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Supply Chain Management in Hospitality Industry

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 22hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

This refers to systematic policies, methods, and procedures used to ensure that goods and services are produced with appropriate levels of quality to meet the needs of customers.

a)

Quality Management

b)
Service Delivery Model
c)
Product Development Strategy
d)
Quality Assurance Framework
2.

This is the ability of a good or service to meet customer needs.

a)
product quality
b)
market demand
c)

fitness for use

d)
brand loyalty
3.

This is the extent to which a process is able to deliver output that confirms design specifications.

a)

Quality of conformance

b)

Reliability of conformance

c)

Performance of conformance

d)

Efficiency of conformance

4.

These are targets and tolerances determined by designers of goods and services.

a)
Guidelines
b)
Specifications
c)
Standards
d)
Requirements
5.

This consistently meets or exceeding customer expectations (external focus) and service delivery system performance criteria (internal focus) during all service encounters.

a)
Customer Satisfaction
b)
Service Efficiency
c)
Product Quality
d)
Service Quality
6.

Five Dimensions of Service Quality.

This are what the customer sees, such as physical facilities, equipment, and the appearance of service employees. 

a)
Service Quality
b)
Customer Experience
c)
Employee Training
d)

Tangibles

7.

Five Dimensions of Service Quality.

This is the ability to provide what was promised, dependably and accurately.

a)
Reliability
b)
Consistency
c)
Accountability
d)
Trustworthiness
8.

Five Dimensions of Service Quality.

This is the willingness to help customers and provide prompt service.

a)
Customer support
b)
Client relations
c)

Responsiveness

d)
Service management
9.

Five Dimensions of Service Quality.

This is the knowledge and courtesy of service providers and their ability to convey trust and confidence.

a)
Assurance
b)
Reliability
c)
Tangibles
d)
Empathy
10.

Five Dimensions of Service Quality.

This is caring, individual attention the firm provides its customers.

a)
Responsiveness
b)
Empathy
c)
Tangibles
d)
Reliability
11.

What are the four Deming Cycle

a)
Research, Design, Test, Launch
b)

Plan, Do, Study, Act

c)
Plan, Execute, Review, Adjust
d)
Identify, Develop, Implement, Evaluate
12.

This is a business improvement approach that seeks to find and eliminate causes of defects and errors in manufacturing and service processes by focusing on outputs that are critical to customers and result in a clear financial return for the organization.

a)
Six Sigma
b)
Kaizen
c)
Total Quality Management
d)
Lean Manufacturing
13.

A _______ (nonconformance) is any mistake or error that is passed on to the customer.

a)

defect

b)
customer feedback
c)
quality assurance
d)
conformance
14.

A ______is the output of a process or an individual process step.

a)
process
b)
result
c)
input
d)

unit of work

15.

The ________refers to the costs associated with avoiding poor quality or those incurred due to poor quality.

a)
costs of quality
b)
operational expenses
c)
production costs
d)
quality assurance costs
16.

These are those expended to keep nonconforming goods and services from being made and reaching the customer.

a)
Prevention costs
b)
External failure costs
c)
Internal failure costs
d)
Appraisal costs
17.

These are those expended on ascertaining quality levels through measurement and analysis of data to detect and correct problems.

a)
Prevention costs
b)
Internal failure costs
c)
External failure costs
d)
Appraisal costs
18.

These are costs incurred as a result of unsatisfactory quality that is found before the delivery of goods or services to the customer.

a)
Appraisal costs
b)
Internal failure costs
c)
External failure costs
d)
Prevention costs
19.

These are incurred after poor-quality goods or services reach the customer.

a)
Internal failure costs
b)
Prevention costs
c)
Appraisal costs
d)
External failure costs
20.

This QC Tool  is to process mapping to identify the sequence of activities or flow of materials/ information in a process.

a)

Flowcharts

b)
Process Mapping
c)
Value Stream Mapping
d)
Fishbone Diagram
21.
  1. This QC Tool run chart is a line graph with data plotted over time; control charts include control limits.

a)

Run Charts and process Charts

b)

Run Charts and Control Charts

c)

Run Charts and Control output

d)

Run Charts and failure Charts

22.

