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ACR-204 Baseline

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 3hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The component used to switch the heat pump unit between the heating and cooling modes of operation is the ____.

a)

four-way valve

b)

bi-valve

c)

two-way valve

d)

switching valve

2.

The main valve in a pilot-operated four-way reversing valve is moved by pressure created by the ____.

a)

refrigerant boiling in the coil

b)

pressure reduction in the condenser

c)

change in the action of the metering device

d)

low and high side pressure difference

3.

The smaller line in an air-to-air split-system heat pump is known as the ____ line.

a)

gas

b)

vapor

c)

solid

d)

liquid

4.

A common method of starting defrost uses an air pressure switch that measures the difference in pressure ____.

a)

between the fan compartment and the evaporator coil

b)

between the outdoor pressure and the fan discharge pressure

c)

of the air across the outdoor coil

d)

of the refrigerant in the condenser and the pressure in the coil

5.

When brazing a four-way reversing valve, a wet rag could be wrapped around the body of the valve to minimize the chance of internal damage to the valve.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

TXVs used in cooling-only air-conditioning units and heat pumps are interchangeable as long as they are the same size and for the same refrigerant.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

It is common for the outdoor unit to ice-up when the heat pump is operated in the cooling mode.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The water-to-air heat pump might not need auxiliary heat because the water can be at relatively constant temperature all winter.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The ______ is a four-port valve that has a slide mechanism in it.

a)
four-way reversing valve
b)

three-way reversing valve

c)

both

d)

none

10.

The coil of the air-to-air heat pump system that is the indoor unit is known as the ______ in the heating mode.

a)
condenser
b)

evaporator

c)

compressor

d)

txv

11.

The coil that serves the inside of the house in a heat pump is known as the ______.

a)
indoor coil
b)

outdoor coil

c)

compressor

d)

txv

12.

A(n) _______ thermostatic expansion valve has a check valve built into the body of the TXV.

a)
bi-directional
b)

electronic

c)

adujusting

d)

automatic

13.

A common metering device is a combination flow device and check valve. This device is referred to as a(n) _______.

a)
piston
b)

txv

c)

eev

d)

aev

14.

In time-temperature defrost controls, the temperature that actuates the control is the temperature of the _______ coil.

a)
outdoor
b)

indoor

c)

compressor

d)

txv

15.

An air-to-air heat pump ____ heat from the outside air and deposits it in the conditioned space.

a)

adds

b)

removes

c)

creates

d)

restricts

16.

The larger line in an air-to-air split-system heat pump is known as the ____ line.

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

transient

d)

gas

17.

Termination of the defrost cycle by temperature occurs when the temperature sensor reaches ____.

a)

35°F

b)

45°F

c)

50°F

d)

65°F

18.

What prevents cold air from being circulated to the heated space during the defrost cycle?

a)

The auxiliary heater turns on to "temper" the air.

b)

All of the dampers close automatically.

c)

The indoor fan motor turns off.

d)

Both a and b are correct.

19.

During operation, the compressor motor will rotate in the opposite direction to change the direction of refrigerant flow.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

In the emergency heat mode, the auxiliary heat source becomes the primary heat source because of heat pump failure.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

When a compressor is changed, the four-way valve also must be changed.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

The coil of the air-to-air heat pump system that is the indoor unit is known as the ______ in the cooling mode.

a)
evaporator
b)

compressor

c)

condenser

d)

metering device

23.

In heat pump systems the sensing bulb is typically exposed to high temperatures and could rupture the valve diaphragm. For this reason, a(n) ______ TXV is usually used.

a)
vapor-charged
b)

liquid-charge

c)

both

d)

neither

24.

Some heat pump systems when not capable of meeting the heating needs of the structure are equipped with second-stage heat, called _______.

a)
auxiliary heat
b)

heat

c)

auxiliary

d)

none

25.

The lowest outside air temperature at which the heat pump system can satisfy the heating needs of the structure without requiring auxiliary heat is called the _______.

a)
balance point
b)

COP

c)

TOP

d)

none

26.

