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Ophtha 250 Quizlet

Total questions: 25

Worksheet time: 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following should be asked FIRST when assessing a patient who presents with a red eye?

a)

How long have you had the redness?

b)

Do you wear contact lenses

c)

Is the redness associated with any discharge

d)

Have you experienced any trauma to the eye

2.

A 50-year-old diabetic patient presents with blurry vision and reports no pain. What question would be most helpful to assess if diabetic retinopathy is the cause?

a)

Do you have high blood pressure?

b)

Are you on any maintenance medications?

c)

How well is your blood sugar control?

d)

Do you have a family history of eye disease?

3.

A 60-year-old man reports seeing halos around lights and difficulty seeing at night. Which additional question would help differentiate between cataracts and glaucoma?

a)

Do you have a family history of eye problems?

b)

Have you had any recent changes in your prescription glasses?

c)

Do you feel any eye pain or pressure?

d)

Do you experience double vision?

4.

A patient's visual acuity is recorded as 20/40. What does this notation mean?

a)

The patient can see at 40 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 20 feet.

b)

The patient can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 40 feet.

c)

The patient can see at 40 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 40 feet.

d)

The patient has vision twice as good as normal vision.

5.

If a patient is unable to read the largest letter on the Snellen chart at 20 feet, what is the next appropriate step in assessing their vision?

a)

Move the patient closer to the chart.

b)

Perform a pinhole test.

c)

Use the Jaeger chart for near vision instead.

d)

Test for color vision using the Ishihara plates.

6.

What is the correct procedure for testing visual acuity in a patient with glasses or contact lenses?

a)

Test each eye individually without correction, then with correction.

b)

Test both eyes together without correction.

c)

Test each eye individually with correction, then without correction.

d)

Test only with correction.

7.

When performing a visual acuity test in a child, what is an appropriate action if the child is uncooperative or unable to focus on the chart?

a)

Use a lower-resolution chart.

b)

Perform a visual assessment using light reflex testing.

c)

Use the Snellen chart at a shorter distance.

d)

Stop the test and assume the child has poor vision.

8.

Which of the following is the correct method for recording near visual acuity using a Jaeger chart?

a)

Record the distance at which the patient reads the smallest line of text.

b)

Record the fraction, similar to a Snellen chart.

c)

Use the J scale and record the smallest line number the patient can read.

d)

Use the pinhole to record near visual acuity.

9.

Which of the following is assessed during the external inspection of the eye in a gross examination?

a)

Visual acuity

b)

Pupil reaction to light

c)

Eyelid position and symmetry

d)

Red reflex

10.

Which of the following would be considered a normal finding in a gross eye examination?

a)

Mild ptosis

b)

Conjunctival pallor

c)

Clear cornea with no opacities

d)

Constricted pupils in dim light

11.

When one eye is exposed to bright light, a ____________ occurs (constriction of that pupil) as well as a _____________(simultaneous constriction of the other pupil) occurs in normal patients.

a)

Consensual light reflex, Primary light reflex

b)

Primary light reflex, Secondary light reflex

c)

Direct light reflex, Consensual light reflex

d)

Consensual light reflex, direct light reflex

12.

What would be the expected finding in the pupillary light reflex of a patient with complete oculomotor nerve palsy in the right eye?

a)

Both pupils constrict equally when light is shined in either eye

b)

The right pupil remains dilated when light is shined in either eye

c)

The left pupil constricts when light is shined in the right eye, but the right pupil does not

d)

Both pupils remain dilated when light is shined in the left eye

13.

Which of the following is/are NOT a component/s of the near triad (accommodation reflex)?

a)

Pupil dilation

b)

Lens thickening

c)

Convergence of the eyes

d)

Pupil constriction

e)

Thinning of the lens

14.

In which of the following situations would intraocular pressure measurement be contraindicated?

a)

A patient with a corneal infection

b)

A patient using topical steroid eye drops

c)

A patient with a history of cataract surgery

d)

A patient with dry eye syndrome

15.

A patient's intraocular pressures are reported as follows:

Right Eye = 16 mm Left Eye = 12 mm

How should these findings be interpreted?

a)

The patient has normal IOPs; both measurements fall within the normal IOP range.

b)

The patient has abnormal IOPs; both IOP measurements fall outside of normal IOP range.

c)

A pathology should be ruled out; while both IOP readings are within normal IOP range, they exceed the allowable difference of 2 mm.

16.

Which tonometry method is most appropriate for use in children and non-cooperative patients?

a)

Goldmann applanation tonometry

b)

Schiotz tonometry

c)

Rebound tonometry

d)

Dynamic contour tonometry

17.

Which of the following factors can lead to falsely elevated intraocular pressure measurements

using Goldmann applanation tonometry?

a)

Thin corneas

b)

Thick corneas

c)

Use of anesthetic eye drops

d)

Dilated pupils

18.

Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with extraocular muscle palsy?

a)

Photophobia

b)

Blurred vision

c)

Diplopia

d)

Eye pain

19.

When performing motility testing, a patient is asked to look at a specific direction to assess the function of an extraocular muscle. Which of the pairings between direction and EOM is/are correct?

a)

Inferior rectus:

down and out

b)

Inferior oblique: down and in

c)

Superior rectus:

up and out

d)

Superior oblique:

down and in

e)

Superior oblique: down and out

20.

Based on this photo of a patient on right upgaze, which EOM exhibits limitation in movement?

a)

Right superior rectus

b)

Right inferior oblique

c)

Right inferior rectus

d)

Right superior oblique

21.

If the corneal light reflection is displaced outward as shown in the photo, what does the patient have?

a)

hypertropia

b)

hypotropia

c)

esotropia

d)

exotropia

22.

In direct ophthalmoscopy, what is the purpose of adjusting the diopter settings?

a)

To focus the ophthalmoscope on different depths of the eye

b)

To illuminate the retina more clearly

c)

To adjust the field of view

d)

To magnify the optic disc

23.

Which of the following is the normal color of a healthy optic disc observed

during a fundus examination?

a)

Pale white

b)

Pinkish-yellow

c)

Bright red

d)

Dark brown

24.

Select disc/s with normal cup:disc ratio.

a)

b)

c)

d)

25.

Select the normal fundus.

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)