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Reviewer for Cloud Computing

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 7hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

is a technology paradigm that enables on-demand access to

a shared pool of computing resources, such as servers, storage, databases, networking, and

software applications, over the internet.

a)
grid computing
b)
edge computing
c)
fog computing
d)
cloud computing
2.

It allows organizations and individuals to scale

resources up or down as needed, reducing the need for upfront infrastructure investments.

a)
On-premises servers
b)
Cloud computing
c)
Traditional hosting
d)
Local data centers
3.

Cloud computing has evolved from traditional on-premises

data centers and computing models.

a)

Historical Context and Evolution

b)
Cloud computing is limited to public data centers.
c)
Cloud computing has replaced all traditional computing methods.
d)
Cloud computing is only used for storage solutions.
4.

Key historical developments include the advent of

virtualization, which allowed multiple virtual machines (VMs) to run on a single physical server

through the use of hypervisors. Additionally, the emergence of cloud service providers like

Amazon Web Services (AWS) in the mid-2000s revolutionized the cloud computing landscape.

a)
The decline of mainframe computers in the 1990s.
b)

Historical Context and Evolution

c)
The rise of physical servers in the early 2000s.
d)
The introduction of floppy disks in the 1980s.
5.

provides virtualized computing resources over the

internet, allowing users to rent virtual machines, storage, and networking infrastructure.

a)
Data Storage
b)
Network Infrastructure
c)
Local Computing
d)

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

6.

Users

are responsible for managing the operating system and applications. Pros include flexibility and

control, but cons may include increased administrative burden.

a)
Users do not need to manage applications.
b)
Users are only responsible for hardware management.
c)
Users have no control over the operating system.
d)

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

7.

offers a development and deployment environment that

abstracts infrastructure management.

a)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
b)
Network as a Service (NaaS)
c)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
d)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
8.

Developers can focus on writing and deploying code,

while the platform handles scaling and maintenance. Pros include developer productivity, but

cons may include limitations on infrastructure customization.

a)
Increased infrastructure costs
b)

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

c)
Enhanced customization options
d)
Reduced deployment speed
9.

delivers software applications over the internet on a

subscription basis.

a)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
b)
On-Premises Software
c)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
d)
Platform as a Service (PaaS)
10.

Users access applications through web browsers, eliminating the need for

local installation and maintenance. Pros include accessibility and cost savings, but cons may

include data privacy concerns.

a)
local data storage
b)
hardware upgrades
c)
software updates and patches
d)

Software as a Service (SaaS)

11.

is owned and operated by a cloud service provider and offers

computing resources to the general public over the internet.

a)
Virtual private network service
b)

public cloud

c)
Web hosting service
d)
Data storage service
12.

It is a shared infrastructure used by

multiple organizations.

a)
Dedicated infrastructure
b)

public cloud

c)
Private network
d)
Single organization infrastructure
13.

is dedicated to a single organization.

a)
Shared resource
b)
Public resource
c)

private cloud

d)
Temporary resource
14.

It can be hosted on-premises

or by a third-party provider and offers greater control, security, and customization.

a)
Private Cloud
b)
On-Premises Server
c)
Hybrid Cloud
d)
Public Cloud
15.

combines both public and private cloud environments, allowing

data and applications to move seamlessly between them.

a)
Hybrid cloud
b)
Multi-cloud
c)
Private cloud
d)
Public cloud
16.

It offers flexibility, scalability, and the

ability to meet specific requirements.

a)
local storage solutions
b)
traditional hosting
c)

hybrid cloud

d)
on-premises servers
17.

is shared by multiple organizations with similar

requirements, such as regulatory compliance or industry-specific needs.

a)

community cloud

b)
Individual service model
c)
Private service model
d)
Collaborative service model
18.

It provides a tailored

cloud solution for a specific community of users.

a)
Private cloud
b)
Community cloud
c)
Public cloud
d)
Hybrid cloud
19.

is when an organization uses cloud computing services from at least two cloud

providers to run their applications.

a)
On-premises cloud
b)
Multi-cloud
c)
Hybrid cloud
d)
Single-cloud
20.