This is a simple tools for data collection, ensure completeness.

a)
Data storage tool
b)

Check sheets

c)
Data analysis tool
d)
Data visualization tool
23.
  1. This QC Tool graphically represent the frequency of values within a specified group.

a)
Histogram
b)
Bar chart
c)
Pie chart
d)
Line graph
24.
  1. This QC Tool separate the vital few from the trivial many causes; provide direction for selecting projects for improvement.

a)
Histogram
b)
Control Chart
c)
Fishbone Diagram
d)

Pareto Diagram

25.

This QC Tool represent chain of relationships; often called a fishbone diagram.

a)
Pareto chart
b)
Control chart
c)
Flowchart
d)

Cause-and-Effect Diagrams

26.

This QC Tool graphical component of regression analysis.

a)
Line graph
b)
Bar chart
c)
Pie chart
d)

Scatter Diagrams

27.

The _____is a term used to designate the source of a problem.

a)
outcome
b)
result
c)
effect
d)

root cause

28.

This focuses on small, gradual, and frequent improvements over the long term with minimum financial investment and with participation by everyone in the organization.

a)
Six Sigma
b)
Lean Manufacturing
c)
Kaizen
d)
Total Quality Management
29.

This is an intense and rapid improvement process in which a team or a department throws all its resources into an improvement project over a short time period, as opposed to traditional kaizen applications, which are performed on a part-time basis.

a)
Kaizen Sprint
b)
Kaizen Cycle
c)
Kaizen Workshop
d)
Kaizen Blitz
30.

This is an approach for mistake-proofing processes using automatic devices or methods to avoid simple human error.

a)
poka-yoke
b)
six sigma
c)
lean manufacturing
d)
kaizen
31.

What key issues does quality management address?

a)

How to reduce costs in production and delivery.

b)

How goods and services are designed, created, and delivered to meet customer expectations.

c)

How to maximize sales through marketing strategies.

d)

How to manage inventory effectively.

32.

What are some ways people define quality?

a)

Perfection and compliance with policies.

b)

Speed of delivery and pleasing customers.

c)

Providing a good product and doing it right the first time.

d)

All of the above.

33.

What does Service Quality involve?

a)

Meeting customer expectations and following performance standards during service encounters.

b)

Only focusing on internal performance without considering customers.

c)

Delivering services quickly regardless of customer satisfaction.

d)

All of the above.

34.

What are the key principles of Total Quality?

a)

Focusing solely on profits and efficiency.

b)

Emphasizing customer and stakeholder focus, process improvement, and teamwork.

c)

Implementing strict rules without employee involvement.

d)

Prioritizing individual performance over organizational teamwork.

35.

What was W. Edwards Deming focused on in modern quality management?

a)

Reducing uncertainty and variability in goods and services design to improve quality.

b)

Increasing uncertainty to enhance product appeal.

c)

Developing a management philosophy based on short-term gains.

d)

Ignoring customer feedback in product design.

36.

What are key contributions of Joseph Juran to modern quality management?

a)

He defined quality as “fitness for use” and focused on defect elimination using statistical tools.

b)

He emphasized increasing defects in products.

c)

He believed quality management was unnecessary for business success.

d)

He focused solely on customer satisfaction without measurement.

37.

What are key concepts introduced by Philip B. Crosby in modern quality management?

a)

Quality is defined by elegance and aesthetic appeal.

b)

The only performance measurement is the cost of quality, and the standard is Zero Defects.

c)

Quality problems can be resolved with increased spending.

d)

Quality is primarily concerned with customer satisfaction.

38.

What is the purpose of ISO 9000:2000 quality standards?

a)

To create complex requirements that are hard to follow.

b)

To improve product quality and operational processes while providing confidence that quality system requirements are met.

c)

To focus solely on customer satisfaction without standardization.

d)

To eliminate all quality management practices in organizations.