The coefficient of performance of a heat pump operating in the heat mode tends to _______ as the outside air temperature drops.

a)
decrease
b)

increase

c)

stay the same

d)

none

27.

When a heat pump is added to an electric furnace, the indoor coil must be located after the _______ strips.

a)
heat
b)

cool

c)

liquid

d)

vapor

28.

(a)   involves the removal of heat from a place where it is not wanted and depositing it in a place where it makes little or no difference.

29.
As a rule of thumb, the air leaving the evaporator will be about ____ than the air entering the evaporator.
a)
17-20° cooler
b)
10-15° warmer
c)
10-15° cooler
d)
17-20° warmer
30.
A service valve can be used to ____.
a)
isolate the refrigerant so the system can be serviced
b)
check the electrical service to the compressor
c)
check the air flow across the evaporator
d)
check the ambient temperature at the condenser
31.
A typical evaporator superheat reading at the evaporator outlet for a central air-conditioning system on a 95°F day would be ____°F.
a)
10-12
b)
8-10
c)
5-7
d)
12-15
32.
On a 95°F day, the R-22 refrigerant pressure on the high side should be about ____ psig.
a)
243
b)
108
c)
182
d)
297
33.
The liquid line temperature is used to determine the ____ of a condenser.
a)
subcooling
b)
superheat
c)
lowside pressure
d)
suction pressure
34.
To accurately add refrigerant to a system, a condenser ambient temperature of ____°F should be simulated.
a)
95
b)
75
c)
85
d)
100
35.
The instrument to use to check for a short in the compressor motor winding is a(n) ____.
a)
ohmmeter
b)
ammeter
c)
voltmeter
d)
milliammeter
36.
With a rise in outdoor temperature, the head pressure will rise.
a)
True
b)
False
37.
Superheat occurs in the condenser as well as the evaporator.
a)
True
b)
False
38.
The best way to tell if a compressor's discharge line is at the correct temperature is to grab hold of it.
a)
False
b)
True
39.
Subcooling occurs in the evaporator as well as the condenser.
a)
False
b)
True
40.
When checking the electrical circuits of an air-conditioning system, each parallel circuit should be isolated and checked separately.
a)
True
b)
False
41.
If a compressor has a partially shorted winding, it could run for a while, overheat, and shut off.
a)
True
b)
False
42.
Reducing the CFM through the evaporator will cause the head pressure to ____________________.
a)
Decrease
b)
Increase
c)
Stay the same
d)
Nothing
43.
On most gauge manifolds, the suction or low side gauge is located on the ____________________.
a)
Left
b)
Right
c)
Middle
d)
None of the above
44.
Temperature difference is used to describe the difference in the inlet and _________ temperature of a heat exchanger.
a)
Outlet
b)
Inlet
c)
Opposite
d)
Suction
45.
Two types of fixed-bore metering devices are capillary tubes and _________________________.
a)
Orifice
b)
Inlets
c)
Fixed
d)
Expansive
46.
Reducing the CFM through the evaporator will cause the amperage draw of the compressor to
a)
Decrease
b)
Increase
c)
Stay the same
d)
Nothing
47.
Why do we measure temperatures at the evaporator rather than the suction pressure?
a)
It is difficult to read the suction pressure at the evaporator because it normally has no gauge port.
b)
It is difficult to read the suction pressure at the compressor because it normally has no gauge port.
c)
It is difficult to read the suction pressure at the evaporator because it always has a gauge port.
d)
It is difficult to read the suction pressure at the compressor because it always has a gauge port.
48.
T/F: Why should a technician visually inspect the equipment before installing gauges? Installation of gauges may not be necessary and refrigerant is lost whenever gauges are installed and removed.
a)
True
b)
False
49.
When is it necessary to connect gauges onto a system?
a)
This is necessary only when temperature tests show a refrigerant quantity or flow problem.
