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As physcs

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Rutherford's original aim of the experiment was to verify the Plum Pudding Model for the atom.

Which of the following results did Rutherford expect to observe when he first conducted his Gold Foil experiment based on the Plum Pudding Model?

a)
All alpha particles would be able to pass through the gold foil with little or no angular deflection
b)
The gold foil will be able absorb the alpha particles.
c)
A small fraction of the alpha particles (1 in 8000) will suffer large deflections of more than 90 degrees with some having deflections as large as 180 degrees.
d)
A small fraction of alpha particles would pass through, with most being absorbed by the gold foil or deflected by the positively charged gold atom.
2.

When the experiment was conducted, some key observations were however made. Which of the following are the observations?

a)
Most of the alpha particles were absorbed and trapped by the gold foil
b)
Most of the alpha particles were deflected backwards or suffered large angular deflections of greater than 90 degrees or came straight back.
c)
Most of the alpha particles passed through undeviated or had very small angular deflection.
d)

A very small fraction (~ 1 in 8000) of the alpha particles passed through the gold foil undeviated.

3.

The observations made in the Rutherford's Alpha Scattering experiment produced new insights into the structure of the atom.

Which conclusions can be drawn from the results of the experiment?

a)
Electrons orbit the atomic nucleus.
b)
The size or volume of the nucleus is very small compared to the atom.
c)
The protons were concentrated in a very small volume in the centre of the atom called the nucleus.
d)
Most of the atom is empty space.
e)
The mass of the atom is concentrated in a very small volume within the atom.
4.

[UCLES N95/I/28]

In repeating Rutherford's α-particle scattering experiment, a student used the apparatus shown, in a vacuum, to determine n, the number of α-particles incident per unit time on a detector held at various angular positions θ.

Which graph best represents the variation of n with θ?

a)
b)
c)
d)
5.

[UCLES N05/I/39]

Two α-particles with equal energies are fired towards the nucleus of a gold atom.Which diagram best represents their paths?

a)
b)
c)
d)
6.

What is the mass number of 2656Fe_{26}^{56}\text{}Fe   ?

(a)  

7.

The nucleus of one of the isotopes of nickel is represented by 2860Ni_{28}^{60}Ni   .

Which line in the table describes a neutral atom of this isotope?

a)
Option A
b)
Option B
c)
Option C
d)
Option D
8.

[CIE 9702 Nov 2002 P1 Q38]

The numbers of protons, neutrons and nucleons in three nuclei are shown.

Which nuclei are isotopes of the same element?

a)

X and Y

b)

X and Z

c)

Y and Z

d)

None

9.

[CIE 9702 Nov 2003 P1 Q40]

A nickel nucleus 2859Ni_{28}^{59}Ni  can be transformed by a process termed K-capture. In this process the nucleus absorbs an orbital electron.

If no other process is involved, what is resulting nucleus?

a)

2858Ni_{28}^{58}Ni  

b)

2758Co_{27}^{58}Co  

c)

2759Co_{27}^{59}Co  

d)

2959Cu_{29}^{59}Cu  

10.

[CIE 9702 Nov 2007 P1 Q37]

What need not be conserved in nuclear reactions?

a)
energy and mass
b)
nucleon number
c)
proton number
d)
neutron number
e)
linear momentum
11.

[CIE 9702 Nov 2002 P1 Q38]

In a nuclear reaction, energy equivalent to 10-11 kg of matter is released.

The energy released is approximately

a)

4.5 × 10-6 J

b)

9.0 × 10-6 J

c)

3.0 × 10-3 J

d)

4.5 × 105 J

e)

9.0 × 105 J

12.

[ CIE 9702 Nov 2001 P1 Q29]

High energy alpha-particles can transform Nitrogen -14 to Oxygen-17: 714N+24He → 817O +11H _7^{14}N+_2^4He\ \rightarrow\ _8^{17}O\ +_1^1H\

The sum of the rest masses of the nitrogen and helium nuclei is 18.0006 u.

The sum of the rest masses of the oxygen and hydrogen nuclei is 18.007 u.

