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AP DSC ENGLISH CBT-004

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 8hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following committees was formed to examine and suggest improvements to the “One Nation, One Election” proposal in India?

a)

A) N.K. Singh Committee

b)

B) Rajiv Kumar Committee

c)

C) Bimal Jalan Committee

d)

Ram Nath Kovind Committee

2.

Which constitutional amendment act in recent times has empowered states to identify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs) within their jurisdiction, reversing an earlier Supreme Court judgment?

a)

A) 101st Amendment Act

b)

B) 102nd Amendment Act

c)

C) 105th Amendment Act

d)

D) 103rd Amendment Act

3.

Which theory emphasizes that children actively construct their own cognitive worlds?

a)

Behaviorism

b)

Social Learning Theory

c)

Constructivism

d)

Information Processing Theory

4.

The term "zone of proximal development" is most closely associated with which theorist?

a)

Jean Piaget

b)

Lev Vygotsky

c)

B.F. Skinner

d)

John Dewey

5.

What is the best way to describe the role of a teacher in a constructivist classroom?

a)

As an authoritative figure who provides all the knowledge

b)

As a facilitator who guides students in constructing their own understanding

c)

As a passive observer

d)

As a strict disciplinarian

6.

According to Piaget, children in the concrete operational stage are best able to:

a)

Think abstractly and hypothetically

b)

Perform mental operations on concrete objects

c)

Engage in symbolic play

d)

Understand conservation of mass but not volume

7.

Which of the following statements best defines scaffolding in education?

a)

Providing permanent assistance for difficult tasks

b)

Gradually reducing support as learners become more competent

c)

Constantly evaluating learners’ performance

d)

Allowing learners to perform tasks independently from the start

8.

Kohlberg’s theory of moral development suggests that the highest level of moral reasoning is based on:

a)

Social approval

b)

Adherence to laws and rules

c)

Self-chosen ethical principles

d)

Fear of punishment

9.

Which approach to teaching is most aligned with Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory?

a)

Drill and practice

b)

Cooperative learning

c)

Lecture-based instruction

d)

Computer-assisted learning

10.

Gardner’s Multiple Intelligences theory includes which of the following intelligence types?

a)

Linguistic, spatial, intrapersonal

b)

Intellectual, analytical, spatial

c)

Linguistic, analytical, reflective

d)

Emotional, rational, analytical

11.

The ability to solve problems creatively and think “outside the box” is most associated with:

a)

Crystallized intelligence

b)

Fluid intelligence

c)

Analytical intelligence

d)

Mechanical intelligence

12.

According to Erikson, the primary task during adolescence is:

a)

Developing a sense of independence

b)

Establishing intimacy with others

c)

Forming a coherent identity

d)

Learning trust in caregivers

13.

Which theorist is known for the concept of “observational learning”?

a)

B.F. Skinner

b)

Albert Bandura

c)

Jean Piaget

d)

Sigmund Freud

14.

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs places which of the following needs at the highest level?

a)

Safety needs

b)

Social needs

c)

Esteem needs

d)

Self-actualization

15.

The “law of effect” is a principle associated with which psychologist?

a)

Ivan Pavlov

b)

John Watson

c)

Edward Thorndike

d)

B.F. Skinner

16.

Which of the following best describes a “growth mindset”?

a)

Belief that intelligence is fixed and unchangeable

b)

Belief that abilities and intelligence can be developed through effort

c)

Belief in natural intelligence without need for effort

d)

Belief in inherited intellectual abilities only

17.

Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory suggests that a child’s development is influenced by:

a)

Genetic factors only

b)

Immediate family and environment only

c)

Multiple layers of environmental systems

d)

Peer interactions and friendships only

18.

Which stage in Piaget’s theory involves abstract and hypothetical thinking?

a)

Sensorimotor

b)

Preoperational

c)

Concrete operational

d)

Formal operational

19.

Which of the following strategies is most effective for managing disruptive behavior in the classroom?

a)

Ignoring the behavior

b)

Punishing the student immediately

c)

Setting clear expectations and consequences

d)

Allowing the student to leave the classroom

20.

Which type of play is most characteristic of children in the preoperational stage?

a)

Cooperative play

b)

Parallel play

c)

Constructive play

d)

Dramatic or pretend play

21.

When a teacher encourages students to work together to solve a problem, they are promoting:

a)

Competitive learning

b)

Cooperative learning

c)

Individual learning

d)

Self-directed learning

22.