39.

What are the eight principles of quality management?

a)

Customer focus, leadership, and involvement of people.

b)

Process approach, system approach, and continual improvement.

c)

Factual approach to decision making and mutually beneficial supplier relationships.

d)

All of the above.

40.

How does Six Sigma measure quality performance?

a)

By counting total sales.

b)

By calculating defects per million opportunities (dpmo) or errors per million opportunities (epmo).

c)

By measuring customer satisfaction only.

d)

By looking at employee attendance.

41.

This is any asset held for future use or sale.

a)
Liability
b)
Expense
c)

Inventory

d)
Revenue
42.

This involves planning, coordinating, and controlling the acquisition, storage, handling, movement, distribution, and possible sale of raw materials, component parts and subassemblies, supplies and tools, replacement parts, and other assets that are needed to meet customer wants and needs.

a)

Inventory Management

b)
Inventory Control
c)
Logistics Management
d)
Production Planning
43.

These are inputs to manufacturing and service-delivery processes.

a)

Raw delivery , component parts, subassemblies, and outputs

b)

Raw materials, manufacturing parts, subassemblies, and processes

c)

Raw materials, component parts, subassemblies, and supplies

44.

This consists of partially finished products in various stages of completion that are awaiting further processing.

a)
Raw Materials
b)
Inventory Stock
c)
Work in Progress (WIP)
d)
Finished Goods
45.

This is completed products ready for distribution or sale to customers.

a)
Inventory items
b)
Finished goods
c)
Raw materials
d)
Work in progress
46.

This is an additional amount of inventory that is kept over and above the average amount required to meet demand.

a)
Safety stock
b)
Overstock
c)
Buffer stock
d)
Excess inventory
47.

What are these categories?

  1. 1:Ordering or setup costs

  2. 2:Inventory-holding costs

  3. 3:Shortage costs

  4. 4:Unit cost of the stock-keeping units (SKUs)

a)

Four Categories of inventory costs

b)

Four Categories of production costs

c)

Four Types of marketing expenses

d)

Four Classification of labor costs

48.

These are incurred as a result of the work involved in placing purchase orders with suppliers or configuring tools, equipment, and machines within a factory to produce an item.

a)

Ordering costs or Material costs

b)

Ordering costs or Setup costs

c)

Ordering costs or Production costs

d)

Ordering costs or Labor costs

49.

These are the expenses associated with carrying inventory.

a)

Inventory-holding costs or Storage fees for raw materials

b)

Inventory-holding costs or Transportation costs for finished goods

c)

Inventory-holding costs or inventory-carrying costs

d)

Inventory-holding costs or Employee salaries for warehouse staff

50.

These are the costs associated with a SKU being unavailable when needed to meet demand.

a)

Shortage costs or stockout costs

b)

Shortage costs or Production costs

c)

Shortage costs or Order fulfillment costs

d)

Shortage costs or Inventory holding costs

51.

This is the price paid for purchased goods or the internal cost of producing them.

a)
Revenue from sales
b)
Operating expenses
c)
Net profit
d)

Unit cost

52.

This has the most significant effect on your inventory structure

a)
Warehouse layout
b)
Supplier relationships
c)

Controlling the activity

d)
Shipping costs
53.

True or False?

The trick and the holy grail of supply chain management are to order as little as possible, but still enough to satisfy customer demand.

a)
True
b)
False
54.

True or False?

Ordering less means your warehouse will grow, and you will hold a lot of operational cash in goods lying in your inventory untouched for weeks, months, or even years. Ordering too little leads to stockouts. 

a)
True
b)
False
55.

 

True or False? keeping all goods available at all times might be the smartest decision

a)
False
b)
True
56.

These goods represent a small fraction of your inventory but create the most of your sales.  

a)

The cash cows or the goods that sell very well

b)

The cash cows or Luxury items

c)

The cash cows or mSeasonal products

d)

The cash cows or Bulk inventory

57.

