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Domain 2 - Network Security

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Practicing separation of services reduces the ___________ on each server.

a)

Traffic

b)

Attack surface

c)

Data speed

d)

Data latency

2.

Which is NOT a step that users can take to harden devices, including servers?

a)

Configure remote access

b)

Disable unnecessary accounts

c)

Remove administrative accounts

d)

Transfer server to a separate subnet

3.

Part of patch management entails making sure either a device or an app always has the latest patches, which usually involve__________

a)

New software

b)

Password updates

c)

Security updates

d)

New features

4.

Which command is used to make a device update to any Group policies that apply to that device?

a)

Gpupdate/now

b)

Gpupdate/device

c)

Gpforce/update

d)

Gpupdate/force

5.

Which is one way to get server updates?

a)

Use a WSUS server

b)

Use a RODC server

c)

Use a NECC database

d)

Use a WCSS database

6.

Which dynamic update setting, when enabled, ensures that each update must be installed manually?

a)

Nonsecure only

b)

Secure only

c)

None

d)

Nonsecure and secure

7.

Which 3 protocols should be disabled due to a lack of encryption?

a)

PAP

Telnet

Anonymous FTP

b)

Anonymous FTP

SFTP

FTP with passwords

c)

Telnet

Anonymous FTP

FTP with passwords

d)

PAP

Telnet

FTP with passwords

8.

A user wants Set up Remote Access for their device. Which protocol should they use instead of Telnet?

a)

Telent 2.0

b)

PSP

c)

Secure shell (SSH)

d)

HTTP

9.

Which items should be installed in a branch office to secure information from a domain controller in a headquarters office?

a)

RODC

b)

OSP

c)

NVHS

d)

OSP

10.

In a RODC updates are _____ controlled and pushed down from a full domain controller.

a)

Centrally

b)

User

c)

Admin

d)

Globally

e)

Remotely

11.

Which Items need to be updated regularly in an antivirus software program?

a)

Programs

b)

Drivers

c)

Definitions

d)

Policies

12.

Which 3 items help protect against unwanted software installations?

a)

Third-party restriction software

Devices Guard

Group policy

b)

Group policy

Single factor authentication

Adware

c)

Devices Guard

Single factor authentication

Group policy

d)

Third-party restriction software

Devices Guard

Adware

13.

Which item helps prevent potentially harmful programs from making changes to a user’s computer?

a)

Device-Guard

b)

Encryption tab

c)

Antivirus software

d)

User account control

14.

Which are 3 authentication factors?

a)

What you have

What you are

What you know

b)

What you have

What you say

What you do

c)

What you have

What you say

What you are

d)

What you are

What you know

What you do

15.

Strong passwords have at test ______ characters.

a)

10

b)

7

c)

12

d)

8

16.

Which version of windows is required at minimum to host a remote connection on a device?

a)

Windows Vista

b)

Windows 10 Professional

c)

Windows 7

d)

Windows 10

17.

What do virtual smart cards use for authentication?

a)

TPM chip

b)

Biometrics

c)

Card reader

d)

Password

18.

What do physical smart cards use for authentication?

a)

TMP chip

b)

Biometrics

c)

Card reader

d)

Biometrics

19.

RADIUS is used to authenticate which 3 outside connections to a network?

a)

Proxy servers

Web servers

VPNs

b)

VPNs

Dial-ins

SQL servers

c)

Proxy servers

VPNs

SQL servers

d)

Web servers

VPNs

Dial-ins

20.

Biometrics is also known as which form of authentication?

a)

What you do

b)

What you say

c)

What you have

d)

What you are

21.

When running an app that requires elevated privileges, which windows feature should be used?

a)

Run as

b)

Safe mode

c)

UAC

d)

Administrative mode

22.

Which 2 users or groups are created via the computer Management tool?

a)

Global users

Local users

b)

Local groups

Global groups

c)

Local users

Local groups

d)

Global users

Global groups

23.

When an administrator grants permissions on a folder to a group, which 3 permission levels are assigned by default?

a)

Read & execute

List folder contents

Read

b)

Read & execute

List folder contents

Modify

c)

List folder contents

Modify

Write

d)

Read & execute

List folder contents

Write

24.

Which 2 permission levels are available to assign to a user or group when creating a basic share on a folder?

a)

Change

Read

b)

Read/Write

Read

c)

Own

Change

d)

Read/Write

Change

25.

Which command is used to access the registry?

a)

Regedit

b)

Registry

c)

Rerun

d)

Rechange

26.

Which registry hive stores file associations?

a)

HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

b)

HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE

c)

HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

d)

HKEY_CURRENT_USER

27.

In the registry, data is stored in _______ and _______

a)

Boxes, drives

b)

Hives, composites

c)

Keys, subkeys

d)

Containers, subcontainers

28.

Active Directory stores all users and __________ on a domain-based network.

a)

Permissions

b)

Passwords

c)

Networks

d)

Servers

29.

Which 2 are network authentication protocols?

a)

NTLM

Kerberos

b)

LOAP

NTLM

c)

SSO

Kerberos

d)

NTLM

SSO

30.

Which Active Directory tool allows an administrator to create and run scripts for automation purposes?

a)

Active Directory sites and services

b)

Active Directory Domains and Trusts

c)

Active Directory Administrative center

d)

Active Directory Module for windows PowerShell

31.