“Conservation” in Piagetian terms refers to a child’s understanding that:

a)

The quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in shape

b)

Objects exist even when they cannot be seen

c)

The environment can be preserved by certain actions

d)

Behaviors can be maintained over time

23.

In Bloom’s taxonomy, the highest level of cognitive process is:

a)

Understanding

b)

Application

c)

Evaluation

d)

Creation

24.

What is the primary focus of differentiated instruction?

a)

Providing the same instruction for all students

b)

Adapting teaching methods to meet varied student needs

c)

Focusing on advanced learners

d)

Emphasizing standardized testing results

25.

A teacher praises a student after they answer a question correctly. This is an example of:

a)

Negative reinforcement

b)

Positive reinforcement

c)

Intrinsic motivation

d)

Punishment

26.

According to Skinner, behavior that is reinforced is likely to:

a)

Increase in frequency

b)

Decrease in frequency

c)

Remain unchanged

d)

Become extinct

27.

Which of the following would be an example of “authentic assessment”?

a)

A standardized test

b)

An essay on a personal experience

c)

A multiple-choice test

d)

A homework assignment

28.

The term “self-efficacy” refers to:

a)

A belief in one’s own abilities to succeed

b)

A sense of self-worth

c)

Self-centered behavior

d)

Desire to outperform others

29.

Which psychologist proposed the “classical conditioning” theory?

a)

B.F. Skinner

b)

John Watson

c)

Ivan Pavlov

d)

Edward Thorndike

30.

In Kohlberg’s stages of moral development, a person who makes decisions based on social contracts is in which stage?

a)

Pre-conventional

b)

Conventional

c)

Post-conventional

d)

Pre-operational

31.

Which of the following types of motivation is considered “intrinsic”?

a)

Working for a reward

b)

Studying to avoid punishment

c)

Learning out of curiosity and interest

d)

Working to gain approval from peers

32.

When a teacher adjusts their level of support based on a learner's needs, they are providing:

a)

Summative assessment

b)

Differentiated instruction

c)

Scaffolding

d)

Direct instruction

33.

In the sentence, “The book was so interesting that I couldn’t put it down,” which type of clause is used?

a)

Noun clause

b)

Adjective clause

c)

Adverb clause

d)

Independent clause

34.

Choose the option with correct word formation: "______" is the noun form of "perceive."

a)

Perception

b)

Perceiving

c)

Perceived

d)

Perceptive

35.

Identify the sentence with an indirect object:

a)

He is reading a novel.

b)

She gave him a book.

c)

They elected him the leader.

d)

The book is on the table.

36.

What is the primary function of a conjunction in a sentence?

a)

To modify nouns

b)

To link words, phrases, or clauses

c)

To express emotion

d)

To clarify the subject

37.

Which sentence uses a correlative conjunction correctly?

a)

Both she with her friend went to the party.

b)

Either you or your friend has to come.

c)

Neither the cat or the dog was happy.

d)

Not only he is smart but also funny.

38.

In which of the following sentences is “whom” correctly used?

a)

She is the person whom everyone admires.

b)

Whom can I talk to?

c)

To whom you spoke last night?

d)

She is the one who the teacher praised.

39.

Which is an example of an adverbial clause?

a)

She went to the market.

b)

Although it was raining, they went outside.

c)

He studies in the library.

d)

This book is about science.

40.

Choose the best synonym for the word "benevolent."

a)

Hostile

b)

Generous

c)

Ambitious

d)

Fearful

41.

In the sentence “She has written three books,” what tense is used?

a)

Simple past

b)

Present continuous

c)

Present perfect

d)

Past perfect

42.

Select the correct sentence transformation for the sentence: “If he had studied harder, he would have passed the exam.”

a)

He didn’t study hard, and so he failed.

b)

If he studies harder, he will pass the exam.

c)

Unless he studies hard, he will fail.

d)

He studied hard, so he passed.

43.

Which sentence demonstrates the passive voice?

a)

She wrote an amazing essay.

b)

An amazing essay was written by her.

c)

He reads every day.

d)

They were going to the park.

44.

Identify the phrasal verb in the sentence: “He ran into an old friend at the store.”

a)

Ran

b)

Ran into

c)

Into

d)

Old friend

45.

The phrase “heart of stone” is an example of:

a)

Metaphor

b)

Simile

c)

Hyperbole

d)

Irony

46.

In the sentence, “The artist painted the sunset beautifully,” the word “beautifully” functions as a:

a)

Noun

b)

Verb

c)

Adjective

d)

Adverb

47.

