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ITE 292 NETWORKING 1 P2 EXAM

Total questions: 38

Worksheet time: 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

a)

the number of routers between the source and destination device

b)

the IP address of the router nearest the destination device

c)

the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source

d)

whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network

e)

the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond

2.

When will a router drop a traceroute packet?

a)

when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message

b)

when the RTT value reaches zero

c)

when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message

d)

when the value in the TTL field reaches zero

e)

when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero

3.

An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::1. What is the target of this packet?

a)

all IPv6 DHCP servers

b)

all IPv6 enabled nodes on the local link

c)

all IPv6 configured routers on the local link

d)

all IPv6 configured routers across the network

4.

What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

a)

an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host

b)

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP

c)

a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site

d)

a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator

e)

an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network

5.

What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)

a)

multicast

b)

loopback

c)

link-local

d)

anycast

e)

broadcast

6.

Which IPv6 address is most compressed for the full FE80:0:0:0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3 address?

a)

FE8::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3?

b)

FE80::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3

c)

FE80::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3?

d)

FE80:::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3?

7.

Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)

a)

IPv4 addresses are 128 bits in length.

b)

IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.

c)

IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length.

d)

IPv4 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.

e)

IPv6 addresses are 32 bits in length.

8.

Which network migration technique encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets to carry them over IPv4 network infrastructures?

a)

encapsulation

b)

translation

c)

dual-stack

d)

tunneling

9.

What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?

a)

/25

b)

/26

c)

/27

d)

/24

10.

Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)

a)

physical portion

b)

host portion

c)

logical portion

d)

network portion

e)

subnet portion

11.

What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?

a)

global unicast

b)

link-local

c)

loopback

d)

unique local

12.

Which protocol supports Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) for dynamic assignment of IPv6 addresses to a host?

a)

ARPv6

b)

DHCPv6

c)

ICMPv6

d)

UDP

13.

What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

a)

to inform routers about network topology changes

b)

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

c)

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions

d)

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

14.

What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

a)

does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection

b)

operates independently of the network media

c)

retransmits packets if errors occur

d)

re-assembles out of order packets into the correct order at the receiver end

e)

guarantees delivery of packets

15.

What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 232?

a)

11101000

b)

11000110

c)

10011000

d)

11110010

16.

What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101?

a)

149

b)

157

c)

168

d)

192

17.

Which field in the IPv4 header is used to prevent a packet from traversing a network endlessly?

a)

Time-to-Live

b)

Sequence Number

c)

Acknowledgment Number

d)

Differentiated Services

18.

What IPv4 header field identifies the upper layer protocol carried in the packet?

a)

Protocol

b)

Identification

c)

Version

d)

Differentiated Services

19.

What is one advantage that the IPv6 simplified header offers over IPv4?

a)

smaller-sized header

b)

little requirement for processing checksums

c)

smaller-sized source and destination IP addresses

d)

efficient packet handling

20.

What type of route is indicated by the code C in an IPv4 routing table on a Cisco router?

a)

static route

b)

default route

c)

directly connected route

d)

dynamic route that is learned through EIGRP

21.

Which two types of router interfaces? (Choose two.)

a)

SVI

b)

LAN

c)

DHCP

d)

Telnet

e)

WAN

22.

Which two pieces of information are in the RAM of a Cisco router during normal operation? (Choose two.)

a)

Cisco IOS

b)

backup IOS file

c)

IP routing table

d)

basic diagnostic software

e)

startup configuration file

23.

What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?

a)

to facilitate the basic operation of the hardware components of a device

b)

to contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup

c)

to contain the configuration commands that the router IOS is currently using

d)

to provide a limited backup version of the IOS, in case the router cannot load the full featured IOS

24.

Which three commands are used to set up secure access to a router through a connection to the console interface? (Choose three.)

a)

line vty 0 4

b)

interface fastethernet 0/0

c)

password cisco

d)

enable secret cisco

e)

line console 0

25.

Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?

a)

IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based on 32-bit hierarchical addressing.

b)

The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling.

c)

Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities.

d)

The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space.

26.

What are the two sizes (minimum and maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.)

a)

56 bytes

b)

64 bytes

c)

128 bytes

d)

1024 bytes

e)

1518 bytes

27.

What statement describes Ethernet?

a)

It defines the most common LAN type in the world.

b)

It is the required Layer 1 and 2 standard for Internet communication.

c)

It defines a standard model used to describe how networking works.

d)

It connects multiple sites such as routers located in different countries.

28.

Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)

a)

Logical link control is implemented in software.

b)

Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.

c)

The LLC sublayer adds a header and a trailer to the data.

d)

The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite.

e)

The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media.

29.

What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?

a)

They must be globally unique.

b)

They are only routable within the private network.

c)

They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU.

d)

They have a 32-bit binary value.

30.

Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

a)

MAC addresses are implemented by software.

b)

A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.

c)

The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.

d)

The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.

31.

What is auto-MDIX?

a)

a type of Cisco switch

b)

an Ethernet connector type

c)

a type of port on a Cisco switch

d)

a feature that detects Ethernet cable type

32.

What is a characteristic of port-based memory buffering?

a)

Frames in the memory buffer are dynamically linked to destination ports.

b)

All frames are stored in a common memory buffer.

c)

Frames are buffered in queues linked to specific ports.

d)

All ports on a switch share a single memory buffer.

33.

A network administrator is connecting two modern switches using a straight-through cable. The switches are new and have never been configured. Which three statements are correct about the final result of the connection? (Choose three.)

a)

The link between the switches will work at the fastest speed that is supported by both switches.

b)

The link between switches will work as full-duplex.

c)

If both switches support different speeds, they will each work at their own fastest speed.

d)

The auto-MDIX feature will configure the interfaces eliminating the need for a crossover cable.

e)

The connection will not be possible unless the administrator changes the cable to a crossover cable.

34.

Which address or combination of addresses does a Layer 3 switch use to make forwarding decisions?

a)

IP address only

b)

port address only

c)

MAC address only

d)

MAC and port addresses

e)

MAC and IP addresses

35.

Which two interfaces will allow access via the VTY lines to configure the router? (Choose two.)

a)

aux interfaces

b)

LAN interfaces

c)

WAN interfaces

d)

console interfaces

e)

USB interfaces

36.

Which two files, if found, are copied into RAM as a router with the default configuration register setting boots up? (Choose two.)

a)

running configuration

b)

IOS image file

c)

startup configuration

d)

POST diagnostics

37.

When would the Cisco IOS image held in ROM be used to boot the router?

a)

during a file transfer operation

b)

during a normal boot process

c)

when the full IOS cannot be found

d)

when the running configuration directs the router to do this

38.

After troubleshooting a router, the network administrator wants to save the router configuration so that it will be used automatically the next time that the router reboots. What command should be issued?

a)

copy running-config flash

b)

copy startup-config flash

c)

copy running-config startup-config

d)

reload

e)

copy startup-config running-config