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Paper 2 Quiz

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following processes is responsible for the formation of U-shaped valleys?

a)

Weathering

b)

Glacial plucking

c)

Past tectonic processes

d)

Sedimentary rock formation

2.

What type of rock is formed from existing rock changing shape and characteristics through heat and/or pressure?

a)

Sedimentary rock

b)

Igneous rock

c)

Metamorphic rock

d)

Carboniferous limestone

3.

Which type of rock is known for being extremely resistant to erosion?

a)

Sedimentary rock

b)

Igneous rock

c)

Clay

d)

Chalk

4.

What is a characteristic feature of lowland landscapes in the UK?

a)

U-shaped valleys

b)

Scree slopes

c)

Dip slopes and escarpments

d)

Metamorphic rock formations

5.

Which area in the UK is known for having sedimentary rocks such as chalk and clay?

a)

The Pennines

b)

The Cambrian Mountains

c)

The Fens, Norfolk Broads, and Somerset Levels

d)

Grampian Mountains

6.

What are upland areas shaped by?

a)

Biological, chemical, and physical weathering

b)

Only biological weathering

c)

Only chemical weathering

d)

Only physical weathering

7.

Which feature is caused by glacial erosion and later post-glacial rivers?

a)

U-shaped valleys

b)

Hanging valleys

c)

Outwash plains

d)

Misfit streams

8.

What type of forestry is commonly found in upland areas?

a)

Deciduous forestry

b)

Coniferous forestry

c)

Tropical forestry

d)

Mixed forestry

9.

What is a characteristic of lowland areas?

a)

High elevation

b)

Low clay vales

c)

Steep slopes

d)

Glacial features

10.

What type of coastline is characterized by rock layers parallel to the coast?

a)

Discordant coastlines

b)

Concordant coastlines

c)

Erosional coastlines

d)

Depositional coastlines

11.

What is created when a cliff collapses leaving a flat rock area visible at low tide?

a)

Stump

b)

Arch

c)

Wave cut platform

d)

Stack

12.

Which seasons in the UK are the wettest and often have the most storms?

a)

Spring and Summer

b)

Summer and Autumn

c)

Autumn and Winter

d)

Winter and Spring

13.

What are coastal landforms created through?

a)

Only marine processes

b)

Only sub-aerial processes

c)

A combination of marine, sub-aerial, and weathering processes

d)

Only weathering processes

14.

What is the effect of destructive waves on beaches?

a)

They create wide, gently sloping beaches

b)

They remove beach material, creating narrow, steeply sloping beaches

c)

They deposit large amounts of sand

d)

They have no effect on beach shape

15.

Which process involves the breakdown of rocks on or near the surface?

a)

Transportation

b)

Deposition

c)

Weathering

d)

Sub-aerial processes

16.

What is longshore drift?

a)

The movement of sediment up the beach at an angle

b)

The direct effect of human activity on coastal landscapes

c)

The breakdown of rocks by chemical processes

d)

The deposition of material by constructive waves

17.

What percentage of the Dorset Coastline is developed?

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

18.

What is one of the main causes of rising sea levels?

a)

Increased volcanic activity

b)

Melting ice caps

c)

Decreased rainfall

d)

Increased solar activity

19.

What does ICZM stand for?

a)

Integrated Coastal Zone Management

b)

International Coastal Zone Management

c)

Independent Coastal Zone Management

d)

Intensive Coastal Zone Management

20.

Which type of engineering involves creating barriers like sea walls?

a)

Soft engineering

b)

Hard engineering

c)

Strategic engineering

d)

Natural engineering

21.

What is a characteristic of the River Severn in its upper course?

a)

Wide and deep

b)

Slow and meandering

c)

Steep gradient and narrow channels

d)

Low velocity and angular sediment

22.

What type of erosion creates V-shaped valleys?

a)

Lateral erosion

b)

Vertical erosion

c)

Horizontal erosion

d)

Circular erosion

23.

What is the process called when air is forced into gaps in the rock, causing it to split apart over time?

a)

Abrasion

b)

Attrition

c)

Hydraulic action

d)

Solution

24.

Which transportation process involves larger stones rolling along the riverbed?

a)

Saltation

b)

Traction

c)

Suspension

d)

Solution

25.

What type of valleys are formed by vertical erosion in the upper course of a river?

a)

U-shaped valleys

b)

V-shaped valleys

c)

Flat valleys

d)

Circular valleys

26.

