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Worksheets

BMS I Exam 2 Review 3

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary function of the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

a)

Convert glucose to pyruvate

b)

Convert pyruvate to acetyl-CoA

c)

Convert acetyl-CoA to citric acid

d)

Convert citrate to oxaloacetate

2.

Which molecule inhibits the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

a)

Pyruvate

b)

Acetyl-CoA

c)

NADH

d)

Coenzyme A

3.

Under what conditions does lactate typically form in muscles?

a)

During aerobic respiration

b)

During anaerobic glycolysis

c)

During the citric acid cycle

d)

During oxidative phosphorylation

4.

Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of pyruvate to lactate?

a)

Lactate dehydrogenase

b)

Pyruvate kinase

c)

Phosphofructokinase-1

d)

Alanine transaminase

5.

What is the main purpose of converting pyruvate to lactate in anaerobic conditions?

a)

To produce more ATP directly

b)

To regenerate NAD+ from NADH

c)

To produce acetyl-CoA

d)

To increase glycolysis

6.

Where does lactate go after it is produced in muscles?

a)

It is used locally in the muscle for energy

b)

It is transported to the liver for conversion to glucose

c)

It is excreted as waste

d)

It is directly used in the citric acid cycle

7.

What process in the liver converts lactate back to glucose?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Gluconeogenesis

c)

The citric acid cycle

d)

Glycogenolysis

8.

Which cycle involves the recycling of lactate between muscles and the liver?

a)

Urea cycle

b)

Cori cycle

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

Calvin cycle

9.

What is a common condition associated with the accumulation of lactate in muscles?

a)

Muscle dystrophy

b)

Lactic acidosis

c)

Rhabdomyolysis

d)

Myasthenia gravis

10.

What is the primary factor leading to the production of lactate during intense exercise?

a)

Low oxygen availability

b)

High glucose availability

c)

Increased ATP production

d)

Low pyruvate levels

11.

Which coenzyme does LDH use to catalyze the interconversion between lactate and pyruvate?

a)

FAD

b)

NADH/NAD+

c)

Coenzyme A

d)

ATP

12.

How is the activity of lactate dehydrogenase regulated?

a)

By changes in pH

b)

By the availability of NADH/NAD+

c)

By phosphorylation

d)

By substrate concentration

13.

What is the structural form of lactate dehydrogenase?

a)

A single polypeptide chain

b)

A dimer of identical subunits

c)

A tetramer of subunits

d)

An octamer of subunits

14.

A deficiency in which B vitamin can lead to the development of pellagra, characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia?

a)

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

b)

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

c)

Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

d)

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)

15.

Which B vitamin is crucial for DNA synthesis and its deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anemia?

a)

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)

b)

Vitamin B7 (Biotin)

c)

Vitamin B9 (Folate)

d)

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)

16.

A deficiency of which B vitamin can cause peripheral neuropathy and is often seen in individuals with chronic alcoholism?

a)

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

b)

Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

c)

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)

d)

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)

17.

A deficiency in which B vitamin is often associated with hair loss and skin rashes?

a)

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

b)

Vitamin B7 (Biotin)

c)

Vitamin B3 (Niacin)

d)

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)

18.

Which vitamin B deficiency is particularly common in people with a condition called pernicious anemia?

a)

Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin)

b)

Vitamin B9 (Folate)

c)

Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)

d)

Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine)

19.

What is the primary purpose of anapleurotic reactions in metabolism?

a)

To generate ATP

b)

To provide intermediates for biosynthetic pathways

c)

To replenish intermediates, like those used in the citric acid cycle

d)

To break down fatty acids

20.

Which cycle is specifically replenished by anapleurotic reactions?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Urea cycle

c)

TCA Cycle

d)

Calvin cycle

21.

Which of the following reactions is an example of an anapleurotic reaction?

a)

Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA

b)

Conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate

c)

Conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate

d)

Conversion of citrate to isocitrate

22.

Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate in an anapleurotic reaction?

a)

Pyruvate dehydrogenase

b)

Pyruvate carboxylase

c)

Citrate synthase

d)

Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

23.

What is the primary characteristic of an exergonic reaction?

a)

It absorbs energy from the surroundings

b)

It releases energy to the surroundings

c)

It occurs only at high temperatures

d)

It requires a catalyst to proceed

24.

Which term describes the change in Gibbs free energy (ΔG) for an exergonic reaction?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Zero

d)

Variable

25.

In which of the following processes does an exergonic reaction occur?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cellular respiration

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

DNA replication

26.

What is the primary characteristic of an endergonic reaction?

a)

It releases energy to the surroundings

b)

It absorbs energy from the surroundings

c)

It occurs spontaneously

d)

It decreases the entropy of the system

27.

Which term describes the change in Gibbs free energy (ΔG) for an endergonic reaction?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Zero

d)

Variable

28.

In which of the following processes does an endergonic reaction occur?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Hydrolysis of ATP

c)

Synthesis of glucose in photosynthesis

d)

Glycolysis

29.

What does a negative Gibbs free energy change (ΔG) indicate about a reaction?

a)

The reaction is at equilibrium

b)

The reaction is endergonic and non-spontaneous

c)

The reaction is exergonic and spontaneous

d)

The reaction is reversible

30.

What is the primary function of G proteins in cellular signaling?

a)

To synthesize proteins

b)

To act as intracellular second messengers

c)

To transduce signals from G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) to intracellular effectors

d)

To transport molecules across the cell membrane

31.

Which component of the G protein is responsible for binding and hydrolyzing GTP?

a)

Alpha subunit

b)

Beta subunit

c)

Gamma subunit

d)

All three subunits together

32.

How many subunits make up a typical G protein?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

33.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of activation for a G protein?

a)

GPCR → G protein → Effector

b)

G protein → GPCR → Effector

c)

GPCR → Effector → G protein

d)

G protein → Effector → GPCR

34.

What happens to the G protein alpha subunit after it binds GTP?

a)

It dissociates from the beta and gamma subunits

b)

It binds irreversibly to the GPCR

c)

It binds to the effector molecule

d)

It hydrolyzes ATP

35.

What is the primary function of myoglobin in muscle tissue?

a)

To transport oxygen to various tissues

b)

To store oxygen for use during muscle contraction

c)

To catalyze the breakdown of glycogen

d)

To regulate blood pressure

36.

In which tissues is myoglobin primarily found?

a)

Liver and kidney

b)

Heart and skeletal muscle

c)

Blood and lymph

d)

Brain and lung

37.

In which tissues is hemoglobin predominantly found?

a)

Heart and liver

b)

Skeletal muscle and brain

c)

Red blood cells (erythrocytes)

d)

Skin and connective tissue

38.

What structural characteristic of myoglobin helps it to efficiently store oxygen in muscle tissue?

a)

Its tetrameric structure

b)

Its single heme group with a high affinity for oxygen

c)

Its ability to bind multiple oxygen molecules

d)

Its interaction with hemoglobin in the blood

39.

Which coenzyme is required by both ALT and AST for their catalytic activity?

a)

NAD+

b)

Coenzyme A

c)

Pyridoxal phosphate (Vitamin B6)

d)

FAD

40.

In the ALT reaction, what is the product when alanine donates its amino group?

a)

Aspartate

b)

Pyruvate

c)

α-Ketoglutarate

d)

Oxaloacetate