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Unit 2 Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

"EAP" stands for what? Mark only one oval.

a)

Emergency And Plan

b)

Enter After Planning

c)

Encounter Action Plan

d)

Emergency Action Plan

2.

Pain typically comes on suddenly and has a limited duration. It's frequently caused by damage to tissue such as bone, muscle, or organs, and the onset is often accompanied by anxiety or emotional distress. Described as sharp, stabbing, comes on suddenly, stinging. Lasts less than 6 months. Mark only one oval.

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Joint Pain

c)

Chronic Pain

d)

Referred Pain

3.

Pain lasts longer than acute pain and is generally somewhat resistant to medical treatment. It's usually associated with a long-term illness, such as osteoarthritis. In some cases, such as with fibromyalgia, it's one of the defining characteristics of the disease. This pain can be the result of damaged tissue, but very often is attributable to nerve damage. Described as dull, throbbing, burning, aching, squeezing, stiffness. Lasts longer than 6 months. Mark only one oval.

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Musculoskeletal Pain

c)

Chronic Pain

d)

Psychogenic Pain

4.

Pain is pain that affects the muscles, ligaments and tendons, and bones. Typically described as sharp, bright or burning. Trauma to an area (jerking movements, auto accidents, falls, fractures, sprains, dislocations, and direct blows to the muscle) also can cause musculoskeletal pain. Other causes of pain include postural strain, repetitive movements, overuse, and prolonged immobilization. Mark only one oval.

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Musculoskeletal Pain

c)

Chronic Pain

d)

Joint Pain

5.

What is the best way to break the chain of infection? Mark only one oval.

a)

Hand washing

b)

Skipping hand washing to build immunity.

c)

Sharing personal items to strengthen group resistance

d)

Coughing into the air to release bad germs

6.

Pain is extremely common and many different conditions can lead to painful joints, including osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, bursitis, gout, strains, sprains, and other injuries. In one national survey, about one-third of adults reported having joint pain within the past 30 days. Knee pain was the most common complaint, followed by shoulder and hip pain, but joint pain can affect any part of your body, from your ankles and feet to your shoulders and hands. Mark only one oval.

a)

Acute Pain

b)

Musculoskeletal Pain

c)

Referred Pain

d)

Joint Pain

7.

Pain is often described as a shooting or burning, tingling or numbness pain. It can go away on its own but is often chronic. Sometimes it is unrelenting and severe, and sometimes it comes and goes. It often is the result of nerve damage or a malfunctioning nervous system. Mark only one oval.

a)

Psychogenic Pain

b)

Musculoskeletal Pain

c)

Chronic Pain

d)

Neuropathic Pain

8.

Pain is a pain disorder associated with psychological factors. Some types of mental or emotional problems can cause, increase or prolong pain. A person with a psychogenic pain disorder may complain of pain that does not match his or her symptoms. Headaches, muscle pains, back pain, and stomach pains are some of the most common types of psychogenic pain. Mark only one oval.

a)

Psychogenic Pain

b)

Joint Pain

c)

Skeletal Pain

d)

Neuropathic Pain

9.

Pain occurs away from the actual site of irritation. It has been called an error in perception. Each referred pain site must be considered unique to each individual. Simply stated, referred pain happens because the nerves in your body are all connected. When your body experiences a pain stimulus, your nervous system carries the signal to your brain. The brain then sends a signal to your body that you’re experiencing pain. Sometimes, because of how nerves are wired in your body, your brain will send a pain signal to a different part of your body than the area where the pain stems from. Mark only one oval.

a)

Chronic Pain

b)

Referred Pain

c)

Musculoskeletal Pain

d)

Neuropathic Pain

10.

Select the 5 conditions required for microorganisms to grow. Check all that apply.

a)

Time

b)

Moisture

c)

pH

d)

Food

e)

Air

11.

What is a pathogen?

a)

A type of bacteria

b)

A type of virus

c)

A type of fungus

d)

A bacterium, virus, or other microorganism that can cause disease

12.

What is the purpose of splinting?

a)

To reduce swelling and inflammation

b)

To provide pain relief

c)

To immobilize and support an injured limb or body part

d)

To promote healing

13.