What is formed when a river meanders across a valley floor and spreads its deposits?

a)

Delta

b)

Oxbow lake

c)

Floodplain

d)

Gorge

27.

What is the name of the lake formed when the neck of a meander is cut off?

a)

Delta

b)

Oxbow lake

c)

Floodplain

d)

Gorge

28.

What is a hydrograph used for?

a)

To measure the depth of a river

b)

To show how a river responds to a rainfall event

c)

To calculate the speed of river flow

d)

To predict weather patterns

29.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a flashy hydrograph?

a)

Low rising limb

b)

Long lag time

c)

Steep rising limb

d)

Gentle falling limb

30.

What impact did increased urbanisation have on the River Severn?

a)

Decreased surface runoff

b)

Increased drainage and surface runoff

c)

Reduced flood risk

d)

Improved water quality

31.

What was a significant impact of the 2007 flooding in Tewkesbury?

a)

No homes were affected

b)

The local council saved money

c)

Schools and businesses were shut

d)

The British economy gained £3.2 billion

32.

What is a disadvantage of using flood walls for river management?

a)

They are inexpensive

b)

They look natural

c)

They can cause flooding downstream

d)

They increase river access

33.

What is a potential disadvantage of using embankments for flood management?

a)

They are very expensive to build.

b)

They can burst under pressure.

c)

They are not environmentally friendly.

d)

They are difficult to construct.

34.

Which of the following is a characteristic of flood barriers?

a)

They are permanent structures.

b)

They are inexpensive and temporary.

c)

They are used in rural areas only.

d)

They are always made of concrete.

35.

What is the main benefit of floodplain retention as a soft engineering strategy?

a)

It prevents all flooding.

b)

It is the most expensive option.

c)

It allows the river to flood and adds sediment to the floodplain.

d)

It requires no maintenance.

36.

How does river restoration help in flood management?

a)

It speeds up the river flow.

b)

It creates artificial lakes.

c)

It removes embankments and restores meanders.

d)

It increases the height of riverbanks.

37.

What are the characteristics of urban core areas in the UK?

a)

Low population density, aging population

b)

High population density, economically active population

c)

Primary industry activities, cheaper land prices

d)

Low-rise buildings, isolated farms

38.

Which of the following is a characteristic of rural periphery areas?

a)

High-rise buildings, high property prices

b)

Economically active young population

c)

Low population density, aging population

d)

Large number of jobs, cultural centers

39.

What was one of the aims of the UK and former EU government policies regarding urban and rural areas?

a)

Increase property prices in urban areas

b)

Reduce differences through enterprise zones

c)

Promote high-rise building in rural areas

d)

Decrease tax breaks for companies

40.

What has been a significant impact of migration in the UK over the last 50 years?

a)

Decrease in ethnic diversity

b)

Reduction in international migration

c)

Increase in ethnic and cultural diversity

d)

Decrease in population distribution

41.

What is a common reason for retirement migration to areas like Devon and Cornwall?

a)

High crime rates

b)

Lack of job opportunities

c)

Scenic environment and slower pace of life

d)

High cost of living

42.

What was a significant reason for the UK government encouraging immigration from former colonies after World War II?

a)

To increase tourism

b)

To address a shortage of workers

c)

To promote cultural exchange

d)

To expand the military

43.

Which event in 2004 led to an increase in migration from Eastern Europe to the UK?

a)

The fall of the Berlin Wall

b)

The EU Accession of 8 countries

c)

The introduction of the Euro

d)

The London Olympics

44.

Between 2012-15, which countries did many refugees come from due to war, migrating to UK cities?

a)

India and Pakistan

b)

Syria and Afghanistan

c)

China and Japan

d)

Brazil and Argentina

45.

What has been a major trend in the UK’s employment sectors, particularly affecting the North East?

a)

Increase in primary sector jobs

b)

Decline in tertiary sector jobs

c)

Deindustrialisation and decline in manufacturing

d)

Growth in coal mining

46.

What has been a significant change in the UK’s employment structure in recent years?

a)

Rise in primary sector jobs

b)

Decline in quaternary sector jobs

c)

Rise in tertiary sector jobs

d)

Increase in coal mining jobs

47.

Which industry has had the largest impact on employment in the North East?

a)

Primary industry

b)

Secondary industry

c)

Tertiary (services) industry

d)

Quaternary industry

48.

