shoes

d)

Sportswear and sneakers

12.

What should be done before entering and exiting turkey buildings?

a)

Change into casual clothes

b)

Disinfect boots and hands

c)

Eat a meal

d)

Take a nap

13.

What is one of the measures to maintain a secure facility for employees and visitors?

a)

Allowing all visitors without restrictions

b)

Keeping gates and buildings locked at all times

c)

Posting no signs at the entrance

d)

Allowing unauthorized visitors

14.

What should be done to vehicles and equipment before they enter the farm?

a)

Leave them as they are

b)

Thoroughly disinfect them

c)

Paint them a different color

d)

Remove all labels

15.

What should employees or growers do if a shower is provided before entering the clean room?

a)

Skip the shower and enter directly

b)

Wash hair, hands, and fingernails

c)

Only wash their hands

d)

Only wash their feet

16.

What should be done with items before entering the farm?

a)

Leave them outside

b)

Sanitize them

c)

Throw them away

d)

Ignore them

17.

What is one of the recommendations for vehicles and equipment to prevent cross-contamination?

a)

Use equipment from other farms

b)

Avoid using equipment that has been used on other farms

c)

Share equipment with neighboring farms

d)

Ignore equipment hygiene

18.

What is the recommended distance for maintaining a "vegetation-free" zone around barns?

a)

12inches(0.3meters)12 inches (0.3 meters)

b)

24inches(0.6meters)24 inches (0.6 meters)

c)

36inches(1meter)36 inches (1 meter)

d)

48inches(1.2meters)48 inches (1.2 meters)

19.

Which of the following actions should be taken to prevent rodents and birds from entering houses?

a)

A) Leave feed spills unattended

b)

B) Eliminate holes, cracks, and other openings

c)

C) Allow pets to enter barns

d)

D) Ignore nesting areas

20.

What should be done with nesting areas that are found?

a)

A) Leave them as they are

b)

B) Relocate them

c)

C) Destroy them

d)

D) Cover them with plastic

21.

Which of the following is NOT recommended for biosecurity regarding birds, rodents, insects, and mammals?

a)

A) Put out rodenticides and insecticides

b)

B) Allow pets to enter barns

c)

C) Avoid and repair leaking plumbing

d)

D) Maintain a "vegetation-free" zone around barns

22.

What should be done to buildings to prevent pests?

a)

A) Leave them open

b)

B) Pest proof them as much as possible

c)

C) Allow debris to accumulate

d)

D) Ignore feed spills

23.

What should be done immediately after a feed spill?

a)

A) Leave it unattended

b)

B) Clean it up immediately

c)

C) Cover it with soil

d)

D) Move it to another location

24.

What should be continually done to manage pests?

a)

A) Ignore them

b)

B) Be on the alert for pests and eliminate them when seen

c)

C) Allow them to multiply

d)

D) Feed them

25.

What is an essential element to keeping your farm free of disease?

a)

Proper feeding of animals

b)

Proper cleaning and disinfection of barns

c)

Regular veterinary check-ups

d)

Using organic feed

26.

How often should baits used for rats and mice be rotated in a brooder house?

a)

Monthly

b)

Quarterly

c)

Annually

d)

Weekly

27.

What should be done after the barn is dry in the cleaning process?

a)

Apply insecticide

b)

Disinfect using an approved disinfectant

c)

Bring in new animals

d)

Start feeding the animals

28.

What is recommended for total litter removal in a growout house?

a)

Every 6 months

b)

Every 12 to 18 months

c)

Every 24 months

d)

Every 3 months

29.

What should be done to waterlines and drinkers after every flock?

a)

Leave them as they are

b)

Flush lines and drinkers with fresh, chlorinated water

c)

Replace them with new ones

d)

Clean them with soap and water

30.

What should be done to prevent the growth of mold when bringing shavings into the house?

a)

Apply shavings to a wet floor

b)

Apply shavings to a dry floor

c)

Mix shavings with water

d)

Store shavings outside

31.

What is recommended to treat for insects such as flies and darkling beetles?

a)

Rotate insecticide products

b)

Use the same insecticide continuously

c)

Avoid using insecticides

d)

Only use natural repellents

32.

What should be done to waterlines after every flock?

a)

Leave them as they are

b)

Clean and disinfect them

c)

Replace them entirely

d)

Cover them with plastic

33.

