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Motivation Theory Quiz

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An individual who is both intrinsically and extrinsically motivated is more likely to:

a)

enjoy teaching children because they are generally receptive and interested in learning.

b)

enjoy solving complex programming problems and learning about others' innovations.

c)

enjoy taking care of patients and be motivated by having a secure job with good benefits.

d)

be motivated by the opportunity to earn a high income in a secure job position.

2.

__________ is a person's perception about the extent to which performance at a certain level results in the attainment of outcomes.

a)

Expectancy

b)

Valence

c)

Inequity

d)

Instrumentality

3.

According to expectancy theory, if expectancy is high, people:

a)

perceive that if they try hard, they can perform at a high level.

b)

perceive that effort is not correlated with outcomes.

c)

value relationships over performance and achievement.

d)

have a strong desire to control and influence others.

4.

Rochelle believes she is paid fairly for her work as an accountant given the hours she works. The theory of motivation that concentrates on people's perceptions of the fairness of their work outcomes relative to, or in proportion to, their work inputs is:

a)

expectancy.

b)

equity.

c)

goal-setting.

d)

social learning.

5.

Chuy works the same hours as Latoya, but since he produces more than she does, he believes he should be paid more. Chuy is illustrating

a)

Low valence.

b)

Overpayment inequity.

c)

Underpayment inequity.

d)

High valence.

6.

Satisfying an employee's esteem needs, as described in Maslow's hierarchy of motives, can be accomplished with the policy of

a)

Giving people the opportunity to use their skills and abilities to the fullest extent possible.

b)

Promoting good interpersonal relations and organizing social functions.

c)

Providing job security, adequate medical benefits, and safe working conditions.

d)

Granting promotions and recognizing the accomplishments of individual employees.

7.

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the lowest-level needs include

a)

Being recognized for accomplishments.

b)

The opportunity to use one's skills to the fullest extent.

c)

Safe working conditions.

d)

Food, clothing, and housing.

8.

A criticism of Maslow's theory is

a)

More than one need may be satisfied at a time.

b)

The highest-level need is never satisfied.

c)

It has no use in business.

d)

It only included men in the original study, so it does not apply to women.

9.

A manager organizes company picnics for her employees regularly and tries to promote good interpersonal relationships among her team members. According to Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, the manager is trying to satisfy the __________ needs of her employees at work.

a)

belongingness

b)

safety

c)

self-actualization

d)

esteem

10.

According to Herzberg's theory, hygiene needs are best satisfied by

a)

the ability to grow on the job.

b)

a sense of achievement.

c)

a good working environment.

d)

creative assignments.

11.

Tonya, an employee of Baxter's Bagel Company, shows consistent interest in setting clear goals for her performance and is ready to take up challenging roles. She asks her manager to provide feedback on her performance regularly. In the context of McClelland's needs, Tonya is likely to possess a high need for

a)

affiliation.

b)

power.

c)

achievement.

d)

autonomy.

12.

__________ is the process of curtailing the performance of dysfunctional behaviors by eliminating whatever is reinforcing the behaviors.

a)

Punishment

b)

Positive reinforcement

c)

Extinction

d)

Expectancy

13.

Claire had never directed a TV news show before, but she had no doubt she could do it. Claire has

a)

overconfidence.

b)

vicarious modeling.

c)

high self-efficacy.

d)

high self-reinforcement.

14.

The concept that proposes that motivation results not only from direct experience of rewards and punishments but also from a person's thoughts and beliefs is the ________ theory.

a)

social learning

b)

drive reduction

c)

instinct

d)

cognitive dissonance

15.

Using piece-rate pay, management bases an employee's pay on the

a)

amount of effort it requires to produce the product.

b)

length of tenure of the employee.

c)

total profit generated by the organization.

d)

number of units each employee produces.

16.

A computer programmer who does their job well because they enjoy solving complicated computer problems is said to be

a)

extrinsically motivated.

b)

negatively reinforced.

c)

experiencing extinction.

d)

intrinsically motivated.