Instead of using a single-cloud stack, multicloud

environments typically include a combination of two or more public clouds, two or more private

clouds, or some combination of both.

a)
Multicloud environments consist of only one public cloud.
b)
Multicloud environments are limited to private clouds only.
c)

Multi-cloud

d)
Multicloud environments require a single vendor for all services.
21.

is a leading cloud service provider known for its extensive

global infrastructure and comprehensive suite of cloud services.

a)
IBM Cloud
b)
Google Cloud Platform
c)
Amazon Web Services (AWS)
d)
Microsoft Azure
22.

It offers services for computing,

storage, databases, analytics, machine learning, and more.

a)
Traditional software applications
b)
Local server management
c)

Amazon Web Services (AWS)

d)
On-premises data storage
23.

is Microsoft's cloud platform, providing a wide range of cloud services

and integrated solutions.

a)
Azure
b)
IBM Cloud
c)
Google Cloud
d)
AWS
24.

It offers seamless integration with Microsoft products and services.

a)

Azure

b)
Google Workspace
c)
Dropbox Business
d)
Apple iCloud
25.

is Google's cloud offering, focusing on data analytics,

machine learning, and artificial intelligence.

a)
Google Cloud Platform (GCP)
b)
Google Sheets
c)
Google Docs
d)
Google Drive
26.

It provides advanced services for data processing,

AI, and container orchestration.

a)
Data storage solutions
b)
Basic web hosting services
c)
Traditional software applications
d)

Google Cloud Platform (GCP)

27.

is a technology that allows multiple virtual instances, such as virtual

machines (VMs), to run on a single physical server.

a)
Load Balancing
b)
Containerization
c)
Cloud Computing
d)
Virtualization
28.

It abstracts hardware resources, enabling

efficient utilization and isolation between VMs. Each VM operates independently, with its own

operating system and applications.

a)

Virtualization

b)
operating system
c)
container
d)
virtual machine
29.

also known as a virtual machine monitor (VMM), is a software or hardware

component that enables the creation and management of virtual machines (VMs) on a physical

server.

a)
Operating System
b)
Container
c)
Hypervisor
d)
Firmware
30.

It acts as an intermediary layer between the physical hardware and the virtualized

operating systems and applications running on the VMs.

a)
application server
b)
virtual machine
c)
operating system
d)
hypervisor
31.

are commonly used in

virtualization technologies to maximize the utilization of hardware resources and provide

isolation between multiple virtualized environments.

a)
containers
b)
virtual machines
c)
bare metal servers
d)
hypervisors
32.

run directly on the

physical hardware without the need for a host operating system.

a)

Type 1 Hypervisor (Bare-Metal Hypervisor)

b)
virtual machine software
c)
containerized applications
d)
hosted operating systems
33.

They are highly

efficient and offer better performance because they have direct access to the hardware

resources.

a)
High-level programming languages
b)
Web development frameworks
c)
Database management systems
d)

Type 1 Hypervisor (Bare-Metal Hypervisor)

34.

run on top of a host

operating system. They are often used for development, testing, or scenarios where

performance is not the primary concern.

a)

Type 2 Hypervisor (Hosted Hypervisor)

b)
Standalone applications
c)
Physical servers
d)
Embedded systems
35.

are easier to set up but may

have some performance overhead.

a)

Type 2 Hypervisor (Hosted Hypervisor)

b)
Easier setups guarantee better performance.
c)
Performance overhead is always negligible.
d)
Complex setups are always faster.
36.

Hypervisors allow multiple virtual machines to run on a single physical

server, sharing its computing resources like CPU, memory, storage, and networking.

a)
Hypervisors can only run one virtual machine per server.
b)

Virtualization:

c)
Hypervisors require separate physical servers for each virtual machine.
d)
Hypervisors do not share resources between virtual machines.
37.

Each virtual machine operates independently, providing strong isolation

between VMs. This ______ ensures that issues in one VM do not affect others.

a)
Virtual machines share resources, leading to potential issues across VMs.
b)
Isolation between VMs is weak, allowing issues to spread easily.
c)
All virtual machines are dependent on a single host, causing shared problems.
d)

Isolation

38.

