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KIN 4315 Advanced AT Pre-Assessment

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When determining a treatment and rehabilitation program, which evaluation should be used as a baseline?

a)

Initial evaluation

b)

Reevaluation

c)

Discharge evaluation

d)

Final evaluation

2.

Which of the following components of the clinical evaluation is the most informative?

a)

history

b)

inspection/

observation

c)

palpation

d)

special tests

3.

What type of consent is needed before evaluating an injury?

a)

implied consent

b)

informed consent

c)

non consent

d)

assumed consent

4.

A complete history should be taken in which of the following injury situations?

a)

sideline evaluation of sprained ankle

b)

on-field evaluation of an injured knee

c)

clinical evaluation of an injured shoulder

d)

follow up orthopedic exam

5.

Before beginning the physical inspection portion of the exam, the clinician should be most concerned about their safety. Which of the following is the greatest threat to the clinician if an injured knee is about to be evaluated?

a)

bruising of the knee

b)

bleeding from an abrasion on the knee

c)

swelling on the lateral portion of the knee

d)

swelling on the lateral portion of the knee

6.

What is the best method for palpating an injury?

a)

immediately palpate the most painful site

b)

if there is a bilateral structure, palpate it first

c)

palpate away from the injury working toward the injury

d)

Palpation does not offer any information and should not be performed

7.

Active range of motion (AROM) should not be completed unless which of the following is present?

a)

fracture

b)

contusion

c)

sprain

d)

strain

8.

Which of the following represents the heart rate range in beats/minute (bpm) of the general population?

a)

60 to 100 bpm

b)

80 to 120 bpm

c)

70 to 110 bpm

d)

90 to 120 bpm

9.

When performing an immediate on-field examination, which of the following injuries should be ruled out first?

a)

inhibition of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems

b)

life-threatening trauma to the head or spinal column

c)

fractures

d)

profuse bleeding

10.

How many metatarsals bones are located in the foot?

a)

7

b)

5

c)

14

d)

28

11.

When performing chest compressions on a adult, how far should you push down on the chest?

a)

0 - 0.5 inches

b)

0.5 - 1 inch

c)

1.5 - 2 inches

d)

4 - 6 inches

12.

During prolonged, intense training and conditioning of an athlete, what cardiac change may occur over a period of time?

a)

development of heart murmur

b)

development of premature ventricular contractions

c)

increased heart size

d)

decrease heart size

13.

When working on a bleeding athlete, what should the athletic trainer always do?

a)

refer to the nearest emergency department

b)

avoid touching any bloody areas

c)

wash hands before treatment

d)

wear gloves

14.

The condition where the circulatory system cannot circulate blood to all parts of the body is called:

a)

shock

b)

sepsis

c)

defibrillation

d)

seizure

15.

A strain is an injury that occurs to a ligament

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of a fracture?

a)

swelling

b)

deformity

c)

loss of use

d)

crepitus

e)

all of the above are S&S of a fracture

17.

Which of the following should NOT be done for a person experiencing non-life threatening heat related illness?

a)

sit the victim down in the sun

b)

apply cool, wet cloths and give them ample fluids to drink

c)

call 9ll immediately

d)

place the victim in warm water

18.

Which of the following descriptions is correct regarding a chronic injury?

a)

develops over a long period of time

b)

no clear causative mechanism

c)

vague or absent signs and symptoms

d)

characterized by rapid onset resulting from traumatic event

19.

Which of the following descriptions is correct regarding a chronic injury?

a)

characterized by rapid onset resulting from traumatic event

b)

obvious, clearly identifiable causative mechanism

c)

usually associated with a significant traumatic event

d)

Characterized by a slow, insidious onset

e)

all of these describe a chronic injury

20.

Which of the following muscles is not included in the rotator cuff muscle group?

a)

teres major

b)

teres minor

c)

supraspinatus

d)

infraspinatus

e)

subscapularis

21.

What type of bone is the patella?

a)

sesamoid

b)

irregular

c)

long

d)

short

22.

Which three bones make up the shoulder girdle?

a)

ulna, radius, and humerus

b)

humerus, scapula, and sternum

c)

sternum, clavicle, and humerus

d)

humerus, scapula, and clavicle

23.

What is the common name ofr medial tibial stress syndrome?

a)

shin splints

b)

runner's knee

c)

hallux valgus deformity

d)

IT band syndrome

24.

What injury is suspected based on the x-ray image?

a)

fractured clavicle

b)

fractured humerus

c)

AC sprain

d)

none of the above

25.

Which injury is being depicted in the x-ray image?

a)

shoulder impingement

b)

dislocation of the shoulder

c)

biceps tendinitis

d)

clavicle fracture

26.

What type of fracture is being depicted in the x-ray image?

a)

Colles' fracture

b)

Scaphoid fracture

c)

Wrist fracture

d)

ulnar fracture

27.

Which of the following can cause an indirect sports fatality?

a)

contact sports

b)

a blow to the head

c)

blunt force trauma to the chest

d)

rodeo riding

e)

heat stroke

28.

An athlete with a suspected concussion is allowed to return to participation the same day as the injury.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

What does the acronym SOAP stand for?

a)

subjective, objective, assessment, palpation

b)

subjective, objective, assessment, plan

c)

subjective, objective, assessment, pronation

d)

subjective, observation, assessment, plan

30.

Which injury is depicted in the x-ray?

a)

jones' fracture

b)

fracture talus

c)

march fracture

d)

holly fracture

31.

What condition is at its worst with the first few steps out of bed in the morning, pain on the medial aspect of the heel, and intensifies when the patient tries to push off on their toes?

a)

march fracture

b)

plantar fasciitis

c)

toe fracture

d)

bunion

32.

The eversion ankle sprain is the most common injury to the ankle

a)

True

b)

False

33.

An athlete may participate with a grade 3 ankle sprain, because it is the least severe form of the sprain.

a)

true

b)

false

34.

Compartment Syndrome is considered a MEDICAL EMERGENCY

a)

true

b)

false

35.

Which of the following is NOT a soft tissue injury?

a)

Tears

b)

Sprains

c)

Contusions

d)

Fracture

36.

Which of the following is not a common site to ascertain a pulse?

a)

Radial artery

b)

Brachial Artery

c)

Tibialis Posterior

artery

d)

All of the above are common sites

37.

What does hypertrophic cardiomyopathy mean?

a)

enlarged heart

b)

ruptured spleen

c)

labrum tear

d)

biceps brachii tendon rupture

38.

What is the first step in CPR?

a)

Make sure the scene is safe

b)

Start Compressions

c)

Clear the airway

d)

Check responsiveness

39.

What is the compression to breath ratio in CPR?

a)

20:3

b)

10:10

c)

30:2

d)

2:30

40.

Which grade of injury represents a PARTIAL tear or rupture?

a)

Grade 1

b)

Grade 2

c)

Grade 3

d)

Grade 4