These splints are called what?

a)

SAM Splints

b)

C-Collar

c)

Vacuum Splint

d)

Air Splint

14.

These splints are called what?

a)

SAM Splints

b)

C-Collar

c)

Vacuum Splint

d)

Air Splint

15.

Definition of Emergency: An unexpected serious occurrence that may cause injuries requiring medical attention.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

The emergency plan should be specific to the activity venue.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

The EAP should be reviewed and rehearsed every 5 years.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

If the ABC's are not present, you should not start CPR.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Someone experiencing hypothermia does not shiver until it becomes severe.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

The higher the metabolic rate, the more heat is produced.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Someone experiencing shock, you should immediately give them something to eat and drink by mouth.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Someone experiencing shock, you should wait until symptoms worsen before calling 911.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Sweating itself causes heat loss.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

You should NOT move the person with a known or suspected spinal injury if they are experiencing shock.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Heatstroke is a life-threatening emergency.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

D.O.T.S. stands for all of the following except?

a)

Temperature

b)

Open Wounds

c)

Swelling

d)

Deformities

27.

How does shivering produce heat?

a)

Shivering activates sweat glands, which heat the body by evaporating water

b)

Shivering makes your bones vibrate, creating heat like a microwave

c)

Shivering pulls sunlight into the muscles to warm them up

d)

Skeletal muscles shake in small movements creating warmth by expending energy

28.

What is not included in "Body's Heat Production"?

a)

Exercise

b)

Metabolism

c)

Shivering

d)

Convection

29.

When oxygen in the body is replaced by carbon monoxide, it can cause which injury?

a)

Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

b)

Frostbite

c)

Hypothermia

d)

Sunburn

30.

"PPE" stands for what?

a)

Personal Protective Equipment

b)

Personal Performance Equipment

c)

Primary Protection Essentials

d)

Professional Practice Essentials

31.

What is the primary purpose of sweating?

a)

To cool the body down through evaporation of sweat on the skin

b)

To warm the body up through evaporation of sweat on the skin

c)

To remove toxins from the body

d)

To provide lubrication for the skin

32.

"RICE" stands for what?

a)

Rest, Ice, Compress, Elevate

b)

Rest, Ice, Conceal, Embrace

c)

Remove, Ice, Cold, Elevate

d)

Recover, Ice, Compress, Elongate

33.

Which of the following is not an example of "PPE"? Mark only one oval.

a)

Shorts

b)

Gloves

c)

Masks

d)

Face shields

34.

A person can sweat 1 quart of water per hour for how many hours? Mark only one oval.

a)

2 hours

b)

4 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

1 hour

35.

: a life-threatening condition where the body is not getting enough blood flow. Mark only one oval.

a)

Loss of Consciousness

b)

Shock

c)

Cardiac Arrest

d)

Death

36.

This law prevents a rescuer who voluntarily helped from being sued for wrongdoing.

a)

Helpful Rescuer Law

b)

Good Samaritan Law

c)

EAP Law

d)

Due Diligence Law

37.

Heart Attack

a)

Cardiac Arrhythmias

b)

Valvular Heart Disease

c)

Myocardial Infarction

d)

Obstruction

e)

Myocarditis

38.

A condition in which the heart does not pump properly because the heart muscle is inflamed and diseased

a)

Cardiac Arrhythmias

b)

Valvular Heart Disease

c)

Myocardial Infarction

d)

Obstruction

e)

Myocarditis

39.

Damage to heart valves interrupts blood flow

a)

Cardiac Arrhythmias

b)

Valvular Heart Disease

c)

Myocardial Infarction

d)

Obstruction

e)

Myocarditis

40.

Severe irregular heart rhythms cause uncoordinated blood flow through the heart

a)

Cardiac Arrhythmias

b)

Valvular Heart Disease

c)

Myocardial Infarction

d)

Obstruction

e)

Myocarditis

41.

Certain conditions apply pressure or compress the heart, not allowing it to function as a pump

a)

Cardiac Arrhythmias

b)

Valvular Heart Disease

c)

Myocardial Infarction

d)

Obstruction

e)

Myocarditis

42.