Hypervisors manage the allocation of physical resources to VMs,

ensuring fair distribution and efficient utilization.

a)
Hypervisors only monitor VM performance.
b)
Hypervisors are used solely for network management.
c)
Hypervisors do not interact with physical resources.
d)

Resource Allocation:

39.

Hypervisors often offer _____ functionality, allowing you to capture the

current state of a virtual machine.

a)
Snapshot functionality in hypervisors only captures the virtual machine's disk space usage.
b)

Snapshotting

c)
Snapshot functionality in hypervisors deletes the current state of a virtual machine.
d)
Snapshot functionality in hypervisors is used to increase the performance of a virtual machine.
40.

Some advanced hypervisors support live migration, allowing VMs to be

moved from one physical host to another with minimal downtime.

a)
Live migration of VMs with significant downtime.
b)
Static migration of VMs without downtime.
c)
Live migration of physical hosts without VMs.
d)

Live migration

41.

are lightweight, portable, and isolated environments for running

applications. They package an application along with its dependencies, libraries, and runtime

into a single container image.

a)
Virtual Machines
b)
Serverless Functions
c)
Microservices
d)
Containers
42.

share the host operating system kernel, making them

more resource-efficient than VMs. They provide consistency in development and deployment

environments.

a)
hypervisors
b)
containers
c)
virtual machines
d)
bare metal servers
43.

are isolated, customizable, and logically segmented

network environments within cloud service providers.

a)
Public Clouds
b)
Hybrid Clouds
c)
Dedicated Servers
d)
Virtual Private Clouds (VPCs)
44.

They provide a private network space

where cloud resources can communicate securely.

a)
Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
b)
Dedicated Server
c)
Hybrid Cloud
d)
Public Cloud
45.

are subdivisions of virtual networks, enabling further organization and control

over IP address ranges.

a)
gateways
b)
routers
c)
firewalls
d)
subnets
46.

are used to group resources and apply security and routing

rules.

a)
subnets
b)
routers
c)
firewalls
d)
VLANs
47.

are virtual firewalls that control inbound and outbound traffic

to cloud resources.

a)
Physical firewalls
b)
Network switches
c)
Load balancers
d)

Security groups

48.

They use rule-based access control to define which traffic is allowed and

denied, enhancing the security of cloud resources.

a)

Security groups

b)
Rule-based access control only applies to user authentication.
c)
Traffic control is irrelevant to cloud security.
d)
Access control is solely based on user roles.
49.

is a data storage architecture that stores data as objects, each

with its unique identifier and metadata.

a)
File storage
b)
Block storage
c)
Database storage
d)
Object storage
50.

It is highly scalable, durable, and ideal for storing

unstructured data like images, videos, and documents.

a)
local file system
b)

object storage

c)
database storage
d)
network attached storage
51.

provides raw storage volumes that can be attached to virtual

machines.

a)
Object Storage
b)
File Storage
c)
Network Storage
d)
Block Storage
52.

It offers high-performance storage suitable for applications, databases, and file

systems. ________ volumes are typically managed as individual blocks.

a)
File storage
b)
Object storage
c)
Network-attached storage
d)
Block storage
53.

offers network-attached storage with shared file systems accessible by

multiple virtual machines.

a)
Direct-Attached Storage (DAS)
b)
Cloud Storage Solutions
c)
Local Hard Drive Access
d)

File storage

54.

It's suitable for scenarios where multiple instances need to access the

same files and collaborate.

a)
Local file sharing
b)

File storage

c)
USB flash drives
d)
Email attachments
55.

are virtualized servers that emulate physical

computers.

a)
Network routers
b)
Cloud storage
c)
Virtual machines (VMs)
d)
Physical servers
56.