What type of litter treatment can be effective in reducing pathogens such as E.Coli, salmonella, and clostridium?

a)

Acid type of litter treatment

b)

Water treatment

c)

Heat treatment

d)

Freezing treatment

34.

What should be done with drinkers from the barn during the cleaning process?

a)

Leave them in place

b)

Remove and sanitize them separately

c)

Replace them with new ones

d)

Cover them with plastic

35.

What is the recommended action for barns annually, even if litter is not being removed?

a)

Wash and disinfect

b)

Leave them as they are

c)

Replace the litter

d)

Cover them with plastic

36.

What is the minimum moisture content required for litter in in-house composting?

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

37.

How long is the downtime needed to properly execute in-house composting?

a)

7 days

b)

10 days

c)

14 days

d)

21 days

38.

What should be the height of windrows of litter for in-house composting?

a)

12 to 24 inches

b)

24 to 48 inches

c)

48 to 60 inches

d)

60 to 72 inches

39.

How many times should piles be turned to achieve optimum results and avoid excess ammonia?

a)

Once

b)

Twice

c)

Three times

d)

Four times

40.

What is the peak temperature that should be reached within two days after turning the piles?

a)

100°F

b)

110°F

c)

120°F

d)

130°F

41.

What is the recommended depth for spreading new shavings in a brooder setup?

a)

1to2inches(2.5to5cm)1 to 2 inches (2.5 to 5 cm)

b)

3to4inches(7.5to10cm)3 to 4 inches (7.5 to 10 cm)

c)

5to6inches(12.5to15cm)5 to 6 inches (12.5 to 15 cm)

d)

6to7inches(15to17.5cm)6 to 7 inches (15 to 17.5 cm)

42.

How many bell-type drinkers should be provided per 100 poults?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

43.

What is the target temperature range for the "hot spot" in the center of the ring for conventional jet brooder stoves?

a)

90−95°F(32−35°C)90-95°F (32-35°C)

b)

95−100°F(35−38°C)95-100°F (35-38°C)

c)

100−105°F(38−40°C)100-105°F (38-40°C)

d)

105−110°F(40−43°C)105-110°F (40-43°C)

44.

How long should stoves be lit prior to poult arrival to warm room and shavings?

a)

6 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

18 hours

d)

24 hours

45.

What type of water should always be used for poults?

a)

Tap water

b)

Distilled water

c)

Sanitized water

d)

Bottled water

46.

What should be the minimum distance of feeders from the edge of the stove and brooder guard when using brooder rings?

a)

6inches(15cm)6 inches (15 cm)

b)

9inches(23cm)9 inches (23 cm)

c)

12inches(30cm)12 inches (30 cm)

d)

15inches(38cm)15 inches (38 cm)

47.

What is the recommended wattage for incandescent brooder lights per stove?

a)

50−75watts50-75 watts

b)

75−100watts75-100 watts

c)

100−125watts100-125 watts

d)

125−150watts125-150 watts

48.

What is the recommended height for hanging small fans to improve heating efficiency?

a)

10-20 feet (3-6 meters)

b)

30-40 feet (9-12 meters)

c)

50-60 feet (15-18 meters)

d)

70-80 feet (21-24 meters)

49.

How many footcandles (lux) of light should be provided in the house?

a)

5 footcandles (50 lux)

b)

8 footcandles (80 lux)

c)

10 footcandles (100 lux)

d)

12 footcandles (120 lux)

50.

What is the maximum number of poults per stove?

a)

200 tom poults or 250 hen poults

b)

300 tom poults or 350 hen poults

c)

350 tom poults or 400 hen poults

d)

400 tom poults or 450 hen poults

51.

How far should brooder rings be placed from the wall?

a)

1 foot (30 cm)

b)

2 feet (60 cm)

c)

3 feet (90 cm)

d)

4 feet (120 cm)

52.

What should be used for brooder rings when the barn temperature is expected to drop below 70°F (21°C)?

a)

12 inch (30 cm) brooder guard

b)

15 inch (38 cm) brooder guard

c)

18 inch (45 cm) brooder guard

d)

24 inch (60 cm) brooder guard

53.

How many hours of continuous darkness should poults have per night after the first one to three days?

a)

4-6 hours

b)

6-8 hours

c)

8-10 hours

d)

10-12 hours

54.

What is the recommended diameter for brooder rings?

a)

8-10 feet (2.5-3 meters)

b)

10-12 feet (3-3.5 meters)

c)

12-15 feet (4-5 meters)

d)

15-18 feet (5-5.5 meters)

55.