Which word is the correct prefix for “credible” to mean “not credible”?

a)

Un-

b)

Dis-

c)

In-

d)

Im-

48.

The literary term for a recurring symbol or theme is:

a)

Motif

b)

Irony

c)

Allegory

d)

Personification

49.

In “To Kill a Mockingbird,” Scout’s narration provides which point of view?

a)

Third-person omniscient

b)

Third-person limited

c)

First-person

d)

Second-person

50.

In which of these sentences is a transitive verb used?

a)

She sleeps soundly.

b)

They watched the movie.

c)

She laughed.

d)

He walked fast.

51.

Identify the sentence with a coordinating conjunction:

a)

I went to the store, but it was closed.

b)

Although it was late, we continued working.

c)

Since it’s raining, we’ll stay inside.

d)

He studied because he had a test.

52.

The antonym of “expand” is:

a)

Increase

b)

Enlarge

c)

Contract

d)

Develop

53.

Choose the correct spelling:

a)

Emmision

b)

Emmision

c)

Emision

d)

Emission

54.

In which sentence is “their” used correctly?

a)

Their going to the park later.

b)

This is their house.

c)

We’re going their tomorrow.

d)

That’s their’s to decide.

55.

The phrase “spill the beans” means:

a)

To cook

b)

To clean up

c)

To reveal a secret

d)

To ruin something

56.

Which word is a synonym for “audacious”?

a)

Timid

b)

Bold

c)

Shy

d)

Quiet

57.

Identify the part of speech of “quickly” in the sentence: “She finished her work quickly.”

a)

Noun

b)

Verb

c)

Adjective

d)

Adverb

58.

Which sentence is in the present perfect continuous tense?

a)

She is running.

b)

She was running.

c)

She has been running.

d)

She ran.

59.

In the sentence, “Despite the rain, we went to the concert,” which word is the conjunction?

a)

Despite

b)

Rain

c)

Went

d)

Concert

60.

Identify the phonetic feature of /s/ sound in “cats” that changes to /z/ in “dogs”:

a)

Place of articulation

b)

Voicing

c)

Manner of articulation

d)

Aspiration

61.

In phonetics, pitch accent is primarily concerned with:

a)

Loudness of sound

b)

Intensity of speech

c)

Tone modulation

d)

Frequency of intonation

62.

Which of the following best describes “assimilation” in phonetics?

a)

A sound becoming similar to a nearby sound

b)

Dropping a vowel sound

c)

Swapping two consonants

d)

Changing syllable stress

63.

Identify the sentence that uses a derivational morpheme:

a)

She was happy.

b)

She is happiest.

c)

She is the happiest.

d)

Happiness is key.

64.

Choose the example of a compound word:

a)

Sunflower

b)

Run

c)

Quickly

d)

Sad

65.

Which of these is an example of “conversion” in word formation?

a)

Teacher (from “teach”)

b)

Book (as in “to book” a room)

c)

Running (from “run”)

d)

Laughter (from “laugh”)

66.

The word “semantics” primarily focuses on:

a)

Sounds of language

b)

Grammar rules

c)

Meaning of words

d)

Sentence structure

67.

Identify the linguistic feature demonstrated by “The pen is mightier than the sword”:

a)

Hyperbole

b)

Metonymy

c)

Simile

d)

Oxymoron

68.

Identify the homophone pair:

a)

Two, too

b)

Buy, sells

c)

Great, greatness

d)

Pen, penning

69.

Choose the sentence with an example of a homograph.

a)

She can play the piano well.

b)

She saw the bat flying at night.

c)

He is reading a novel.

d)

She will write a letter.

70.

The term “code-switching” refers to:

a)

The process of language acquisition

b)

Changing language or dialect within a conversation

c)

Learning multiple languages at once

d)

Using slang in formal settings

71.

In phonetics, what does the term “allophone” mean?

a)

A variety of a phoneme that does not change meaning

b)

A synonym of another sound

c)

A redundant word

d)

A sound that has multiple meanings

72.

Choose the correct example of onomatopoeia:

a)

Meow

b)

Book

c)

Eat

d)

Fast

73.

Which of the following is a minimal pair?

a)

Cat, bat

b)

Book, table

c)

Write, writer

d)

Tall, taller

74.

The word formation process in “smog” from “smoke” and “fog” is:

a)

Blending

b)

Compounding

c)

Conversion

d)

Borrowing

75.

The suffix “-ist” in “artist” and “scientist” indicates:

a)

A location

b)

A profession or person

c)

A place

d)

A verb form

76.