They allow running multiple operating systems on a single physical server, providing

flexibility, isolation, and compatibility with various software and operating systems.

a)
cloud computing
b)
hardware upgrades
c)
networking protocols
d)

Virtual Machines (VMs)

57.

is a cloud computing model were cloud providers

automatically manage infrastructure, allowing developers to focus solely on writing code for

their applications.

a)

Serverless Computing

b)
Network as a Service (NaaS)
c)
Software as a Service (SaaS)
d)
Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
58.

It's event-driven and scales automatically in response to triggers, without the

need for manual provisioning or server management.

a)
Virtual machines
b)
Dedicated servers
c)
Container orchestration
d)
Serverless computing
59.

is a practice of defining and managing

infrastructure elements, such as servers, networks, and databases, using code and automation.

a)
Server Provisioning
b)
Network Automation
c)
Configuration Management
d)
Infrastructure as Code (IaC)
60.

IaC tools and scripts enable the provisioning, configuration, and management of cloud resources

through code, enhancing repeatability, consistency, and collaboration in infrastructure

management.

a)

Infrastructure as Code (IaC)

b)
IaC tools do not support collaboration among team members.
c)
IaC tools are primarily used for manual configuration of resources.
d)
IaC tools only focus on cost reduction in cloud management.
61.

These are the various difficulties and threats that organizations face

when using cloud services.

a)
Increased physical security needs
b)
Simplified data management
c)
High bandwidth costs
d)

Cloud Security Challenges

62.

Challenges include data breaches, compliance issues, identity and

access management, and ensuring the security of cloud infrastructure.

a)

Cloud Security Challenges

b)
User training challenges
c)
Software licensing problems
d)
Network latency issues
63.

This model defines the division of responsibilities between cloud

service providers (CSPs) and customers. CSPs are responsible for the security "of" the cloud

(physical infrastructure), while customers are responsible for the security "in" the cloud (their

data, applications, and configurations).

a)
Infrastructure Security Model
b)

Shared Responsibility Model

c)
Data Protection Protocol
d)
Cloud Security Framework
64.

is the practice of managing user identities, roles,

and permissions in a digital environment.

a)
User Authentication Management
b)
Identity and Access Management (IAM)
c)
Digital Identity Verification
d)
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
65.

In the context of cloud computing, ___ involves

controlling access to cloud resources, ensuring that only authorized individuals or systems can

use them.

a)
network latency
b)
resource allocation
c)

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

d)
data encryption
66.

is the process of converting data into a secure, unreadable format

to protect it from unauthorized access.

a)

Data Encryption

b)
Data masking
c)
Compression
d)
Decryption
67.

secures data while it's being

transmitted between systems,

a)
hashing
b)
decryption
c)
compression
d)

In-transit encryption

68.

protects data when it's stored on disks,

databases, or other storage mediums.

a)
Data archiving
b)

at-rest encryption

c)
Data backup
d)
Data compression
69.

relies on protocols like SSL/TLS and VPNs to protect data during transfer.

a)
SSH and RDP
b)

In-transit encryption

c)
HTTP/2 and FTP
d)
SMTP and IMAP
70.

involves techniques like disk-level encryption and database encryption to

safeguard data stored on servers or in databases.

a)

At-rest encryption

b)
data archiving
c)
data compression
d)
data backup
71.

is a security practice that requires users to provide

multiple forms of authentication (such as a password and a one-time code sent to their phone)

to access a system or application.

a)
Single Sign-On (SSO)
b)
Password Recovery
c)
Biometric Authentication
d)
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
72.

This principle dictates that individuals or systems should have only the

minimum permissions necessary to perform their tasks.

a)
Principle of Maximum Access
b)
Principle of Open Access
c)

Least Access privilege

d)
Principle of User Empowerment
73.

It reduces the risk of unauthorized

access and limits potential damage in case of a security breach.

a)
Implementing security measures increases unauthorized access.
b)
Security measures have no impact on potential damage.
c)
Ignoring security measures enhances system performance.
d)

Least Access Privilege

74.

is a European Union (EU) regulation that focuses on data protection and

privacy for individuals.

a)
Privacy Shield Framework
b)
Data Protection Act (DPA)
c)
ePrivacy Directive
d)
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
75.