The energy equivalent of 0.001 u is 1 MeV.

What do the data show?

a)
Mass of 0.001 u has been converted into 1 MeV of energy.
b)
The kinetic energy of the products exceeds the kinetic energy of the reactants by 1 MeV.
c)
The kinetic energy of the reactants exceeds the kinetic energy of the products by 1 MeV.
d)
The reactants had only 1 MeV of kinetic energy and all of this was converted into mass.
13.

A nuclear decay results in a particle of mass m1 and another particle of mass m2, both moving away from each other in opposite directions.

If E is the total energy of the two particles, what is the energy associated with mass m1 ?

(Assume the parent nucleus to be stationary prior to the decay.)

a)

m1m2E\frac{m_1}{m_2}E  

b)

m2m1E\frac{m_2}{m_1}E  

c)

m1m1+m2E\frac{m_1}{m_1+m_2}E  

d)

m2m1+m2E\frac{m_2}{m_1+m_2}E  

e)

E

14.

Consider the following process :

82206Pb→ 80202Hg + 24He_{82}^{206}Pb\rightarrow\ _{80}^{202}Hg\ +\ _2^4He  

Given the rest mass of the reactants and products, which of the following statements is correct?

a)
The process is possible if energy is given to the lead nucleus to obtain the reaction products.
b)
The process is possible and takes place with a release of energy.
c)

Lead is unstable against α\alpha  -decay as the mass of  82206Pb\ _{82}^{206}Pb   is smaller than the sum of the masses of  80202Hg\ _{80}^{202}Hg   and  24He\ _2^4He   .

d)
The process occurs spontaneously as the mass number and the atomic number are both conserved.
15.

The helium  24He\ _2^4He  has a mass of 4.0028 u. The mass of a proton is 1.0076 u and that of a neutron is 1.0090 u.

What is the binding energy per nucleon of helium?

a)
7.08 MeV
b)
14·2 MeV
c)
23·5 MeV
d)
28.3 MeV
16.

[UCLES N2022 P1 Q39]

The binding energy (B.E.) per nucleon is a useful measure of the stability of a nucleus.

Which graph shows how the B.E. per nucleon varies with the nucleon number (A)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
17.

[CIE J89/I/27]

The diagram shows a graph of the binding energy per nucleon for a number of naturally occurring nuclides, plotted against their mass numbers.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are a correct deduction from the graph?

a)

Of the nuclides plotted,  12H\ _1^2H   is the least stable.

b)
Energy will be released if a nucleus with a mass number greater than about 80 undergoes fusion with other nucleus.
c)
Energy will be released if a nucleus with a mass number less than about 80 undergoes fission as a result of particle bombardment.
d)

 1827Al\ _{18}^{27}Al   will not spontaneously emit an alpha particle to become  1123Na\ _{11}^{23}Na .

e)

 93238U\ _{93}^{238}U   is the stable end-point of a number of radioactive series.

18.

Two deuterium nuclei fuse together to from a Helium-3 nucleus, with the release of neutron. The reaction is represented by  12H + 12H → 23He + 01n +energy\ _1^2H\ +\ _1^2H\ \rightarrow\ _2^3He\ +\ _0^1n\ +energy   The binding energies per nucleon of the particles in the reaction are  12H : 1.09 MeV\ _1^2H\ :\ 1.09\ MeV   and  23He : 2.54 MeV\ _2^3He\ :\ 2.54\ MeV  

How much energy is released in this reaction?

a)
0.36 MeV
b)
1.45 MeV
c)
3.26 MeV
d)
5.44 MeV
19.

What is the amount of current flowing through an electric press, if the amount of charge passing through a conductor in 10 minutes is 300 0 C?

a)

30 A

b)

.3 A

c)

.5 A

d)

5 A

20.

A wire of length /, made of material resistivity ρ is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of the two parts are equal to,

(a)  

21.

A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The work done in 10 seconds is

a)

2 × 10 5 Joule

b)

2 × 10 3 Joule

c)

2 x 10 4 Joule

d)

2 x 102 Joule

22.

Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is

a)

Current

b)

Voltage

c)

Resistance

d)

Resistivity

23.
What is a closed path for electrons to flow through?
a)
static electricity
b)
circuit
c)
amperes
24.
Identify the conductor below.
a)
cloth rag
b)
plastic bottle
c)
gold ring
25.
Thicker wires have _______ resistance than thinner wires.
a)
more
b)
less
c)
the same
26.
As the resistance in a circuit increases, the electric current __________.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
27.

Which device or devices could be removed without breaking the electric circuit?

a)

Only the bulb

b)

Only the switch

c)

The battery and the switch

d)

The bulb and the switch

28.

The shock you sometimes feel when you touch a metal doorknob on a dry day is electric ________.

a)

Circuit

b)

Current

c)

Discharge

d)

Resistance

29.

What is Newton's first law of motion?

a)

An object will remain at rest or in uniform motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force.

b)

An object will accelerate if no force is acting on it.

c)

An object will stop moving if no force is acting on it.

d)

An object will change direction if no force is acting on it.

30.

State Newton's second law of motion.

a)

F = mv

b)

F = m/a

c)

F = 1/2ma

d)

F = ma

31.

Explain Newton's third law of motion with an example.

a)

When you jump, the ground exerts a force on you, but you don't exert a force back on the ground

b)

When you throw a ball, the ball exerts a force on you in the opposite direction

c)

When you sit in a chair, your body exerts a downward force on the chair. In response, the chair exerts an equal and opposite force upward on your body, supporting you.

d)

When you push a wall, the wall pushes back with the same force

32.

Define momentum in physics.

a)

The product of an object's mass and velocity.

b)

The energy of an object

c)

The force acting on an object

d)

The distance an object travels

33.

What is impulse in the context of physics?

a)

Impulse is the distance an object travels

b)

Impulse is the energy stored in an object

c)

Impulse is the rate of change of momentum

d)

Impulse is the product of force and the time over which the force acts on an object.

34.

Describe the concept of collisions in terms of conservation of momentum.

a)

Momentum is only conserved in elastic collisions

b)

Collisions have no impact on momentum

c)

The concept of collisions in terms of conservation of momentum states that the total momentum before a collision is equal to the total momentum after the collision.

d)

Momentum is conserved only if the objects are at rest

35.

Explain the principle of conservation of kinetic energy in collisions.

a)

The principle of conservation of kinetic energy states that in a collision, the total kinetic energy of the system remains constant if no external forces are involved.

b)

The principle of conservation of kinetic energy is only valid for objects of equal mass

c)

The principle of conservation of kinetic energy only applies to elastic collisions

d)

In collisions, kinetic energy is always converted into potential energy

36.

How are relative velocities of approach and separation calculated in physics?

a)

By adding the velocities of the two objects

b)

By dividing the velocities of the two objects

c)

By multiplying the velocities of the two objects

d)

By considering the velocities of the two objects with respect to a common reference frame. The relative velocity of approach is the sum of the velocities of the two objects if they are moving towards each other, while the relative velocity of separation is the difference of their velocities if they are moving away from each other.

37.

In a collision between two objects, when is momentum conserved?

a)

When there are no external forces acting on the system.

b)

When the objects are moving at different speeds

c)

When the objects have different masses

d)

When the collision is perfectly elastic

38.

What happens to the kinetic energy in an elastic collision?

a)

It remains constant

b)

It increases

c)

It decreases

d)

It becomes zero

39.

select two correct answers that show:

Average speed?

a)

s = d/t

b)

v = s/t

c)

speed = distance/time

d)

velocity = speed/time

40.

Acceleration?

a)

a = (v-u)/t

b)

d = s/t

c)

v = s/t

d)

F= m/a

41.

v = Δϰ/Δt?

a)

average speed

b)

force needed

c)

average velocity

d)

acceleration

42.

Which formulae shows the relationship between Force, mass and acceleration?

a)

W = mxg

b)

F = mxa

c)

p=mxv

d)

ρ=mxV

43.