Choose the example of a bound morpheme:

a)

“Un-” in “unknown”

b)

“Run” in “running”

c)

“Book” in “notebook”

d)

“Happy” in “happiest”

77.

Identify the word that demonstrates compounding:

a)

Snowman

b)

Amazement

c)

Happier

d)

Softly

78.

Which word contains a free morpheme?

a)

Unbelievable

b)

Happier

c)

Cat

d)

Reported

79.

Identify the correct example of a metaphor:

a)

He ran like a cheetah.

b)

She has a heart of gold.

c)

The stars are like diamonds.

d)

He was as busy as a bee.

80.

Which phrase contains a modal verb?

a)

She will go to the market.

b)

He quickly ran.

c)

They are going home.

d)

She sang beautifully.

81.

Identify the primary function of an interjection in a sentence.

a)

To connect ideas

b)

To show sudden emotion

c)

To describe a noun

d)

To complete a thought

82.

Choose the correct example of a euphemism.

a)

Passed away instead of died

b)

Running fast

c)

Big and small

d)

Light as a feather

83.

Which of the following is an example of a collocation?

a)

Strong coffee

b)

Good coffee

c)

Nice coffee

d)

Bright coffee

84.

The primary purpose of a conjunction is to:

a)

Modify nouns

b)

Link words, phrases, or clauses

c)

Emphasize a subject

d)

Clarify the subject

85.

Choose the sentence with a correct use of a simile.

a)

She is a cheetah on the field.

b)

He is as brave as a lion.

c)

The classroom was a zoo.

d)

Her smile is sunshine.

86.

The idiom “bite the bullet” means:

a)

To avoid a situation

b)

To face a painful situation bravely

c)

To eat fast

d)

To argue with someone

87.

Which of these is a phrasal verb?

a)

Run into

b)

Talk

c)

Book

d)

Show

88.

Identify the function of the sentence, “Please close the door.”

a)

Interrogative

b)

Declarative

c)

Exclamatory

d)

Imperative

89.

In linguistics, “syntax” refers to:

a)

The arrangement of words in sentences

b)

The study of sounds in language

c)

The meaning of words

d)

The origin of language

90.

Which literary device is used in the line, “The curtain of night fell upon the valley”?

a)

Simile

b)

Metaphor

c)

Hyperbole

d)

Personification

91.

In teaching poetry analysis, the teacher should first focus on:

a)

Rhyme scheme

b)

Imagery

c)

Theme

d)

Structure

92.

What is the main function of imagery in literature?

a)

To provide factual information

b)

To create a mental picture

c)

To confuse the reader

d)

To provide a detailed setting description

93.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a sonnet?

a)

12 lines with a couplet

b)

14 lines with a specific rhyme scheme

c)

No rhyme scheme and open structure

d)

Written in free verse

94.

The phrase “Achilles’ heel” is an example of:

a)

Metonymy

b)

Symbolism

c)

Allegory

d)

Allusion

95.

Which teaching method involves students actively discussing and analyzing texts together?

a)

Lecture-based method

b)

Cooperative learning

c)

Self-directed learning

d)

Drill and practice

96.

In literature, irony primarily serves to:

a)

Show clear intentions

b)

Indicate a positive outcome

c)

Present situations contrary to expectations

d)

Reinforce a literal meaning

97.

Which figure of speech involves a direct comparison using “like” or “as”?

a)

Metaphor

b)

Simile

c)

Irony

d)

Hyperbole

98.

In which genre would you most likely find an epic hero?

a)

Romance

b)

Epic poetry

c)

Limerick

d)

Mystery

99.

Which of the following terms best describes a central idea in a literary work?

a)

Tone

b)

Theme

c)

Setting

d)

Plot

100.

The teaching strategy of “modeling” involves:

a)

Allowing students to learn independently

b)

The teacher demonstrating skills or techniques

c)

Using standardized testing

d)

Creating a competitive classroom environment

101.

In curriculum design, “spiral progression” refers to:

a)

Teaching the same concept repeatedly without change

b)

Introducing complex concepts before simpler ones

c)

Revisiting topics at increasing levels of difficulty

d)

Teaching unrelated topics in different grades

102.

A “villanelle” is a type of:

a)

Poem with a specific structure and rhyme scheme

b)

Short story focusing on irony

c)

Novel centered on character development

d)

Drama that uses farce

103.