What is the recommended BTU stove per 1,500 sq. ft. for large ring or whole house brooding?

a)

60,000 BTU

b)

80,000 BTU

c)

100,000 BTU

d)

120,000 BTU

56.

How many stoves are recommended per ring for large ring or whole house brooding?

a)

One stove

b)

Two stoves

c)

Three stoves

d)

Four stoves

57.

At what temperature should the floor be under the heater for the day of placement?

a)

90-100°F (32-38°C)

b)

100-110°F (38-43°C)

c)

110-115°F (43-46°C)

d)

115-120°F (46-49°C)

58.

How far should rings be placed from the wall?

a)

1 foot (30 cm)

b)

2 feet (60 cm)

c)

3 feet (90 cm)

d)

4 feet (120 cm)

59.

What is the recommended height for cardboard brooder guards?

a)

6-12 inches (15-30 cm)

b)

12-18 inches (30-45 cm)

c)

18-24 inches (45-60 cm)

d)

24-30 inches (60-75 cm)

60.

What should be done if piling becomes an issue?

a)

Reduce the number of poults

b)

Increase the number of feeders

c)

Add more heat

d)

Decrease the temperature

61.

What is indicated by excessive noise from the poults?

a)

Correct temperature

b)

Wrong temperature or lack of water/feed

c)

Proper ventilation

d)

Adequate lighting

62.

What is the recommended minimum litter depth for growing birds?

a)

2-3 inches (5-8 cm)

b)

4-5 inches (10-13 cm)

c)

6-7 inches (15-18 cm)

d)

8-9 inches (20-23 cm

63.

How often should bell type drinkers be cleaned?

a)

Weekly

b)

Monthly

c)

Daily

d)

Bi-weekly

64.

What is the target range for free chlorine in the drinker furthest from the source?

a)

1-2 PPM

b)

3-5 PPM

c)

6-8 PPM

d)

9-11 PPM

65.

What should be done during hot weather to provide fresh, cool water?

a)

Increase the number of drinkers

b)

Flush overhead lines

c)

Add ice to the water

d)

Reduce the number of birds

66.

What is the minimum number of feed pans required per 50 toms and 60 hens?

a)

One (1)

b)

Two (2)

c)

Three (3)

d)

Four (4)

67.

How many hours of continuous darkness should toms and light hens have in a 24-hour period according to National Turkey Federation Animal Welfare Guidelines?

a)

2 hours

b)

4 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

8 hours

68.

What is the recommended darkness duration for heavy hens during Week 7 in Spring and Summer?

a)

4 hours

b)

5 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

7 hours

69.

During which week in Fall and Winter should heavy hens experience 6.5 hours of darkness?

a)

Week 7

b)

Week 8

c)

Week 9

d)

Week 10

70.

What is the target environmental temperature for conventional brooding on Day 1?

a)

86°F (30°C)

b)

83°F (28°C)

c)

80°F (27°C)

d)

77°F (25°C)

71.

What should be done to fan thermostats when power ventilating?

a)

Set them to 2°F (1°C) below target temperature

b)

Set them to 2°F (1°C) above target temperature

c)

Turn them off

d)

Set them to 5°F (3°C) above target temperature

72.

What is the target environmental temperature for large ring/whole house brooding during Week 5?

a)

72°F (22°C)

b)

70°F (21°C)

c)

68°F (20°C)

d)

66°F (19°C)

73.

What should be confirmed regarding ventilation equipment?

a)

That it is turned off

b)

That it is operational

c)

That it is cleaned

d)

That it is replaced

74.

How many hours of darkness should heavy hens have during Week 11 in Spring and Summer?

a)

7 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

9 hours

d)

10 hours

75.

What is the target environmental temperature for males during Week 13?

a)

58°F (14°C)

b)

56°F (13°C)

c)

55°F (13°C)

d)

60°F (16°C)

76.

What is one of the main reasons Aviagen Turkeys is considered an industry leader?

a)

Their turkeys have a strong appetite and need to achieve early growth potential.

b)

Their turkeys are resistant to all diseases.

c)

Their turkeys can fly long distances.

d)

Their turkeys do not require any special feed.

77.

What is the primary focus during the first six weeks of a bird's life according to the document?

a)

Development of the skeleton, immune system, and cardiovascular system.

b)

Learning to fly.

c)

Developing social skills.

d)

Learning to forage for food.