b)
This is necessary only when electrical tests show a refrigerant quantity or flow problem.
c)
This is necessary only when volume tests show a refrigerant quantity or flow problem.
d)
This is necessary only when temperature tests show a refrigerant quantity but no flow problems.
50.
While passing through the condenser, refrigerant is in three different states. What are they?
a)
superheated vapor, saturated, subcooled liquid
b)
superheated liquid, saturated, subcooled liquid
c)
superheated vapor, saturated, subcooled vapor
d)
superheated liquid, saturated, subcooled vapor
51.
How would too much refrigerant affect the operation of a system with capillary tubes?
a)
It would raise the head pressure and suction pressure, reduce superheat, and reduce the system capacity.
b)
It would lower the head pressure and suction pressure, reduce superheat, and reduce the system capacity.
c)
It would raise the head pressure and suction pressure, increase superheat, and reduce the system capacity.
d)
It would raise the head pressure and suction pressure, reduce superheat, and increase the system capacity.
52.
Where is the correct location for a sight glass in order to check the charge?
a)
The correct location is at the metering device on the condenser side.
b)
The correct location is at the metering device on the evaporator side.
c)
The correct location is at the metering device on the expansion device side.
d)
The correct location is at the metering device on the compressor side.
53.
What is the process that normally begins the electrical troubleshooting of the system?
a)
By verifying that the power supply is energized and that the voltage is correct.
b)
By verifying that the power supply isn't energized and that the voltage is correct.
c)
By verifying that the power supply is energized and that the amps are correct.
d)
By verifying that the power supply is energized and that the watts is correct.
54.
T/F: If a technician finds the circuit protection for an air-conditioning component has been tripped, what should the technician do? Perform a resistance check of the compressor section, including the fan motor. SAFETY PRECAUTION: The compressor may be grounded (may have a circuit to the case of the compressor), and it could be dangerous to try to start it. Be sure to isolate the compressor circuit before condemning the compressor. Take the motor leads off the compressor to check for a voltage circuit in the compressor.
a)
False
b)
True
55.
Match the symptom with all possible causes. Refrigerant overcharge
a)
High operating pressures
b)
Low operating pressures
c)
Frozen evaporator
d)
Uneven cooling
56.
Match the symptom with all possible causes. Refrigerant undercharge
a)
Low operating pressures
b)
High operating pressures
c)
Heated evaporator
d)
Uneven cooling
57.
Match the symptom with all possible causes. Blocked/dirty filter
a)
Low operating pressures
b)
High operating pressures
c)
Heated evaporator
d)
Uneven cooling
58.
Match the symptom with all possible causes. Non-condensable gas in system
a)
High operating pressures
b)
Low operating pressures
c)
Heated evaporator
d)
Uneven cooling
59.
Match the symptom with all possible causes. Defective condenser fan motor
a)
High operating pressures
b)
Low operating pressures
c)
Heated evaporator
d)
Uneven cooling
60.
Match the symptom with all possible causes. Defective evaporator fan motor
a)
Low operating pressures
b)
High operating pressures
c)
Heated evaporator
d)
Uneven cooling
61.
Match the symptom with all possible causes. Improper system balancing
a)
Uneven cooling
b)
High operating pressures
c)
Heated evaporator
d)
Low operating pressures
62.
Match the symptom with all possible causes. Dirty condenser coil
a)
High operating pressures
b)
Uneven cooling
c)
Heated evaporator
d)
Low operating pressures
63.