The literary term “foil” refers to:

a)

A character who contrasts with another

b)

The central character in a story

c)

The setting of a story

d)

A symbolic object

104.

In poetry, the term “enjambment” refers to:

a)

A complete thought within a single line

b)

The continuation of a sentence without a pause beyond the end of a line

c)

The use of rhyme at the end of each line

d)

A stanza with a specific number of lines

105.

Which of the following is a characteristic of free verse?

a)

Follows a specific rhyme scheme

b)

Has a fixed meter

c)

Lacks consistent meter and rhyme patterns

d)

Always includes a refrain

106.

In teaching literature, an “open-ended question” is used primarily to:

a)

Test recall of factual information

b)

Encourage critical thinking and discussion

c)

Limit students’ responses

d)

Measure reading speed

107.

Which of the following is an example of dramatic irony?

a)

A character faces a predictable outcome

b)

The reader knows something the characters do not

c)

A character says the opposite of what they mean

d)

Events occur without significance

108.

The primary focus of satire is to:

a)

Entertain the audience with humor

b)

Criticize or ridicule human folly and societal flaws

c)

Create emotional depth

d)

Present factual information

109.

Focus of satire is to:

a)

Entertain the audience with humor

b)

Criticize or ridicule human folly and societal flaws

c)

Create emotional depth

d)

Present factual information

110.

In storytelling, “flashback” is used to:

a)

Foreshadow future events

b)

Reveal past events relevant to the present plot

c)

Speed up the narrative

d)

Confuse the reader deliberately

111.

A “round character” in literature is one who:

a)

Exhibits complex and evolving personality traits

b)

Remains unchanged throughout the story

c)

Fulfills a minor role

d)

Represents a stereotype

112.

Identify the rhyme scheme of a Shakespearean sonnet:

a)

ABAB CDCD EFEF GG

b)

AABB CCDD EEFF GG

c)

ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCD

d)

AABB CCDD EEFF HH

113.

Which teaching method is based on students’ exploration and active discovery?

a)

Direct instruction

b)

Discovery learning

c)

Lecture method

d)

Memorization

114.

In narrative writing, “first-person point of view” means the story is told:

a)

By a narrator outside the story

b)

By a character within the story

c)

By an omniscient narrator

d)

By multiple perspectives

115.

In literary analysis, “tone” refers to:

a)

The central idea of a text

b)

The writer’s attitude toward the subject

c)

The time and place of the story

d)

The emotional atmosphere created for the reader

116.

Which of the following best defines “hyperbole”?

a)

A figure of speech that makes a direct comparison

b)

An exaggerated statement not meant to be taken literally

c)

A subtle understatement

d)

A rhetorical question with no answer

117.

Which poetic form consists of five tercets and a quatrain?

a)

Haiku

b)

Limerick

c)

Villanelle

d)

Sestina

118.

The literary device used to give human traits to non-human things is called:

a)

Irony

b)

Personification

c)

Symbolism

d)

Simile

119.

In literature, a “tragic flaw” refers to:

a)

A minor setback for the hero

b)

A character’s personality trait that leads to their downfall

c)

An unfortunate coincidence

d)

A flaw in the story’s structure

120.

“Stream of consciousness” in writing aims to:

a)

Follow a strict plot structure

b)

Reflect the character’s thought process in a free-flowing manner

c)

Describe external actions only

d)

Use only dialogues to convey the plot

121.

The term “allegory” refers to:

a)

A story with a hidden moral or political meaning

b)

A poem that follows a specific rhyme pattern

c)

A character with multiple personalities

d)

An ironic statement

122.

In poetry, “alliteration” is defined as:

a)

The repetition of vowel sounds

b)

The repetition of consonant sounds at the beginning of words

c)

A deliberate exaggeration

d)

A rhyme at the end of each line

123.

A teacher practicing “scaffolding” is:

a)

Providing continuous assistance without end

b)

Gradually reducing support as the student’s competence increases

c)

Limiting the student’s learning to specific tasks

d)

Giving instructions only once

124.

In fiction, the “climax” of a story is:

a)

The beginning of the story

b)

The turning point or most intense part

c)

The conclusion

d)

A minor event

125.

An “omniscient narrator” in literature:

a)

Knows only the main character’s thoughts

b)

Knows the thoughts and feelings of all characters

c)

Knows only the setting details

d)

Only observes actions without knowing thoughts

126.

“Metaphor” differs from simile in that it:

a)

Makes a direct comparison without “like” or “as”

b)

Uses “like” or “as” for comparison

c)

Is a form of exaggeration

d)

Only appears in poetry

127.