Occurs when the heart is unable to pump blood and maintain an adequate blood supply for other vital organs

a)

Neurogenic Shock

b)

Hypovolemic Shock

c)

Psychogenic Shock

d)

Anaphylactic Shock

e)

Cardiogenic Shock

43.

An emergency condition in which severe blood and fluid loss makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body

a)

Anaphylactic Shock

b)

Psychogenic Shock

c)

Neurogenic Shock

d)

Hypovolemic Shock

e)

Cardiogenic Shock

44.

Severe hypersensitivity or allergic reaction.

a)

Anaphylactic Shock

b)

Psychogenic Shock

c)

Neurogenic Shock

d)

Cardiogenic Shock

e)

Hypovolemic Shock

45.

For hypothermia, the core temperature falls below _________ degrees.

a)

100 degrees

b)

104 degrees

c)

98.6 degrees

d)

95 degrees

46.

For heatstroke, the most important sign is that the core temperature is _________ degrees or higher.

a)

100 degrees

b)

104 degrees

c)

102 degrees

d)

95 degrees

47.

What is a "normal" temperature?

a)

99.5 degrees

b)

89.6 degrees

c)

98.6 degrees

d)

95.2 degrees

48.

What is a "normal" blood pressure?

a)

120/80

b)

80/120

c)

60/100

d)

50/50

49.

Bacteria multiplying in the blood and releasing toxins

a)

Anaphylactic Shock

b)

Cardiogenic Shock

c)

Psychogenic Shock

d)

Septic Shock

e)

Hypovolemic Shock

50.

Caused by spinal cord injury

a)

Cardiogenic Shock

b)

Psychogenic Shock

c)

Anaphylactic Shock

d)

Hypovolemic Shock

e)

Neurogenic Shock

51.

Which is not included in the "Primary Assessment"?

a)

Assess

b)

Ambulance

c)

Alert

d)

Attend

52.

The "DOTS" in emergency care stand for what?

a)

Discomfort, Orientation, Tingling, and Stiffness

b)

Deformities, Open Wounds, Tenderness, and Swelling

c)

Damage, Overuse, Trauma, and Strain

d)

Dislocations, Obstructions, Tears, and Spasms

53.

Heatstroke can be life-threatening and could cause death if body temperature is not lowered within ______ minutes.

a)

10

b)

45

c)

60

d)

15

54.

More common, and is known as a ‘shock like condition’. It is produced by

a)

Hypovolemic Shock

b)

Cardiogenic Shock

c)

Neurogenic Shock

d)

Anaphylactic Shock

e)

Psychogenic Shock

55.

Correct heart rate for adults

a)

60-80

b)

80-100

56.

Correct heart rate for children

a)

60-80

b)

80-100

57.

Correct breathing rate for children

a)

12 breaths/minute

b)

20-25 breaths/minute

58.

Correct breathing rate for adults

a)

12 breaths/minute

b)

20-25 breaths/minute

59.

Occurs when the left ventricle contracts, thereby pumping blood.

a)

Diastolic Pressure

b)

Systolic Pressure

60.

The residual pressure present in the arteries when the heart is between beats.

a)

Diastolic Pressure

b)

Systolic Pressure

61.

Red, raised rash, accompanied by sensations of prickling and tingling during sweating.

a)

Heat Rash (prickly heat)

b)

Heat Exhaustion

c)

Heat Syncope (heat collapse)

d)

Heatstroke

62.

Pale skin, dizziness, rapid pulse.

a)

Heat Rash (prickly heat)

b)

Heat Exhaustion

c)

Heat Syncope (heat collapse)

d)

Heatstroke

63.

Dizziness, fainting, nausea.

a)

Heat Rash (prickly heat)

b)

Heat Exhaustion

c)

Heat Syncope (heat collapse)

d)

Heatstroke

64.

Hot skin, shallow breathing, strong pulse.

a)

Heat Rash (prickly heat)

b)

Heat Exhaustion

c)

Heat Syncope (heat collapse)

d)

Heatstroke

65.

Metabolism always causes an increase in body heat that depends on the intensity of the physical activity.

a)

Evaporative Heat Loss

b)

Metabolic Heat Production

c)

Radiant Heat Exchange

d)

Convective Heat Exchange

e)

Conductive Heat Exchange

66.

