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Convergence to IFRS - Module 4 of FA

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

IFRS consits of …..

a)

IFRS 1 to 17

b)

IAS 1 to 41

c)

IFRIC and SIC Interpretations

d)

All of the above

2.

IAS in accounting stands means……

a)

Indian Accounting Standards

b)

Indian Administrative Service

c)

International Accounting Standards

d)

International Auditing Standards

3.

IFRS stands for ….

a)

Institutional Financial Reporting Standards

b)

Indian Financial Reporting Standards

c)

International Financial Reporting Services

d)

International Financial Reporting Standards

4.

IAS was formulated by …..

a)

ICAI

b)

ASB

c)

IASB

d)

IASC

5.

IFRS was formulated by …..

a)

ICAI

b)

ASB

c)

IASB

d)

IASC

6.

IASB was established in the year ….

a)

1973

b)

2001

c)

2015

d)

1977

7.

IASC was established in the year ….

a)

1973

b)

2001

c)

2015

d)

1977

8.

presentation of financial statements comes under ….

a)

IAS 1

b)

IFRS 1

c)

Ind AS 101

d)

IAS 2

9.

first time adoption of IFRS comes under …..

a)

IAS 1

b)

IFRS 1

c)

IFRS 2

d)

IAS 2

10.

carve-out means ….

a)

provisions of IFRS included in Ind AS

b)

Provisions of IFRS deleted in Ind AS

c)

new provisions inserted in Ind AS

d)

All of the above

11.

Ind AS is ……

a)

the converged version of US GAAP

b)

the converged version of FASB

c)

the converged version of IFRS

d)

None of the above

12.

Ind AS is =……

a)

IFRS + Carve outs

b)

IFRS - Carve outs

c)

IFRS * Carve outs

d)

IFRS / Carve outs

13.

which of the following is NOT a reason for convergence

a)

for keeping the sovereignty

b)

for meeting the local needs

c)

for permitting IASB in standard setting

d)

for meeting the national legal framework

14.

IASB was controlled and funded by ….

a)

IFRIC

b)

IFRS Advisory Council

c)

IFRS Technical Committee

d)

IFRS Foundation

15.
Standard setting process in India is carried out by …..
a)
ASB of ICAI
b)
IASB of ICAI
c)
FASB
d)
IASB
16.

who formulates US GAAP

a)

ASB of ICAI

b)

IASB of ICAI

c)

FASB

d)

IASB

17.

The regulator of accounting and auditing formed as per Companies Act 2013 is ….

a)

PFRDA

b)

ICAI

c)

NFRA

d)

IRDA

18.

NFRA stands for ……

a)

National Fund Regulation Authority

b)

National Financial Reporting Authority

c)

National Financial Registration Authority

d)

National Financial Reporting Agency

19.

Financial Statements of companies does NOT include …….

a)

SOPL

b)

SOFP

c)

SOCE

d)

SOPF

20.

SOFP stands for ….

a)

Summary of Financial Position

b)

Statement of Financial Position

c)

Statement of Financial Profit

d)

Summary of Financial Profit

21.

SOCE stands for …..

a)

Summary of Cash and Equity

b)

Statement of Cash Equity

c)

Statement of Changes in Equity

d)

Statement of Composite Equity

22.

SOCF stands for ……

a)

Statement of Changes in Fund

b)

Statement of Cash Fund

c)

Statement of Comprehensive Fund

d)

Statement of Cash Flows

23.

OCI stands for …..

a)

Original Cash Income

b)

Organizational Cash Income

c)

Other Comprehensive Income

d)

Other Cash Income

24.

which of the following is NOT a need for Accounting Standards

a)

Protection of the interest of investors

b)

promting disparity in accounting practice

c)

uniformity of presentation

d)

regulatory compliances

25.

which of the follwing is NOT a benefit of accounting standards

a)

Comparability

b)

assists auditors

c)

impliments fraud promotion activities

d)

improves reliability of financial information

26.

which is NOT a feature of IFRS

a)

principle based

b)

global in nature

c)

rule based

d)

comparability, reliability and transparency

27.
The two basic assumptions in IFRS are …..
a)
Going Conern and Accrual Basis of Accounting
b)
Consistency and Conservatism
c)
Matching and Verifyability
d)
timeliness and full disclosure
28.