It applies to organizations that process personal data of EU residents,

regardless of where the organization is located.

a)
GDPR
b)
PIPEDA
c)
HIPAA
d)
CCPA
76.

Obtaining clear and explicit consent for data processing.

a)

Consent

b)
Assume consent is given if no objections are raised.
c)
Collect data without informing individuals about its use.
d)
Use implied consent based on previous interactions.
77.

Allowing individuals to access, correct, or delete their data.

a)
Data processing agreements
b)
Data protection laws
c)
Data subject rights
d)
Data retention policies
78.

Appointing DPOs responsible for data protection.

a)
Create a committee to discuss data protection without appointing DPOs.
b)

Data Protection Officers (DPOs)

c)
Assign data protection tasks to IT staff only.
d)
Hire external consultants for data protection oversight.
79.

Reporting data breaches within 72 hours.

a)
Notify authorities after 72 hours.
b)

Data Breach Notification

c)
Report data breaches within 48 hours.
d)
Ignore data breaches unless they affect customers.
80.

GDPR violations can result in fines of up to €20 million or 4% of

the company's global annual turnover, whichever is higher.

a)

Penalties for Non-Compliance

b)
Fines can be up to €10 million or 2% of global annual turnover.
c)
Fines are fixed at €20 million regardless of turnover.
d)
Fines can only be imposed on companies based in the EU.
81.

is a U.S. federal law that focuses on safeguarding protected health information

(PHI) and ensuring its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. It primarily applies to healthcare

organizations and their partners.

a)
HITECH
b)
PHR
c)
HIPAA
d)
FERPA
82.

Safeguarding PHI through access controls and encryption.

a)
Use only physical locks for data protection.
b)
Rely solely on user training for safeguarding PHI.
c)

PHI Protection

d)
Store PHI in unencrypted formats for easy access.
83.

Ensuring patient privacy and consent.

a)
Share patient data without consent
b)
Use patient information for marketing purposes
c)
Ignore data protection regulations
d)

Privacy Rule:

84.

Implementing security measures to protect PHI.

a)
Implement social media sharing for PHI
b)

Security Rule

c)
Use public cloud storage without encryption
d)
Allow unrestricted access to all employees
85.
a)

Breach Notification

b)
Breaches must be reported only if they involve financial data.
c)
Only breaches affecting more than 1000 individuals need to be reported.
d)
Organizations can ignore breaches affecting fewer than 500 individuals.
86.

HIPAA violations can result in civil and criminal penalties, with

fines ranging from $100 to $1.5 million per violation.

a)
Fines for HIPAA violations are fixed at $500 per violation.
b)

Penalties for Non-Compliance

c)
HIPAA violations can only result in civil penalties up to $50,000.
d)
Fines for HIPAA violations range from $1,000 to $2 million per violation.
87.

is an auditing standard developed by the American Institute of CPAs (AICPA). It

evaluates the controls relevant to security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and

privacy of customer data in service organizations.

a)
PCI DSS
b)
SOC 1
c)
SOC 2
d)
ISO 27001
88.

Ensures data and systems are protected against unauthorized access and

breaches.

a)

security

b)
Software Development
c)
Network Management
d)
Data Analysis
89.

Ensures systems are available for operation and service as agreed upon.

a)
Problem Management
b)
Change Management
c)
Incident Management
d)

Availability

90.

Ensures data processing is complete, accurate, and timely.

a)
Data processing is only accurate but not timely.
b)

Processing Integrity

c)
Data processing is incomplete and inaccurate.
d)
Data processing is slow and unreliable.
91.

Protects sensitive data from unauthorized access.

a)

Confidentiality

b)
User authentication methods
c)
Firewall configurations
d)
Data backup solutions
92.

Addresses the collection and use of personal information.

a)
Data Security Agreement
b)

Privacy

c)
User Consent Form
d)
Information Sharing Policy
93.

Organizations undergo independent audits to demonstrate compliance

with SOC 2 criteria.

a)
Compliance with GDPR regulations.
b)
Compliance with PCI DSS requirements.
c)

Compliance Assessment

d)
Compliance with ISO 9001 standards.