Physical contact with other objects can result in either a heat loss or heat gain.

a)

Evaporative Heat Loss

b)

Metabolic Heat Production

c)

Radiant Heat Exchange

d)

Convective Heat Exchange

e)

Conductive Heat Exchange

67.

Body heat can be lost or gained depending on the temperature of the circulating medium.

a)

Evaporative Heat Loss

b)

Metabolic Heat Production

c)

Radiant Heat Exchange

d)

Convective Heat Exchange

e)

Conductive Heat Exchange

68.

Radiant heat from sunshine increases body temperature.

a)

Evaporative Heat Loss

b)

Metabolic Heat Production

c)

Radiant Heat Exchange

d)

Convective Heat Exchange

e)

Conductive Heat Exchange

69.

Sweat evaporation results in heat loss.

a)

Evaporative Heat Loss

b)

Metabolic Heat Production

c)

Radiant Heat Exchange

d)

Convective Heat Exchange

e)

Conductive Heat Exchange

70.

"Who makes the phone call" should be listed under which section of the EAP? Mark only one oval.

a)

Equipment

b)

Communication

c)

Emergency Care Facilities

d)

Transportation

71.

Someone with a suspected spinal injury goes into shock. What should you do? Mark only one oval.

a)

Do not move them, call 911, and monitor ABC's

b)

Encourage them to stand up and walk to improve circulation

c)

Give them a cold drink to lower their body temperature

d)

Gently massage their spine to alleviate pain

72.

A responsive adult must agree to receive first aid care. This is what type of consent?

a)

Expressed Consent

b)

Assumed Consent

c)

Verbal Consent

d)

Implied Consent

73.

Permission to perform first aid on an unresponsive victim is assumed under which type of consent?

a)

Expressed Consent

b)

Assumed Consent

c)

Verbal Consent

d)

Implied Consent

74.

The "ABC's" in emergency care stand for what?

a)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation

b)

Airway, Beating, Compressions

c)

At least, Breathing, Condone

d)

Airway, Be, Circulating

75.

Outermost layer of skin. Provides a waterproof barrier and creates our skin tone.

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Subcutaneous Tissue

76.

Beneath the epidermis. Contains tough connective tissue, hair follicles, and sweat glands.

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Subcutaneous Tissue

77.

Made of fat and connective tissue.

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Subcutaneous Tissue

78.

Swelling caused by an excess buildup of fluid in the body’s tissues.

a)

Edema

b)

Atrophy

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Vasodilation

79.

A decrease in size or wasting away of a body part, muscle, or tissue due to lack of use or disease.

a)

Edema

b)

Atrophy

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Vasodilation

80.

The narrowing of blood vessels, which reduces blood flow.

a)

Edema

b)

Atrophy

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Vasodilation

81.

The widening or enlargement of a blood vessel, opening, or passage.

a)

Edema

b)

Atrophy

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Vasodilation

82.

Type of cell within the body capable of engulfing and absorbing bacteria and other small cells and particle

a)

Phagocyte

b)

Atrophy

c)

Vasoconstriction

d)

Vasodilation

83.

A type of blood cell that is made in the bone marrow and found in the blood and lymph tissue.

a)

Phagocyte

b)

Atrophy

c)

Leukocyte

d)

Vasodilation

84.

Strong, flexible protein fibers found in connective tissue that provide structure and support to skin, tendons, ligaments, and bones.

a)

Phagocyte

b)

Atrophy

c)

Collagen Fibers

d)

Vasodilation

85.

1st phase of tissue response to injury is what?

a)

Inflammatory Response

b)

Fibroblastic Repair

c)

Maturation Remodeling

86.

2nd phase of tissue response to injury is what?

a)

Inflammatory Response

b)

Fibroblastic Repair

c)

Maturation Remodeling

87.

3rd phase of tissue response to injury is what?

a)

Inflammatory Response

b)

Fibroblastic Repair

c)

Maturation Remodeling

88.

What is the name for the layer of skin highlighted in Red (top)?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Subcutaneous Tissue

89.

What is the name for the layer of skin highlighted in Orange (Middle)?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Subcutaneous Tissue

90.

What is the name for the layer of skin highlighted in Green (Bottom)?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Subcutaneous Tissue