Which formulae shows the rate in change of mometum?

a)

F= mxa

b)

F= mxv - mxu / t

c)

F= mxg

d)

F= Fxχ

44.

Formula for Power?

a)

ΔE = Fxd

b)

KE = 1/2mxv2

c)

W = ΔE/t

d)

GPE = mxgxh

45.

ΔE = Fxd?

a)

work = force x distance

b)

Power = Work/ time

c)

Pressure = height x density x gravity

d)

Kinetic energy = 1/2 mass x velocity²

46.

Which is the correct formula for energy efficiency?

a)

Efficiency = total input energy / useful energy output x 100

b)

Efficiency = total input energy / useful energy output / 100

c)

Efficiency = total input energy / useful energy output / 100

d)

Efficiency = useful energy output / total input energy. x100

47.

Select the two that show Refractive index of a material

a)

Refractive index = speed of light in vacuum x speed of light in material

b)

Refractive index = speed of light in vacuum / speed of light in material

c)

n = v1 / v2

d)

n = v1 x v2

48.

Select the two that show the relationship between wave speed, frequency and wavelength

a)

c = f x λ

b)

Wave speed = frequency x wavelength

c)

Wave speed = frequency / wavelength

d)

c = f / λ

49.

Two formulae that show the relationship between Current, charge and time

a)

Current = charge x time

b)

current = charge / time

c)

I = Q x t

d)

I = Q / t

50.

Which will calculate the Power (W) in a circuit?

a)

V = I x R

b)

P = I x V

c)

ΔE = I x V x t

d)

I = Q / t

51.

Which is the correct formula for Energy Transferred in a circuit?

a)

ΔE = I x V x t

b)

ΔE = I / V x t

c)

ΔE = I x V / t

d)

ΔE = I x V

52.

Is this..........

a)

Alpha decay

b)

Beta decay

53.

Is this ......

a)

Alpha decay

b)

Beta decay

54.

Which formulae shows Hooke's Law?

a)

F= mg

b)

F= ma

c)

F = kx

d)

GPE = mgh

55.

What does the relationship between mass, gravity and height show?

a)

Resistance in a circuit

b)

Current in a circuit

c)

Gravitational Potential Energy

d)

Extension of a spring

56.

What is the unit of Work?

a)

Newtons

b)

Joules

c)

Metres

d)

Kg

57.

What is the relationship between moment, force and distance? SELECT TWO CORRECT ANSWERS

a)

M = F x d

b)

M = F / d

c)

d = M x F

d)

F = M/d

58.

What do ohms measure?

a)

Current

b)

potential difference

c)

resistance

d)

power

59.

A resultant force of 4.0N acts on an object of mass 0.50 kg for 3.0 seconds.

What is the change in velocity caused by this force?

a)

4.0 m / s

b)

6.0 m / s

c)

12 m / s

d)

24 m / s

60.

Which property of an object cannot be changed by a force?

a)

mass

b)

motion

c)

shape

d)

size

61.

A ball is dropped from a table-top. Air resistance may be ignored.

Which row describes the velocity and the acceleration of the ball at point X

a)

acceleration = constant; velocity = constant

b)

acceleration = constant; velocity = increasing

c)

acceleration = increasing; velocity = constant

d)

acceleration = increasing; velocity = increasing

62.
What is the moment acting on the seesaw?
a)
1.6Nm
b)
15Nm
c)
16N
d)
4Nm
63.

When the velocity of the car is constant, the force of friction on it is

a)

zero

b)

greater than the driving force

c)

smaller than the driving force

d)

the same size as the driving force

64.

Which are the units for acceleration

a)

m/s

b)

m/s2

c)

s/m

d)

m/s3

65.

The cyclist accelerates at 1.4 m/s2.

The mass of the cyclist and bicycle is 60 kg.

Calculate the resultant force.