78.

What is the recommended sample size for weighing birds at transfer to ensure meaningful results?

a)

At least 50 birds.

b)

At least 10 birds.

c)

At least 100 birds.

d)

At least 5 birds.

79.

What should be done if the target weight is not being achieved in a flock?

a)

Identify why and make modifications to ensure goals are met.

b)

Ignore the issue and continue with the same practices.

c)

Reduce the amount of feed given to the birds.

d)

Increase the number of birds in the flock.

80.

What can result from birds being below the weight target at the end of the brooding period?

a)

Rapid recovery phase in the finishing barn.

b)

Immediate improvement in health.

c)

Increased ability to fly.

d)

Decreased need for feed.

81.

What is the recommended percentage of good quality fat to be added to the diet of birds to help them get off to a good start?

a)

1-2%

b)

3-4%

c)

4-5%

d)

6-7%

82.

Why is it important to manage the transition from crumbled to pelleted feed?

a)

To ensure birds do not lose weight

b)

To prevent birds from overeating

c)

To ensure early benefits are not lost

d)

To reduce the cost of feed

83.

What can happen if feed intake is reduced for 12 to 24 hours during the transition to pelleted feed?

a)

Birds may gain extra weight

b)

Birds can lose up to a day's growth

c)

Birds will become more active

d)

Birds will consume more water

84.

What is the purpose of adding good quality fat to the bird's diet?

a)

To increase the energy level and improve feed form and palatability

b)

To reduce the cost of feed

c)

To make the feed more colorful

d)

To decrease the weight of the birds

85.

What is the percentage of feed particles that should be less than 0.5 mm in size according to Table 3?

a)

5%

b)

15%

c)

20%

d)

25%

86.

What is the recommended action before changing feed presentation for birds?

a)

Change feed presentation immediately

b)

Wait for a few days after moving birds

c)

Increase the amount of feed

d)

Decrease the amount of feed

87.

What is the principle means of controlling the bird environment?

a)

Feeding

b)

Ventilation control

c)

Lighting

d)

Water supply

88.

What is required at all stages of growth to allow the bird to remain in good health and achieve full potential?

a)

Fresh air

b)

Clean water

c)

Proper lighting

d)

Balanced diet

89.

What are the main contaminants of air within the house environment?

a)

Dust, ammonia, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, and excess water vapor

b)

Pollen, nitrogen, oxygen, and methane

c)

Sulfur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, and ozone

d)

Lead, mercury, and arsenic

90.

What can continued exposure to contaminated and moist air trigger in birds?

a)

Increased egg production

b)

Respiratory disease

c)

Faster growth rate

d)

Improved feather quality

91.

What is the target level for carbon dioxide concentrations to maximize bird performance?

a)

Below 3,500 ppm

b)

Below 35 ppm

c)

50% - 70%

d)

Below 25 ppm

92.

Which type of ventilation system involves opening and closing the curtains to control the air flow and environment inside the house?

a)

Mechanically assisted ventilation

b)

Natural ventilation

c)

Evaporative pad system

d)

Fogging/misting system

93.

What are the two basic types of ventilation systems mentioned?

a)

Natural and mechanical

b)

Natural and power

c)

Mechanical and power

d)

Power and evaporative

94.

Which of the following is NOT a type of power (controlled environment housing) ventilation system?

a)

Minimum

b)

Transitional & Tunnel

c)

Evaporative Pad

d)

Non-mechanically assisted

95.

What is the primary purpose of curtain ventilation in a house environment?

a)

To increase humidity levels

b)

To control temperature, humidity, wind velocity, and wind direction

c)

To reduce noise levels

d)

To improve lighting conditions

96.

What effect do fans have on hot days with little wind?

a)

They increase humidity

b)

They provide a wind chill cooling effect

c)

They reduce noise levels

d)

They improve lighting conditions

97.

What is the main aim of minimum ventilation systems?

a)

To increase humidity levels

b)

To maintain required air temperature and remove excess moisture and harmful gases

c)

To reduce noise levels

d)

To improve lighting conditions

98.

What is the key to successful minimum ventilation?

a)

Creating a partial vacuum so air comes through all vents and is directed across the ceiling

b)

Increasing humidity levels

c)

Reducing noise levels

d)

Improving lighting conditions

99.

What is required with any powered ventilation system?

a)

A standby emergency generator

b)

A noise reduction system

c)

A lighting improvement system

d)

A humidity control system