These goods don’t sell so often but are still profitable. They create the size of your offer and are crucial for customer satisfaction.

a)

Bulk

b)
Seasonal products
c)
Luxury goods
d)
Mass-produced items
58.

These are the items nobody wants to buy. They just sit in your inventory and hold your warehouse space and cash.

a)
Seasonal products
b)
Fast-moving inventory
c)
High-demand items
d)

Inventory trash

59.

What does Inventory Management include?

a)

Only buying raw materials.

b)

Planning, storing, handling, and moving materials and parts.

c)

Selling only finished products to customers.

d)

Just replacing old tools and supplies.

60.

What are the two main perspectives of inventory management?

a)
Financial perspective and operational perspective
b)

Sorting and labeling in the warehouse, and managing the balance between a lean and big inventory.

c)
Logistical perspective and operational perspective
d)
Tactical perspective and strategic perspective
61.

What are the two fundamental decisions in inventory management?

a)

When to ship items to customers and how to track sales.

b)

When to order items or start production, and how much to order or produce.

c)

How to label items in the warehouse and when to check inventory levels.

d)

How to advertise products and when to reduce prices.

62.

What are the four categories of inventory costs?

a)

Shipping costs, labeling costs, sales costs, and advertising costs.

b)

Ordering or setup costs, inventory-holding costs, shortage costs, and unit cost of stock-keeping units (SKUs).

c)

Marketing costs, customer service costs, production costs, and storage costs.

d)

Packaging costs, shipping costs, warehousing costs, and labor costs.

63.

How do companies typically handle sales forecasting for inventory management?

a)

They use one fixed method that has replaced older techniques.

b)

They use multiple forecasting algorithms, evaluate, and compare their results.

c)

They rely solely on historical sales data without using algorithms.

d)

They guess future sales based on market trends and intuition.

64.

What is the key challenge in supply chain management regarding inventory?

a)

Ordering as much as possible to avoid stockouts.

b)

Ordering as little as possible while still meeting customer demand.

c)

Expanding the warehouse to hold more goods.

d)

Prioritizing expensive items over low-cost ones.

65.

What is the risk of ordering too much inventory?

a)

Increased customer satisfaction due to always having stock.

b)

The warehouse will grow, and operational cash will be tied up in unsold goods.

c)

Faster delivery times for all orders.

d)

Higher sales from having more items in stock.

66.

This management deals with planning execution and control of all resources that are used to produce goods or provide services in a value chain

a)

Human operation Management

b)
Supply Chain Management
c)
Quality Control
d)

Resource Management

67.

In Resource Management Techniques, this Resource involves more than just assigning resources to projects.

a)
Material Resources
b)

Resource allocation

c)
Technical Resources
d)
Financial Resources
68.

In Resource Management Techniques, this is a resource management technique that enables you to gain visibility into the capacity of your team over a period of time and identify whether resources are being over or underutilized. 

a)
Workforce Optimization Technique
b)

Resource utilization

c)
Team Utilization Assessment
d)
Resource Allocation Strategy
69.

In Resource Management Techniques, this Resource is used to balance demand and supply. 

a)
Raw Materials
b)
Finished Goods
c)
Labor Force
d)

Resource leveling

70.

In Resource Management Techniques, this Resource to ensure current projects run smoothly with the appropriate resources, the real benefit comes with being able to plan ahead to keep resources balanced across current and future projects. 

a)
Resource Management
b)
Resource Distribution
c)

Resource Forecasting

d)
Resource Planning
71.

This is the development of a long-term output and resource pan in aggregate units of measure

a)

Aggregate planning

b)
Long-term resource allocation
c)
Annual output and resource strategy
d)
Short-term output and resource plan
72.

This is the process of translating aggregate plans into short term operational plants that provide basis for weekly and daily schedules an detailed resource requirement.

a)

Disaggregation

b)
Resource allocation
c)
Tactical planning
d)
Strategic planning
73.