What type of farms are primarily found in the rural areas of the South East?

a)

Dairy farms

b)

Large-scale fruit farms

c)

Poultry farms

d)

Vegetable farms

49.

What is a key factor attracting new industries to the South East?

a)

Low wages

b)

High unemployment

c)

Accessibility and infrastructure

d)

Lack of competition

50.

What is the process by which the world is becoming increasingly interconnected?

a)

Privatisation

b)

Globalisation

c)

Industrialisation

d)

Urbanisation

51.

What has increased foreign direct investment in the UK?

a)

Privatisation of state-owned industries

b)

Decrease in global competition

c)

Reduction in foreign ownership

d)

Increase in local manufacturing

52.

What is the definition of transnational corporations?

a)

Small firms operating in one country

b)

Large firms with operations in multiple countries

c)

Local businesses with no foreign investment

d)

Government-owned enterprises

53.

What geographical feature was London developed on?

a)

A valley

b)

A river's flood plain

c)

A coastal plain

d)

A desert

54.

What is London recognized for globally?

a)

Its beaches

b)

Its financial industry

c)

Its cuisine

d)

Its climate

55.

Which area in London is known for having densely built areas and many high-rise buildings?

a)

Suburbs

b)

Inner city areas

c)

CBD

d)

Rural-urban fringe

56.

What has led to the creation of derelict areas in London?

a)

Urbanization

b)

Industrialization

c)

Deindustrialisation

d)

Globalization

57.

Which area in London is protected by a greenbelt?

a)

CBD

b)

Inner city areas

c)

Suburbs

d)

Rural-urban fringe

58.

What has the national and international migration of students to areas such as Newham led to?

a)

Urbanization

b)

Studentification

c)

Industrialization

d)

Globalization

59.

What is one of the strategies used to make London more sustainable?

a)

Increasing industrial pollution

b)

Reducing open spaces

c)

Redeveloping former industrial areas

d)

Removing public transport

60.

What is the relationship between London and its surrounding rural areas?

a)

They are completely independent

b)

Rural areas provide labor for London

c)

London exports goods to rural areas

d)

Rural areas have no economic impact on London

61.

What is one of the main reasons for increased house prices in rural areas?

a)

Decrease in population

b)

Increased demand from commuters and retirees

c)

Abundance of housing stock

d)

Decline in tourism

62.

What impact does a decline in primary employment have on rural areas?

a)

Increase in high-skilled jobs

b)

Growth in urban population

c)

Limited job opportunities and depopulation

d)

Expansion of educational services

63.

How can new income and economic opportunities be created in rural areas?

a)

By increasing mechanisation in farming

b)

Through rural diversification and tourism projects

c)

By reducing housing prices

d)

By closing local shops and services

64.

What is a consequence of increased population in rural areas?

a)

Decrease in local services

b)

Reduction in air pollution

c)

Increase in the number of services like schools

d)

Decline in housing prices

65.

What is an example of a hypothesis in geographical investigations?

a)

A statement to be tested

b)

A random guess

c)

A proven fact

d)

A historical event

66.

Which sampling method involves collecting data at equal intervals?

a)

Random

b)

Systematic

c)

Stratified

d)

Descriptive

67.

What is a key aspect of good data collection in geographical investigations?

a)

Small sample size

b)

Inaccurate measurements

c)

Appropriate sampling

d)

Ignoring location

68.

In the context of coastal investigations, what is an example of a quantitative method?

a)

Bi-polar analysis of human impact

b)

Interviews with locals

c)

Observational sketches

d)

Sediment sample measurements

69.

What type of data involves descriptive analysis in fieldwork methods?

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

c)

Systematic

d)

Random

70.

Which tool is suggested for investigating past OS maps of coastal areas?

a)

Geology of Britain viewer

b)

Environmental Agency Flood Risk map

c)

Digi maps

d)

Crime statistics

71.

What is a key issue to consider when using secondary data sources?

a)

Popularity

b)

Accuracy

c)

Simplicity

d)

Cost

72.

Which type of map is used to show flood risk and management in river areas?

a)

Geology map

b)

Census data

c)

Environmental Agency Flood Risk map

d)

Crime statistics

73.

What type of data is used to analyze levels of deprivation in urban areas?

a)

Geology maps

b)

Census data and IMD

c)

Flood risk maps

d)

Historic OS maps