(a)  

66.
What is 'drag' another name for?
a)
dressing up
b)
air resistance
c)
friction
d)
weight
67.
Name two quantities that are vectors.
a)
force and speed
b)
speed and acceleration
c)
force and acceleration
d)
mass and weight
68.
What are balanced forces?
a)
forces of the same size, in opposite directions
b)
the same size in the same direction
c)
forces in opposite directions
d)
forces at right angles to each other
69.
What is the name for a single force on an object with the same effect as all the forces combined?
a)
big
b)
total
c)
resultant
d)
sum
70.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
71.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
72.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
73.
In a tug of war the left team pulls with a force of 200N. The right team pulls with a force of 150N.What is the resultant force?
a)
50N to the left.
b)
350N to the left.
c)
350N to the right.
d)
50N to the right.
74.

The unit of force is...

a)

m/s

b)

m

c)

N

d)

kg

75.

What is the resultant force?

a)

40 N, Left

b)

0 N, Balanced

c)

400 N, Right

d)

40 N, Right

76.

What is the resultant force?

a)

400 N, Up

b)

400 N, Down

c)

800 N, Up

d)

800 N, Down

77.

What is the resultant force?

a)

17 N, Left

b)

6N, Right

c)

11N , Left

d)

12N, Left

78.

What is the resultant force?

a)

40N, Left

b)

40N, Right

c)

0N, Balanced

d)

75N, Right

79.

Work is

a)

having a job

b)

movement

c)

energy transfer

d)

energy transfer to an object

80.

The ( ) the force the ( ) work is done

a)

less, more

b)

smaller, more

c)

bigger, more

d)

bigger, less

81.

if something is shifted a long way then there is ( ) work is being done

a)

less

b)

more

c)

same

d)

none

82.

If the object does not move then what is happening

a)

nothing

b)

work

c)

power

d)

no work is being done on the object

83.

the object has to be shifted or rearrange for work to occur

a)

true

b)

false

84.

what is the two things that need to occur for work to have been done?

a)

force and movement

b)

movement and direction

c)

constant force and power

d)

power and work

85.

for work to occur the object has to have a constant force causing the object to move in the same direction

a)

False

b)

True

86.

____ is one of the best reflectors of light.

a)

Gold

b)

Silver

c)

Brass

d)

Aluminium

87.

Reflection of light have___laws.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

88.

When light is available which image is formed.

a)

Real

b)

Virtual

c)

Erect

89.

If an object is placed at a distance of 10 cm in front of a plane mirror how far would it be from its image.

a)

10cm

b)

20cm

c)

30cm

d)

40cm

90.

Which mirror has a wider field of view?

a)

Convex

b)

Concave

c)

Plane

91.

Which equation related to ohm's law?

a)

V=IR

b)

R=V/I

c)

I=V/R

d)

All of the above

92.

When an obj is placed at focus then which type of image is formed?

a)

Real

b)

Virtual

c)

Inverted

d)

Both (1)and (3)

93.

A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 30°.what is the angle of refrection?

a)

10°

b)

20°

c)

30°

d)

40°

94.

Which type of image formed by plane mirror?

a)

Same size

b)

Erect

c)

Virtual

d)

All of the above

95.

Real image is always

a)

Erect

b)

Real

c)

Inverted

d)

Virtual

96.

Electromotive Force (e.m.f.) is defined as...

a)

energy passing through a power source

b)

energy needed to power up a circuit per unit charge

c)

energy converted to electrical energy per unit charge

d)

energy converted from electrical to other forms per unit charge

97.

Potential difference is the energy converted from electrical energy to other forms per unit charge.

a)

CORRECT

b)

WRONG

98.

Suggest an equation which shows the relationship between the e.m.f. (E), terminal p.d. (VR) and lost volts (Vr).

4 lines
99.

Using V = IR, suggest an expression relating the e.m.f (E), current in the circuit (I), resistance of the resistor (R) and the internal resistance of the cell (r).

4 lines
100.

A student wants to investigate the value of the e.m.f. of a cell.

A graph of terminal p.d. against current is plotted.

Which of the following are true?

a)

E = y-intercept

b)

E = gradient

c)

E = gradient/current

d)

E = Ir + IR

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