17.

According to expectancy theory, when people perceive that high performance leads to the receipt of certain outcomes, the concept of ________ is high.

a)

valence

b)

instrumentality

c)

expectancy

d)

self-actualisation

18.

People experiencing overpayment inequity are most likely to

a)

raise their perceptions of their own inputs.

b)

ask for a raise in accordance with their experience.

c)

work slower so they are paid more for less work.

d)

be absent more to take advantage of vacation benefits.

19.

An employer can attempt to meet the employees' safety needs by providing

a)

adequate pay.

b)

company social events.

c)

promotions.

d)

health care benefits.

20.

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, a middle manager could help his employees satisfy their self-actualization needs at work by

a)

establishing a merit system that rewards their accomplishments.

b)

giving them tasks that fit their skill set.

c)

organizing a company picnic.

d)

replacing equipment that is old.

21.

The theory that distinguishes needs related to the work itself from those related to the context of the work is ________ theory.

a)

Maslow's hierarchy

b)

Skinner's operant conditioning

c)

Herzberg's motivator-hygiene

d)

McClelland's needs

22.

Specific, difficult goals may be detrimental for:

a)

learning tasks involving minimal effort.

b)

work that is very creative and uncertain.

c)

performing routine tasks.

d)

jobs requiring a significant amount of time.

23.

Eddie, a production manager at a growing company, has mastered the processes and procedures of overall management of the ongoing production operations by walking around and watching other managers as they work. This is an example of:

a)

negative reinforcement.

b)

contingent learning.

c)

equity learning.

d)

vicarious learning.

24.

Suresh is respected and admired by her colleagues. As such, the power she enjoys is:

a)

expert power.

b)

legitimate power.

c)

internet power.

d)

referent power.

25.

__________ is the expansion of employees' knowledge, tasks, and decision-making responsibilities.

a)

Self-efficacy

b)

Empowerment

c)

Position power

d)

Intellectual stimulation

26.

A manager threatens to cancel bonuses if production quotas are not achieved. What type of power does this manager have?

a)

Coercive

b)

Legitimate

c)

Referent

d)

Expert

27.

According to the behavior model of leadership, when leaders show their subordinates that they trust, respect, and care about them, they engage in

a)

Consideration

b)

Empowerment

c)

Reward

d)

Self-efficacy

28.

Which leadership model includes the premise that effective leaders possess personal qualities that set them apart from ineffective leaders?

a)

Task-oriented

b)

Path-goal

c)

Trait

d)

Contingency

29.

Susan, a production manager, sees that production was down during the overnight shift in her aluminum casting facility. She immediately confronts Lester, the night supervisor, because she feels he is to blame. After reprimanding Lester, she sees that she set up the orders for the previous night improperly. She immediately tells Lester and the plant manager that she was to blame for the lack of production and explains what happened. Which leadership trait did Susan display?

a)

maturity

b)

dominance

c)

tolerance for stress

d)

honesty

30.

In Fiedler's contingency model of leadership, which statement is true?

a)

Leader style is an enduring characteristic that managers cannot change.

b)

Leadership situations are more favorable for leading when position power is weak.

c)

When task structure is low, the situation is favorable for leading.

d)

Task-oriented leaders are primarily concerned with developing good relationships with subordinates.

31.

Task structure refers to the extent to which the work to be performed is clear-cut so that a leader's subordinates know what needs to be accomplished and how to go about doing it. When task structure is low, goals may be vague.

a)

amount of legitimate, reward, and coercive power a leader has by virtue of his or her position in an organization.

b)

steps taken by leaders to make sure that work gets done, subordinates perform their jobs acceptably, and the organization is efficient and effective.

c)

extent to which the work to be performed is clear-cut so that a leader's subordinates know what needs to be accomplished and how to go about doing it.

d)

process of giving employees at all levels the authority to make decisions, be responsible for their outcomes, improve quality, and cut costs.

