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ITE 359 Networking P2 Exam

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of having at least one permit ACE in an ACL?

a)

To deny all traffic

b)

To allow all traffic

c)

To block specific traffic

d)

To prioritize traffic

2.

What is the consequence of configuring a single-entry ACL with only one deny entry?

a)

All traffic is blocked

b)

All traffic is permitted

c)

Specific traffic is allowed

d)

Specific traffic is denied

3.

Why is the order of ACEs important in an ACL?

a)

It determines the interface for traffic filtering

b)

It affects the performance of the router

c)

ACEs are processed sequentially

d)

It determines the source and destination IP addresses

4.

In which order does Cisco IOS reorder standard ACLs?

a)

In the order they were entered

b)

In an optimized order for searching

c)

Randomly

d)

In the reverse order

5.

When does a router check for an ACL on an inbound interface?

a)

Before stripping off the frame information

b)

After processing the packet

c)

After checking the source IP address

d)

Before processing the packet

6.

Which statement best describes the logic of routing and ACL processes?

a)

ACLs are checked before routing decisions are made

b)

ACLs are checked after routing decisions are made

c)

ACLs are independent of routing processes

d)

ACLs determine the order of routing table lookups

7.

What is the purpose of an Access Control List (ACL) in network management?

a)

To enhance network performance by blocking all traffic

b)

To provide control over the flow of network traffic

c)

To enable unlimited access to specific hosts or networks

d)

To filter network protocols based on traffic type

8.

What is the role of ACLs in network security?

a)

To block access to specific hosts or networks

b)

To allow unrestricted access to all network services

c)

To enhance network performance by filtering video traffic

d)

To ensure routing updates originate from trusted sources

9.

What is the function of an implicit deny statement in an ACL?

a)

To permit all traffic

b)

To allow desired traffic

c)

To prioritize traffic based on source IP address

d)

To deny all traffic

10.

Which type of ACL should be configured as close to the source of the traffic to be filtered?

a)

Standard ACLs

b)

Inbound ACLs

c)

Extended ACLs

d)

Outbound ACLs A directly connected entry.

11.

What is the purpose of using wildcard masks in IPv4 ACEs?

a)

To specify destination addresses in ACLs

b)

To determine which bits of the address to examine for a match

c)

To simplify the syntax of ACL commands

d)

To allow unlimited access to network protocols

12.

Where should standard ACLs be configured in relation to the destination of the traffic?

a)

Close to the source

b)

Close to the destination

c)

At the network's perimeter

d)

At the network's core

13.

What command is used to remove an ACL from a router's configuration?

a)

no access-list

b)

clear access-list counters

c)

show access-lists

d)

no sequence-number

14.

What command is used to apply a named ACL to an interface?

a)

ip access-list

b)

access-list access list-number

c)

ip access-group name

d)

show access-lists

15.

How can ACL statistics be examined and reset?

a)

Using the show ip interface command

b)

Using the show access-lists command

c)

Using the clear access-list counters command

d)

Using the no sequence-number named ACL command

16.

What is the purpose of the access-class command?

a)

To secure the VTY port

b)

To configure ACLs for firewall routers

c)

To implement ACLs on border routers

d)

To regulate traffic between different segments of a network

17.

Which method of inter-VLAN routing utilizes a single physical router interface to route traffic between VLANs?

a)

Layer 3 Switching using SVIs

b)

Router-on-a-stick

c)

Legacy Inter-VLAN routing

d)

All of the above

18.

In the router-on-a-stick method, how are VLANs configured on the router?

a)

Each VLAN is assigned a separate physical interface on the router.

b)

Each VLAN is assigned a unique IP address on the router interface.

c)

Each VLAN is configured as a sub-interface on the router interface.

d)

Each VLAN is assigned the same physical interface on the router.

19.

Which method of inter-VLAN routing allows for routing functions to be performed at the hardware level on a network switch?

a)

Layer 3 Switching using SVIs

b)

Router-on-a-stick

c)

Legacy Inter-VLAN routing

d)

All of the above

20.

What is the primary advantage of using inter-VLAN routing in a network?

a)

Improved network security

b)

Enhanced network performance

c)

Efficient use of network resources

d)

All of the above

21.

Which method of inter-VLAN routing is typically used in larger enterprise networks with complex routing configurations?

a)

Layer 3 Switching using SVIs

b)

Router-on-a-stick

c)

Legacy Inter-VLAN routing

22.

How are VLANs assigned to ports in the legacy inter-VLAN routing method?

a)

VLANs are not assigned directly to the physical interfaces on the router.

b)

VLANs are assigned to sub-interfaces on the router.

c)

VLANs are assigned to ports on the network switch.

d)

VLANs are assigned directly to the physical interfaces on the router.