This refers to moving work from one station to another, assigning people to task, setting priorities for jobs, scheduling equipment and controlling processes.

a)
Task delegation
b)
Resource allocation
c)
Process optimization
d)

Execution

74.

Strategies for Aggregate Planning

A ___________plans for the same production rate in each time period.

a)
chase production strategy
b)
mixed production strategy
c)
just-in-time production strategy
d)
level production strategy
75.

Strategies for Aggregate Planning

A ___________sets the  production rate equal to the demand in each time period

a)
backordering strategy
b)
level production strategy
c)
subcontracting strategy
d)
chase demand strategy
76.

This is a forward-looking, demand-based approach for planning the production of manufactured goods and ordering materials and components to minimize unnecessary inventories and reduce costs.

a)

Materials Requirements Planning

b)
Static production scheduling
c)
Inventory-driven production strategy
d)
Cost-based production planning
77.

This Is the process of determining the amount of labor and machine resources required to accomplish the production task on a more detailed level, taking into account all component parts and end items in the materials plan.

a)
Capacity Planning
b)
Production Scheduling
c)

Capacity Requirements Planning

d)
Inventory Management
78.

What does resource management involve?

a)
Resource management is solely about financial investments.
b)
Resource management only applies to human resources.
c)
Resource management is the process of hiring new employees.
d)

Resource management involves Planning, scheduling, and allocating people, money, and technology to a project or program.

79.

How can an enterprise respond quickly to customer demands according to resource management principles?

a)

By focusing only on long-term projects without adjustments.

b)

By ensuring there are no resources available for changes.

c)

By minimizing waste and duplication and streamlining processes.

d)

By reducing the number of resources allocated to projects.

80.

What is a key aspect of planning and scheduling in resource management?

a)

Understanding what resources are available and when.

b)

Ignoring the skills of team members.

c)

Allocating resources without a schedule.

d)

Focusing only on financial resources.

81.

Why is assessing available and required skills important in resource management?

a)

To determine if additional skills or people need to be added.

b)

To ignore the current skills of the team.

c)

To eliminate the need for training.

d)

To focus solely on project completion speed.

82.

What does resource prioritization and allocation involve?

a)

Identifying initiatives that require the least attention.

b)

Focusing on all initiatives equally.

c)

Identifying prioritized initiatives that need the most attention and possibly specialized skills.

d)

Allocating resources without regard to project importance.

83.

What types of resources are included in resource management besides people?

a)

Only technology and tools needed for tasks.

b)

Technology/tools, budget, locations, and specialized equipment.

c)

Just the budget required to fund the project.

d)

None of the above.

84.

What does Resource Management primarily deal with?

a)

Planning execution and control of resources used to produce goods or provide services.

b)

Only managing financial resources in a company.

c)

Focusing solely on employee performance.

d)

Ignoring the value chain in production and services.

85.

What are some of the objectives of Resource Management?

a)

Maximize profits, minimize costs, and maximize benefits to stakeholders.

b)

Focus solely on increasing production speed.

c)

Ignore customer satisfaction.

d)

Eliminate all costs associated with production.

86.

What are some aggregate planning options available to managers facing fluctuating demand?

a)

Demand management, production-rate changes, workforce changes, inventory smoothing, and adjustments to facilities, equipment, and transportation.

b)

Only increasing workforce size.

c)

Eliminating inventory altogether.

d)

none of the above

87.

What are three important techniques for disaggregating aggregate plans into executable operations plans?

a)

Master production scheduling , materials requirements planning, and capacity requirements planning .

b)

Demand forecasting, supplier management, and production scheduling.

c)

Quality control, inventory management, and workforce training.

d)

Financial planning, market analysis, and customer service strategies.

88.

What is the output of an MRP system?

a)

A schedule for obtaining raw materials and purchased parts, a detailed manufacturing schedule, and financial information for cash flow and budgeting.

b)

Only a list of finished products to be manufactured.

c)

An overview of employee schedules and responsibilities.

d)

A sales forecast for the upcoming year.