32.

When Malik hires new employees, he takes the time to help them set goals, assigns them tasks, and shows them how to complete the tasks. According to Robert House's path-goal theory, behaviors such as these are __________ behaviors.

a)

supportive

b)

achievement-oriented

c)

directive

d)

participative

33.

The leader substitutes model:

a)

Identifies situations when different types of leaders are needed.

b)

Shows leaders how to encourage their employees to reach organizational objectives.

c)

Suggests circumstances where the presence of a leader is not needed.

d)

Calls for existing employees into leadership roles on recurring basis.

34.

Which term refers to an enthusiastic, self-confident leader who is able to clearly communicate their vision of how good things could be?

a)

Transformational leader

b)

Charismatic leader

c)

Transactional leader

d)

Considerate leader

35.

When a leader supports and encourages subordinates to help them improve and grow on the job, they are engaging in:

a)

Intellectual stimulation.

b)

Transactional leadership.

c)

Empowerment.

d)

Developmental consideration.

36.

Michel wants the managers in his retail outlet chain to encourage high performance with transactional leadership techniques. This means Michel’s managers will:

a)

Use their specialized knowledge to guide employees on tasks they do not fully understand.

b)

Leave employees alone to manage their own affairs unless a major issue arises.

c)

Consult with employees before making any large decisions.

d)

Use reward and coercive powers to motivate employees.

37.

Which statement about gender differences in managers is accurate?

a)

Male managers tend to engage in less initiating structure than female managers.

b)

Female managers engage in more consideration, and male managers engage in more initiating structure.

c)

Male managers are more likely than female managers to use participative styles of leadership.

d)

Male and female managers do not differ significantly in their tendency to perform different leader behaviors.

38.

Payton works for a fiber optics component manufacturer and deals with cutting-edge technology. He needs the workers he supervises to produce innovative products regularly. Since he effectively supports his workers and understands the motivations and strong emotions they feel when they are creating products and concepts, Payton exhibits

a)

emotional intelligence.

b)

leadership substitution.

c)

coercive power.

d)

transactional thinking.

39.

What trait related to effective leadership helps managers deal with the many demands they face?

a)

dominance

b)

self-confidence

c)

maturity

d)

high energy

40.

The leadership substitutes model suggests that under certain conditions managers do not have to play a leadership role

a)

when employees may not be able to accept the company's management philosophy.

b)

when the company is facing large changes in personnel and there is no way of determining which employees will remain.

c)

because members of an organization sometimes can perform at a high level without a manager exerting influence over them.

d)

because employees are not willing to accept changes and will continue to perform the same tasks regardless of management oversight.

41.

When a manager shares information with subordinates in such a way that they become aware of problems and the need for change, and in turn, they take ownership and view problems as challenges, the manager has engaged in which aspect of transformational leadership?

a)

Intellectual stimulation

b)

Individual consideration

c)

Charisma

d)

Inspirational motivation

42.

Gender-based research on leader behaviors has found that:

a)

Male and female managers tend to differ significantly in their effectiveness as leaders.

b)

Female managers engage in more consideration and initiating structure behaviors than male managers.

c)

Male and female managers do not differ significantly in their tendencies to perform different leader behaviors.

d)

Women engage in more consideration than men, while men engage in more participative behaviors.

43.

"Synergy" refers to:

a)

The performance gains that result when individuals and departments coordinate their actions.

b)

The violations of a group norm by a member of the group.

c)

A set of tasks and behaviors that a member of a group is expected to perform.

d)

The degree to which members are attracted to the group and internalize its norms.

44.

What is the best definition of a group?

a)

Two or more managers who come together to establish and achieve organizational goals.

b)

Two or more people who work interdependently with one another to achieve a specific common goal or objective.

c)

Two or more high-level officers and the heads of the most important departments.

d)

Two or more people interacting with each other to accomplish certain goals or meet certain needs.

45.