In a story, a “foil” character:

a)

Contrasts with the protagonist to highlight traits

b)

Is the main antagonist

c)

Has no impact on the plot

d)

Represents an idealized character

128.

The purpose of “expository” writing is to:

a)

Persuade the reader

b)

Entertain the audience

c)

Explain or inform

d)

Describe personal feelings

129.

“Rhyme scheme” refers to:

a)

The pattern of sounds in a stanza

b)

The setting of a poem

c)

The meter of a line

d)

The poet’s tone

130.

The technique of “foreshadowing” in literature is used to:

a)

Provide background information

b)

Give hints about future events

c)

Describe a character’s personality

d)

Explain the setting

131.

In a “flashback,” the narrative:

a)

Reveals a future event

b)

Recounts a past event within the present storyline

c)

Moves in a linear sequence

d)

Focuses solely on the main character’s viewpoint

132.

“Mood” in literature refers to:

a)

The writer’s feelings while writing the text

b)

The emotional atmosphere that the reader experiences

c)

The setting of the story

d)

The sequence of events

133.

Which element is characteristic of a “fable”?

a)

Complex characters and plot

b)

Use of animals or inanimate objects with human traits to convey a moral

c)

A focus on historical events

d)

Open-ended moral interpretation

134.

An “epiphany” in literature is:

a)

The moment of a character’s sudden insight or revelation

b)

The story’s introduction

c)

A humorous twist in the plot

d)

A slow realization over time

135.

In poetry, “assonance” is:

a)

The repetition of consonant sounds

b)

The repetition of vowel sounds within nearby words

c)

An abrupt change in tone

d)

A specific rhyme scheme

136.

The purpose of a “didactic” text is to:

a)

Entertain the reader

b)

Instruct or educate the reader

c)

Provide a mystery to solve

d)

Express the writer’s personal feelings

137.

A “soliloquy” in drama is when:

a)

A character speaks directly to another character

b)

A character speaks their thoughts aloud, usually alone on stage

c)

Characters engage in dialogue with each other

d)

The narrator provides background information

138.

Which of the following best describes “metonymy”?

a)

Using part of something to refer to the whole

b)

Using a related concept to represent something else

c)

An exaggeration for effect

d)

A direct comparison using “like” or “as”

139.

The narrative technique in which an author addresses the reader directly is called:

a)

First-person point of view

b)

Omniscient narration

c)

Second-person point of view

d)

Dramatic irony

140.

The term “bildungsroman” refers to:

a)

A mystery novel

b)

A coming-of-age story that follows a character’s growth

c)

A poem about nature

d)

A historical fiction novel

141.

In a drama, the term “aside” means:

a)

A speech directed to the audience that other characters do not hear

b)

A dialogue between two main characters

c)

A lengthy monologue

d)

Background music in a play

142.

In the teaching of literature, “guided reading” is primarily used to:

a)

Assess students’ speed in reading

b)

Provide structured support as students read

c)

Allow independent exploration of texts

d)

Test comprehension only

143.

Which of the following best defines “connotation”?

a)

The literal dictionary definition of a word

b)

The implied or emotional meaning associated with a word

c)

A synonym for another word

d)

The grammatical function of a word

144.

The genre of “parody” aims to:

a)

Offer an exact imitation of a work

b)

Critique a work or genre humorously by imitation

c)

Provide a serious retelling of a story

d)

Present a factual account

145.

In a narrative, the term “subplot” refers to:

a)

The main storyline

b)

A secondary story that supports the main plot

c)

The climax of the story

d)

The background setting

146.

A “protagonist” in a story is:

a)

The main character who faces the central conflict

b)

The main character’s opponent

c)

A minor character

d)

An observer in the story

147.

The literary device “oxymoron” refers to:

a)

A figure of speech combining contradictory terms

b)

An exaggerated statement

c)

A type of metaphor

d)

A form of understatement

148.

“Tone” in literature is primarily determined by:

a)

The writer’s choice of words and style

b)

The plot of the story

c)

The setting and background

d)

The narrator’s point of view

149.

Which teaching strategy involves questioning that encourages students to think deeply about the material?

a)

Drill-and-practice

b)

Socratic questioning

c)

Silent reading

d)

Memorization

150.

The purpose of “summative assessment” in education is to:

a)

Provide continuous feedback during the learning process

b)

Measure students’ understanding at the end of a unit or course

c)

Facilitate peer collaboration

d)

Develop foundational reading skills