The first step in the IFRS standard setting process is …..

a)

publication of exposure draft

b)

publication of discussion paper

c)

publication of standard

d)

setting the agenda for standard

29.

which is correct in respect of Exposure Draft

a)

It is a draft standard

b)

it is exposed to the public for comments

c)

any one can suggest and state their opinion on the draft

d)

All of the above

30.

post implementation measures of IFRS consists of ……

a)

training and development

b)

publicity and communication

c)

implementation strategies and interpretations

d)

All of the above

31.

ICAI was establieshed in the year ….

a)

1947

b)

1949

c)

1950

d)

1967

32.

which of the following is NOT a function of ICAI

a)

Education and Examination of CA courses

b)

conducting professional development programs and post qualification courses

c)

prescribing ethical standards for companies

d)

prescribing ethical and professional standards for members

33.

ASB was constituted in the year …..

a)

1949

b)

1977

c)

1973

d)

1971

34.

ASB stands for ….

a)

Accounting Service Board

b)

Accounting Selection Board

c)

Accounting Standards Bank

d)

Accounting Standards Board

35.

Applicability of Accounting Standards for companies are notified by …..

a)

Ministry of Finance

b)

Ministry of Industries

c)

Ministry of Corporate Affairs

d)

Ministry of Foreign Affairs

36.
NACAS stands for …..
a)
National Adivisory Committee on Accounting Standards
b)
National Adivisory Committee on Auditing Standards
c)
National Adivisory Commission on Auditing Standards
d)
National Adivisory Commission on Accounting System
37.

NFRA was constituted in the year ….

a)

2013

b)

2014

c)

2018

d)

2020

38.

which is TRUE about the Conceptual Framework

a)

generally accepted theoretical principles

b)

serves as a frame of reference

c)

forms basis for the development of standards

d)

All of the above

39.

which is NOT a nature of Conceptual Framework

a)

avoids last minute fire fighting

b)

theoretical in nature

c)

creates ambiguity

d)

avoids contradictions and inconsistencies

40.

Primary users of accounting information consists of

a)

Existing and Potential Investors

b)

Lenders and Creditors

c)

Both of the Above

d)

None of the above

41.

Fundamental Qualitative Characteristics of Financial Information consists of …..

a)

Relevance

b)

Faithful representation

c)

Materiality

d)

All of the above

42.

Enhancing Qualitative Characteristics of Financial Information consists of ….

a)

Comparability and Verifyability

b)

Timeliness and Understandability

c)

Both of the Above

d)

None of the above

43.

Financial Information has Relevance, if it holds ….

a)

Predictive Value

b)

Conformatory Value

c)

Materiality

d)

All of the above

44.

Financial Information has Faithful Representation, if it holds ….

a)

Completeness

b)

Neutrality

c)

Reliability and Free from errors

d)

All of the above

45.

As per IFRS , Elements of Financial Statements includes …

a)

Assets and Liabilities

b)

Equity

c)

Income and Expense

d)

All of the above

46.
A resource controlled by entity from which future economic benefits will flow in to the entity is called as …...
a)
Assets
b)
Liabilities
c)
Equity
d)
Income
47.

To be called as a liablity, the obligation must be a ….

a)

future obligation

b)

present obligation

c)

contingent obligation

d)

probable obligation

48.

Assets are resources controlled by the entity as a result of …..

a)

furure events

b)

past events

c)

current events

d)

None of the above

49.

For calling as a Liability, the present obligation should arise from ……

a)

furure events

b)

past events

c)

current events

d)

None of the above

50.

Equity is the difference between …..

a)

Income and Expenses

b)

demand and supply

c)

capital and drawings

d)

Assets and Liabilities

51.

…….. Is the increase in economic benefits during the accounting period

a)

Expenses

b)

Income

c)

Assets

d)

Liabilities

52.

Income is increase in economic benefit in the form of …..

a)

inflows

b)

enhancement of assets

c)

decrease of liabilities

d)

All of the above

53.
Income will result in an …..
a)
increase in equity
b)
decrease in equity
c)
Both of the Above
d)
None of the above
54.
…… is the decrease in economic benefits during the accounting year
a)
Expenses
b)
Income
c)
Assets
d)
Liabilities
55.

…… is called the residual interest in the assets of an entity

a)

Assets

b)

Liabilities

c)

Equity

d)

Income

56.