"Groupthink" refers to

a)

the tendency of individuals to put forth less effort when they work in groups than when they work alone.

b)

faulty group decision making that results when group members strive for agreement at the expense of critical assessments.

c)

the degree to which members of a group are attracted to or loyal to their group or team.

d)

the performance that results when individuals in a group overcome their differences and coordinate their actions.

46.

Tonya and her coworkers felt that they needed more fun in their jobs, so they formed a group to create spontaneous celebrations of birthdays and milestones among themselves. This is an example of a(n)

a)

virtual group.

b)

informal group.

c)

self-managed work group.

d)

task force.

47.

What kind of team has members who rarely or never meet face-to-face, but rather interact by using various forms of information technology?

a)

cross-functional

b)

cross-cultural

c)

research and development

d)

virtual

48.

To make a self-managed work team effective, managers should

a)

supervise the team's work.

b)

allow team members to self-select.

c)

provide training to the team members.

d)

take responsibility for the team's output.

49.

Ad hoc committees are:

a)

informal groups that develop within an organization.

b)

also known as interest groups.

c)

permanent teams within the organization.

d)

formed to solve a specific, mutual problem.

50.

What is the best definition of group roles?

a)

the individual initiative to assume additional responsibilities as team members see fit and to modify their assigned roles

b)

the division of work to be performed into particular tasks and the assignment of tasks to individual workers

c)

a set of behaviors and tasks that a member of a group is expected to perform because of his or her position in the group

d)

the characteristics and processes from which the group derives its function and effectiveness

51.

During the norming stage of group development,

a)

members try to get to know one another and reach a common understanding.

b)

close ties between group members develop.

c)

the real work of the group gets accomplished.

d)

group members experience conflict and disagreements.

52.

Veronica's team was struggling. The team leader wanted to assign tasks but some of the members wanted to choose their own. In addition, the schedule for meetings was interfering with some members' other responsibilities and they started skipping meetings. This team was most likely in which stage of group development?

a)

storming

b)

forming

c)

norming

d)

adjourning

53.

The task force finally completed its report and made its recommendations to top management. This task force has reached which stage of group development?

a)

norming

b)

adjourning

c)

forming

d)

performing

54.

Regarding the balance of conformity and deviance within a group:

a)

Low conformity and high deviance result in low performance due to dysfunctional norms.

b)

High conformity and low deviance result in low performance due to uncontrolled member behavior.

c)

Moderate conformity and moderate deviance result in high performance.

d)

Groups should strive to maximize conformity and eliminate deviance.

55.

Which term refers to the shared guidelines or rules for behavior that most group members follow?

a)

group cohesiveness

b)

division of labor

c)

group norms

d)

group dynamics

56.

Which statement about group cohesiveness is accurate?

a)

Members of small groups are less cohesive than members of large groups.

b)

As groups become more successful, their cohesiveness tends to increase.

c)

Cohesiveness within a group increases when conformity to group norms is low.

d)

Competition decreases group cohesiveness.

57.

When there is high conformity and low deviance in a group, the group's performance is likely to be:

a)

High because the group is well balanced.

b)

Low because the group cannot control its members' behaviors.

c)

Low because the group fails to change dysfunctional norms.

d)

High because the group is satisfied.

58.

To encourage group cohesiveness, managers should:

a)

Discourage the group from forming an identity.

b)

Promote intergroup competition.

c)

Reward cooperation between groups.

d)

Keep the measures of group performance confidential.

59.

What can a manager do to discourage social loafing in a group?

a)

Create larger groups with a high degree of diversity.

b)

Focus on recognizing the group's performance as a whole.

c)

Downplay individual contributions by splitting bonuses equally among all team members.

d)

Assign tasks to group members and hold them accountable for their performance.

60.

The component of an HRM system that gives managers the information they need to make decisions about how to rank, motivate, and reward organizational members is known as:

a)

Development appraisal.

b)

Selection processing.

c)

Performance appraisal.

d)

Recruitment appraisal.