Most occupants will normally operate their system at about ____°F.

a)

68

b)

72

c)

75

d)

80

64.

AHRI rates condensers with ____°F air passing over them.

a)

70

b)

75

c)

85

d)

95

65.

At what conditions are air-conditioning systems rated?

a)

95°F outdoors - 70°F DB - 50% indoors

b)

95°F outdoors - 75°F DB - 50% indoors

c)

95°F outdoors - 80°F DB - 50% indoors

d)

100°F outdoors - 80°F DB - 60% indoors

66.

At typical operating conditions, the standard air-conditioning system will operate with an evaporator boiling point of ____°F.

a)

40

b)

45

c)

50

d)

55

67.

A normal evaporator superheat at the evaporator outlet in a standard efficiency air-conditioning system operating under design conditions will be ____°F.

a)

10

b)

15

c)

20

d)

25

68.

At typical operating conditions, the high efficiency air-conditioning system will operate with an evaporator boiling point of ____°F.

a)

40

b)

45

c)

50

d)

55

69.

A more accurate rating system for air-conditioning equipment that takes into consideration operation during the complete cycle is the ____ standard.

a)

ARI

b)

ACCA

c)

SEER

d)

EER

70.

The ____ rating is a steady-state rating and does not account for the time the unit operates before reaching peak efficiency.

a)

ARI

b)

ACCA

c)

SEER

d)

EER

71.

Ratings that are not completely accurate are known as ____.

a)

load ratings

b)

maximal ratings

c)

nominal ratings

d)

floor ratings

72.

Since the evaporator absorbs both sensible and latent heat, humidity must be taken into account and considered part of the load on the evaporator.

a)

true

b)

false

73.

High efficiency condensers can actually be too efficient on cool days.

a)

true

b)

false

74.

The larger the EER rating, the less efficient the equipment.

a)

true

b)

false

75.

Typically, the fan will run on high speed when the outdoor temperature is above (a)   °F.

76.

The evaporator (a)   heat.

77.

The condenser (a)   heat.

78.

A 4-ton air-conditioning system that requires an input power of 5 kW would have an energy efficiency ratio of (a)   .

79.

The electrical operating conditions are measured with a voltohmmeter and a(n) (a)   .

80.

For residential air-conditioning units, (a)   V single-phase is the typical voltage.

81.

Air-conditioning systems normally move about (a)   cfm of air per ton.

82.

A four-pole motor runs at (a)   rpm.

83.

Why does the high efficiency system have a higher operating efficiency?

a)

It operates at lower head pressures because of larger condenser surface.

b)

It operates at higher head pressures because of larger condenser surface.

c)

It operates at lower head pressures because of smaller condenser surface.

d)

It operates at higher head pressures because of smaller condenser surface.

84.

What are the three major power-consuming devices that may have to be analyzed from time to time on an air-conditioning unit?

a)

the indoor fan relay, the outdoor fan motor, and the compressor.

b)

the indoor fan motor, the outdoor fan motor, and the compressor.

c)

the indoor fan motor, the outdoor fan motor, and the contactor

d)

the indoor fan motor, the outdoor fan relay, and the compressor.

85.

High-efficiency air-conditioning systems may use a (n) (a)   rather than a fixed-bore metering device.

86.

The seasonal energy efficiency ratio (SEER) calculations include the energy used in the start-up and shutdown cycles.

a)

true

b)

false

87.

The compressor amperage of a 3-ton system operating on 230 V is approximately ____ A.

a)

17

b)

18

c)

20

d)

25

88.

Capacitors should be shorted with a (n) ______ before checking with an ohmmeter.

a)

30,000-ohm resistor

b)

20,000-ohm resistor

c)

10,000-ohm resistor

89.

Before installing a gauge on the high-pressure side of a system, you should do which of the following?

a)

Turn on the system.

b)

Turn off the system.

c)

Adjust the system to a neutral position.

d)

Have a cylinder approved by the DOT nearby.

90.

The high- and low-side pressures of an operating air-conditioning system can be converted, using a temperature-pressure chart, to which temperatures?

a)

Boiling and critical

b)

Boiling and condensing

c)

Melting and ambient

d)

Liquid and vapor

91.

When the ambient outside air temperature is 95°F and the unit is a high-efficiency unit, the lowest condensing refrigerant temperature when the unit is operating properly is

a)

110°F.

b)

115°F.

c)

120°F.

d)

125°F.

92.

The suction gas may have a high superheat if the unit has a (n) _______ charge.

a)

high

b)

low

c)

mid

d)

none

93.

If the suction pressure is low and the suction line is warm, the system has a ___ evaporator.

a)

full

b)

starved

94.

If a condenser circuit breaker is tripped, you should

a)

reset it.

b)

check the suction pressure

c)

check the high-side pressure.

d)

perform a resistance check of the compressor section.

95.

When troubleshooting a small system, the first step is to attach the high- and low-pressure gauges.

a)

true

b)

false