23.

What is the purpose of VLAN trunking in the router-on-a-stick method?

a)

To route traffic between VLANs

b)

To allow a single physical router interface to handle traffic for multiple VLANs

c)

To assign IP addresses to VLANs

24.

How are sub-interfaces configured in the router-on-a-stick method?

a)

Each sub-interface is assigned a unique IP address for the subnet.

b)

Each sub-interface is assigned a unique VLAN ID.

c)

Each sub-interface is configured with a separate physical interface on the router.

d)

Both A and B

25.

Which command is used to verify the sub-interface configurations in the router-on-a-stick method?

a)

show vlan

b)

show ip route

c)

show sub-interfaces

d)

None of the above

26.

How can remote VLAN device connectivity be tested in inter-VLAN routing?

a)

Using the ping command

b)

Using the tracert command

c)

Using the show ip route command

d)

Using the show ver command

27.

Which technology allows the creation of logical groups of network devices, regardless of their physical location?

a)

VPN (Virtual Private Network)

b)

MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching)

c)

DNS (Domain Name System)

d)

NAT (Network Address Translation)

e)

VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network)

28.

What is the purpose of VLAN segmentation in a network?

a)

To increase the speed of network connections

b)

To improve network security by isolating traffic

c)

To reduce the number of network devices required

d)

To simplify network management tasks

e)

To eliminate broadcast traffic on the network

29.

Which VLAN type carries untagged traffic?

a)

Default VLAN

b)

Data VLAN

c)

Management VLAN

d)

Voice VLAN

e)

Native VLAN

30.

How do VLANs help improve network performance?

a)

By increasing the bandwidth of network connections

b)

By reducing the number of network devices

c)

By isolating broadcast traffic to specific devices

d)

By prioritizing voice traffic over other network traffic

e)

By simplifying network management tasks

31.

What is the purpose of a voice VLAN?

a)

To carry data traffic generated by IP phones

b)

To prioritize voice traffic over other network traffic

c)

To restrict access to sensitive information

d)

To simplify project and application management

e)

To carry network management traffic

32.

Which VLAN trunking protocol is widely used in Cisco IOS?

a)

STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)

b)

RIP (Routing Information Protocol)

c)

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

d)

VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol)

e)

BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)

33.

What is the purpose of frame tagging in VLANs?

a)

To add VLAN information to network frames

b)

To prioritize certain frames over others

c)

To encrypt network frames for security

d)

To reduce the size of network frames

e)

To identify the source MAC address of frames

34.

Which technology allows the creation of logical groups of network devices, regardless of their physical location?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

FTP

d)

HTTP

e)

VLAN

35.

Which VLAN carries all untagged traffic?

a)

Default VLAN

b)

Management VLAN

c)

Data VLAN

d)

Native VLAN

e)

Voice VLAN

36.

How do VLANs help improve network performance?

a)

By increasing broadcast traffic

b)

By increasing network congestion

c)

By reducing broadcast traffic

d)

By increasing the overall network traffic

e)

By limiting the number of devices on a VLAN

37.

What is the purpose of frame tagging in VLANs?

a)

To restrict access to sensitive information

b)

To reduce network costs

c)

To improve network performance

d)

To identify VLAN information in trunk links

e)

To manage network resources based on departmental requirements

38.

Which VLAN feature guarantees assured bandwidth and a delay of less than 150 ms for voice traffic?

a)

Data VLAN

b)

Native VLAN

c)

Management VLAN

d)

Voice VLAN

e)

Default VLAN

39.

Which VLAN range encompasses VLAN numbers from 1 to 1005 on Catalyst Switches?

a)

Normal Range VLANs

b)

Extended Range VLANs

c)

Voice VLANs

d)

Management VLANs

e)

Default VLANs

40.

How can you remove a VLAN configuration?

a)

Use the show vlan command

b)

Use the show interfaces command

c)

Use the delete vlan.dat command

d)

Use the reset vlan command

e)

Use the no vlan vlan-id command

41.

What is the most common type of trunk configuration error?

a)

Incorrect VLAN tagging

b)

Incorrect IP address assignment

c)

Incorrect subnet mask

d)

Incorrect default gateway configuration

e)

Incorrect DHCP server configuration

42.

Which VLAN protocol does Cisco IOS support for trunking?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

HTTP

d)

FTP

e)

IEEE 802.1q

43.

Which protocol is commonly used for voice traffic in a converged network?

a)

TCP/IP

b)

RTP

c)

UDP

d)

ICMP

e)

SMTP

44.

What is one of the advantages of using converged networks in organizations?

a)

Increased network congestion

b)

Higher costs

c)

Complicated network management

d)

Improved network efficiency

e)

Limited support for data services

45.