61.

Paul Williams, the CEO of Auto Manufacturing, has decided to implement additional outsourcing. To implement the added outsourcing, Paul could

a)

contract with an auto parts supplier in the country to provide automobile parts.

b)

open a factory in another country to minimize their labor costs.

c)

acquire a major supplier to centralize the product-related decision-making for Auto Manufacturing.

d)

buy a Chinese company that manufactures automobile parts.

62.

Regarding internal recruiting,

a)

managers do not possess prior knowledge about the abilities of the candidates.

b)

applicants are unfamiliar with the organization.

c)

it is undertaken only laterally within the organization.

d)

it is less time-consuming than external recruiting.

63.

When Katie was interviewed for a financial management position, she was asked to complete a balance sheet for a fictional company to assess her skills. This is an example of an ________ test.

a)

personality

b)

communication

c)

ability

d)

results

64.

________ is the degree to which a tool or test measures the same thing each time it is used.

a)

Homogeneity

b)

Reproducibility

c)

Variability

d)

Reliability

65.

________ is the degree to which a tool measures what it is supposed to measure.

a)

Reliability

b)

Validity

c)

Visibility

d)

Homogeneity

66.

The activity that focuses on building the knowledge and skills of organizational members so they are prepared to take on new responsibilities and challenges is called

a)

development

b)

training

c)

assessment

d)

evaluation

67.

Key aspects of the work situation and job tasks are duplicated as closely as possible in an artificial setting in

a)

on-the-job training

b)

simulation

c)

unstructured interviews

d)

TQM reprojects

68.

Managers assess subordinates on personal characteristics that are relevant to job performance, such as skills, abilities, and personality, when ________ appraisals are used.

a)

behavior

b)

trait

c)

results

d)

needs

69.

The feedback from a(n) ________ appraisal is likely to be of little help for employees interested in improving their performance, as the appraisal is based on relatively enduring human characteristics that change only over the long term.

a)

format

b)

objective

c)

trait

d)

behavior

70.

Twila is conducting yearly appraisals for the employees in his team. He wants to avoid giving subjective feedback and instead wants to focus on objective criteria. In order to achieve this, Twila would

a)

remind employees of the number of times they have been late during the month.

b)

appraise work performance by their work behaviors.

c)

assess the actual production of workers, such as their sales data, in their jobs.

d)

provide his opinion of how the employees are performing.

71.

Meyla is a marketing manager at a consumer products company. She makes $60,000 a year. Her friend, Dimitri, is also a marketing manager at a different consumer products company. As such, Dimitri should be paid at the same pay ________.

a)

structure

b)

range

c)

level

d)

grade

72.

Sanjit and Dany joined ABC software at the same time. Both are avid athletes, so they chose a gym membership as one of their benefits. Terrance, who works at the same company, is a new father whose wife also works, so he chose paid childcare as one of his benefits. This company appears to have a(n) ________ benefit plan.

a)

needs-based

b)

incentive

c)

complete

d)

cafeteria-style

73.

Child labor was prohibited and the minimum wage, overtime pay, and maximum working hours were implemented with the ________ Act.

a)

Equal Pay

b)

Fair Labor Standards

c)

Civil Rights

d)

Age Discrimination in Employment

74.

Dan is a member of Pipefitters Local 597, a union based in Chicago. The union most likely

a)

does not require members to pay for membership.

b)

wields more power as a group than Dan does as an individual.

c)

includes members of the management team.

d)

has more members than it did in the 1950s.

75.

A software firm interviews dozens of highly qualified programmers before deciding on which ones to hire. This is the HRM process of

a)

recruitment.

b)

expansion.

c)

selection.

d)

appraisal.

76.

A manager attempting to select a test for a job applicant that will be a good predictor of the applicant's performance on the job should be primarily concerned with the ________ of the test.

a)

validity

b)

reliability

c)

instability

d)

compatibility