From a folder’s properties, where can an administrator see which folder is a parent folder for inherited permissions?

a)

Advanced button on the security tab

b)

Advanced button on the sharing tab

c)

Edit button on the security tab

d)

Edit button on the sharing tab

32.

When copying a folder from one location to another, the folder’s permissions for the new copy are ___________

a)

Inherited from its parent

b)

Set up full control

c)

Nonexistent and must be reassigned

d)

The same as the original copy

33.

When moving a folder from one location to another on the same drive, the folder’s permissions ___________

a)

Remain the same

b)

Are inherited from its parent

c)

Are nonexistent and must be assigned

d)

Are set to read-only for all groups

34.

If a user is assigned to both the users and administrators groups, which permissions will the user have on a folder when both groups have permissions on that folder?

a)

The group with the most lenient permissions

b)

Inherited permissions from the folder’s parent

c)

The group with the strictest permissions

d)

Cumulative permissions from both groups in the folder

35.

While in advanced security settings, what should an administrator do to view advanced permissions for a specific user or group?

a)

Click the user or group

b)

Click the user or group and click view

c)

Double-click the user or group

d)

Click the user or group and click edit

36.

To delegate control on an organizational unit, an administrator should ___________

a)

Change folder permissions

b)

Run the delegation of control wizard

c)

Change folder ownership

d)

Change the delegation settings on the security tab

37.

Which 3 permissions holders are used in Linux?

a)

Owner

Administrator

User

b)

Owner

Administrator

Others

c)

User

Group

Others

d)

Owner

Administrator

Group

38.

 

Which 2 options are available for auditing?

a)

Success

Read

b)

Success

Write

c)

Failure

Success

d)

Write

Read

39.

What is used to audit non-Active Directory objects?

a)

Object access

b)

Directory service access

c)

System

d)

Process tracking

40.

Which encryption method is used to encrypt an external hard drive?

a)

BitLocker drives

b)

BitLocker to go

c)

EFS

d)

BitLocker TPM

41.

SSL is an example of which kind of encryption?

a)

Hardware-based encryption

b)

Mail encryption

c)

Software-based encryption

d)

Virtual private network

42.

What are the 2 main methods used to encrypt email?

a)

S/MME

PGP

b)

S/MME

SSID

c)

PAP

SSTP

d)

S/MME

SSTP

43.

Which 3 rules should users follow to ensure secure communication processes?

a)

Ensure information subject to industry regulation is disclosed via email

Use business-specific communication channels

Only disclose PII through email or text channels

b)

Ensure information subject to industry regulation is disclosed via email

Use business-specific communication channels

Avoid posting company information on social media

c)

Use business-specific communication channels

Avoid mixing business and personal information via text

Avoid posting company information on social media

d)

Ensure information subject to industry regulation is disclosed via email

Use business-specific communication channels

Avoid mixing business and personal information via text

44.

Chat windows left open at work are vulnerable to which type of attack?

a)

MITM

b)

Brute force

c)

Phishing

d)

Worms

e)

Hoax Virus

45.

Which 4 are VPN authentication forms?

a)

EAP-MS-CHAPv2

MS-CHAPv2

PAP

CHAP

b)

MS-CHAPv2

PAP

L2TP

CHAP

c)

EAP-MS-CHAPv2

PAP

L2TP

CHAP

d)

EAP-MS-CHAPv2

MS-CHAPv2

L2TP

CHAP

46.

_____ keys are usually used to encrypt data ______ keys are usually used to encrypt data.

a)

Symmetric, Asymmetric

b)

Public, Symmetric

c)

Public, Private

d)

Symmetric, private

47.

Which 3 of these encryption methods uses block ciphers?

a)

3DES

DES

AES

b)

TLS

3DES

DES

c)

SSL

DES

AES

d)

SSL

3DES

DES

48.

Which 3 types of encryption are asymmetric?

a)

SSL

TLS

DES

b)

PGP

SSL

TLS

c)

PGP

TKIP

SSL

d)

PGP

TLS

DES

49.

Which of the following formats allows exporting for both private keys and certificates?

a)

PKCS #7

b)

DER-encoded binary x.509

c)

Base64 encoded x.509

d)

PKCS #12

50.

When viewing a certificate, under which 2 tabs can you find the expiration dates for that certificate?

a)

Details

General

b)

Logins

Details

c)

Certificate path

Logins

d)

Logins

Default Encoding

51.

Certificates that are revoked or expired are stored in which part of a PKI?

a)

CPF

b)

RA

c)

CA

d)

CRL

52.

________ uses code integrity policies to lock devices to run only trusted apps.

a)

Device guard

b)

Block device

c)

Device identifier

d)

EM Shielding

53.

Which administrative tool is used to read auditing logs?

a)

Local security policy

b)

Syslog

c)

Group policy

d)

Event viewer

54.

What are permissions set for viewing audit logs?

a)

In the event viewer

b)

On the folder storing the logs

c)

In the audit log settings

d)

In the security log settings

55.

The _______ encryption method allows a user to copy and paste folders while still maintaining the encryption.

a)

BitLocker

b)

EFS

c)

TPM

d)

TLS