Which network architecture enables the transmission of multiple types of data traffic over a single network infrastructure?

a)

Converged networks

b)

Distributed networks

c)

Hierarchical networks

d)

Switched networks

e)

Cloud-managed networks

46.

Which layer in the hierarchical model of a converged network provides network access to the user?

a)

Access Layer

b)

Distribution Layer

c)

Core Layer

d)

Collapsed Core Layer

e)

Cloud Layer

47.

What is one of the features of the Cisco Borderless Network?

a)

Limited device compatibility

b)

Inflexible access control

c)

Unreliable performance management

d)

Seamless connectivity across different devices

e)

Separate management solutions for network services

48.

Which switch form factor is designed to operate in harsh environments?

a)

Rack-mountable

b)

Standalone

c)

Modular

d)

Cloud-managed

e)

Industrial

49.

Which switch forwarding method calculates the CRC for error detection before forwarding the entire frame?

a)

Cut-Through Switching

b)

Store-and-Forward Switching

c)

Fragment-Free Switching

d)

Store-and-Forward Fragment-Free Switching

e)

Rapid Frame Forwarding

50.

What does a collision domain represent in networking?

a)

Network area where broadcast messages are received

b)

Network congestion caused by excessive broadcasts

c)

Network segment where devices share the same bandwidth

d)

Network segment with high port density

e)

Network boundary established by routers

51.

How can administrators reduce collisions and improve network performance?

a)

Increase broadcast domains

b)

Use hubs instead of switches

c)

Segment networks using routers or switches

d)

Implement half-duplex communication

e)

Decrease port density

52.

When a switch is powered on, which program executes and checks hardware like CPU and RAM?

a)

Boot loader

b)

POST

c)

IOS image

d)

Flash file system

e)

BOOT environment variable

53.

What does the switch do if the BOOT environment variable is not set when powered on?

a)

Executes the boot loader

b)

Shows the prompt switch:

c)

Loads the IOS image into RAM

d)

Launches the executable image file

e)

Scours through the flash file system

54.

Which LED state indicates a link fault on a switch port?

a)

Off

b)

Green

c)

Blinking green

d)

Alternating green and amber

e)

Amber

55.

What is the default VLAN for the management SVI on a switch?

a)

VLAN 1

b)

VLAN 10

c)

VLAN 100

d)

VLAN 1000

e)

VLAN management

56.

What is the main advantage of full-duplex communication over half-duplex communication?

a)

Faster data transmission

b)

Simultaneous data transmission in both directions

c)

Elimination of connectivity issues

d)

Compatibility with older networks

e)

Support for auto-MDIX feature

57.

Which command is used to verify auto-MDIX settings on a switch?

a)

show interface interface_id

b)

show interfaces

c)

show port-security interface

d)

show running-config

e)

show controllers Ethernet-controller

58.

Which parameter of the "show interfaces" command indicates Layer 1 status?

a)

First parameter

b)

Second parameter

c)

Third parameter

d)

Fourth parameter

e)

Fifth parameter

59.

How can you configure SSH on a switch?

a)

Configure the IP domain name

b)

Generate RSA key pairs

c)

Configure user authentication

d)

Configure the vty lines

e)

All of the above

60.

What happens when a port with port security enabled receives data from an unknown MAC address?

a)

The switch drops the data without any notification

b)

The switch drops the data and presents a security violation notification

c)

The interface becomes error-disabled and the port LED turns off

d)

The switch automatically adds the MAC address to the running configuration

e)

The switch resets the port security settings to default

61.

Which common error involving ACLs is illustrated in the figure below?

a)

Entering ACEs in the wrong order

b)

Applying the ACL in the wrong direction

c)

Not specifying adequate ACL rules

d)

Applying the ACL on the wrong interface

62.

What is the solution to the problem described in the figure below?

a)

Remove ACL 20 from G0/1 and apply it outbound on G0/0

b)

Apply ACL 20 inbound on G0/1

c)

Apply ACL 20 outbound on G0/1

d)

Remove ACL 20 from G0/0 and apply it inbound on G0/1

63.

What is the problem with the ACL configuration described in figure below?

a)

The ACL is blocking all SSH traffic

b)

PC1's host address is incorrect

c)

The ACL is permitting the wrong IP address

d)

The ACL is missing a deny statement

64.

What is the correct IP address that should be permitted in the topology in question number 3?

a)

192.168.10.1

b)

192.168.10.10

c)

192.168.11.0

d)

192.168.10.0

65.

What is the default VLAN on Cisco switches?

a)

VLAN 1

b)

VLAN 10

c)

VLAN 100

d)

VLAN 1000

e)

VLAN 4096