Expenses in the form of decrease in economic benefits arises from ……

a)

outflows

b)

depletion of assets

c)

increase of liabilities

d)

All of the above

57.

Expenses will result in ……

a)

increase in equity

b)

decrease in equity

c)

Both of the Above

d)

None of the above

58.

Recognition ctiteria of Financial Elements does NOT include …..

a)

meeting the definition of such item to be recognised

b)

inflow / out flow of economic benefits

c)

Reliable measurement of Cost / Value

d)

Decision in the Board Meeting

59.

which is NOT a criteria for recognising a liability

a)

probability of future economic benefits flow in to the entity

b)

probability of outflow of economic benefits

c)

Reliable measurement of Cost / Value

d)

meeting the definition of liability

60.

which is the recognition criteria of assets

a)

probability of future economic benefits flow in to the entity

b)

probability of outflow of economic benefits

c)

Reliable measurement of Cost / Value

d)

All of the above

61.

which of the following is NOT a measurement basis

a)

Historical Cost

b)

Current Cost

c)

Present Value

d)

Social Value

62.
The process of incorporating a transaction item in to the books of accounts is called as …..
a)
Recognition
b)
Measurement
c)
Presentation
d)
Disclosure
63.

The process of assigning value to an item or transaction is called

a)

Recognition

b)

Measurement

c)

Presentation

d)

Disclosure

64.

The process of showng financial elements in the final accounts is called ….

a)

Recognition

b)

Measurement

c)

Presentation

d)

Disclosure

65.

The process of revealing all relevant information along with the final accounts is called as

a)

Recognition

b)

Measurement

c)

Presentation

d)

Disclosure

66.

The process of removing a financial item from the books of accounts is called as …..

a)

De-presentation

b)

De-disclosure

c)

De-recognition

d)

De-measurement

67.

The two types of Capital Maintenance under IFRS are

a)

Financial Capital and Social Capital

b)

Financial Capital and Physical Capital

c)

Financial Capital and Human Capital

d)

None of the above

68.

Financial Capital implies ….

a)

Net Assets

b)

Equity

c)

Both of the Above

d)

None of the above

69.

Physical Capital does NOT implies …..

a)

Operating Capacity

b)

Production Capacity

c)

Plant Capacity

d)

Working Capial

70.

Voluntary adoption of Ind AS for companies started from the year ..…

a)

2016-2017

b)

2017-2018

c)

2018-2019

d)

2015-2016

71.
Phase 1 of Mandatory adoption of Ind AS for companies started in the year ….
a)
2016-2017
b)
2017-2018
c)
2018-2019
d)
2015-2016
72.

Phase 2 of Mandatory adoption of Ind AS for companies started in the year ….

a)

2016-2017

b)

2017-2018

c)

2018-2019

d)

2015-2016

73.

Which is NOT coming under the mandatory adoption of Ind AS - Phase 1

a)

Listed companies having networt above 500 crore

b)

Unlisted Companies having networth above 500 crores

c)

Group Companies of the above companies

d)

Private Limited companies having networth aboe 500 crores

74.

Which is NOT coming under the mandatory adoption of Ind AS - Phase 2

a)

All Listed Companies

b)

All Unlisted Companies

c)

Unlisted Companies having networth above 250 Crores

d)

Subsidiary Companies of listed companies

75.

Companies (Ind AS) Rules were first notified on ……

a)

16-02-2015

b)

16-02-2018

c)

16-02-2012

d)

16-02-2020

76.
Year of adoption of Ind AS for NBFC started from ….
a)
2018-2019
b)
2017-2018
c)
2016-2017
d)
2015-2016
77.

The value agreed upon by market participants in an orderly conducted transaction is called as …..

a)

Time Value

b)

Historical Value

c)

Fair Value

d)

All of the above

78.

major Carve outs in IND AS 101 are …

a)

carrying amount as deemed cost for first time adoption

b)

classification of Lease of Land and Building

c)

identification of Non Current Assets held for Sale and discontinued operation

d)

All of the above

79.

Business Combinations of entities under common control as per Ind AS 103 is an example of …..

a)

Carve-outs

b)

Carve-ins

c)

Similarity of Ind AS with IFRS

d)

None of the above

80.

Position Statement in Ind AS is termed as ….

a)

SOFP

b)

SOCF

c)

Balance Sheet

d)

SOPL