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2R231 Block 8 Review

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is defined as metrics that measure the performance of a unit over time and the effectiveness of achieving their goals?

a)

Fix Rate

b)

Lagging Indicatiors

c)

Repeat Rate

d)

Maintenance Performance Indicators

2.

What two categories do your Maintenance Performance Indicators fall into?

a)

Lagging Indicators

b)

Deferred Discrepancy Rate

c)

Leading Indicators

d)

Break Rate

3.

Which indicators are those that directly impact Maintenance’s ability to provide resources to execute the mission?

a)

Lagging Indicators

b)

Leading Indicators

4.

Which indicators are those that show firmly established trends and surface over time?

a)

Leading Indicators

b)

Lagging Indicators

5.

Your Leading and Lagging Indicators are integrated into what theory?

a)

Change

b)

Relativity

c)

Cause/Effect

d)

Thermodynamics

6.

What are the two cornerstones of your Maintenance Performance Indicators?

a)

Flying Scheduling Effectiveness

b)

Fleet Availability

c)

Program Execution

d)

Leading Indicators

7.

Which cornerstone is defined as the ability to provide aircraft to accomplish mission requirements?

a)

Fleet Availability

b)

Program Execution

8.

Which cornerstone is defined as the ability to fly a given schedule?

a)

Fleet Availability

b)

Program Execution

9.

What rates are based on past data and indicate the percent of time an aircraft, missile, or trainer is capable of performing its mission?

a)

Maintenance Scheduling Effectiveness

b)

Break Rate

c)

Total Abort Rate

d)

Aircraft (Maintenance) Status Rates

10.

Within your status rates, what is a continual 24-hour clock starts when your unit accepts a piece of equipment?

a)

Tracked Hours

b)

Flown Hours

c)

Possessed Hours

d)

Given Hours

11.

What codes allow flying squadron managers to better supervise their aircraft, and reflect how the overall aircraft performed during a sortie and the current status of an aircraft?

a)

System Capability Codes

b)

Aircraft (Landing) Status Codes

c)

Symbol Codes

d)

Work Unit Codes

12.

Of your Landing Status codes, which one identifies that an aircraft ground aborted (did not launch)?

a)

Code 3

b)

Code 5

c)

Code 2

d)

Code 0

13.

Of your Landing Status codes, which one identifies that an aircraft landed with no discrepancies (malfunctions or failures)?

a)

Code 1

b)

Code 3

c)

Code 4

d)

Code 2

14.

Of your Landing Status codes, which one identifies that an aircraft or system has minor discrepancies, but is capable of further mission assignments?

a)

Code 0

b)

Code 5

c)

Code 2

d)

Code 1

15.

Of your Landing Status codes, which one identifies that an aircraft or system has major discrepancies in mission essential equipment that requires repair or replacement?

a)

Code 5

b)

Code 3

c)

Code 4

d)

Code 0

16.

Of your Landing Status codes, which one identifies that an aircraft or system has suspected or known radiological , chemical, or biological contamination?

a)

Code 2

b)

Code 1

c)

Code 3

d)

Code 4

17.

Of your Landing Status codes, which one identifies that an aircraft or system has suspected or known battle damage?

a)

Code 5

b)

Code 0

c)

Code 1

d)

Code 3

18.

What codes are designed to describe the capability of assigned aircraft to perform their assigned mission?

a)

IMDS Unit Codes

b)

Maintenance Status Codes

c)

Landing Codes

d)

System Capability Codes

19.

What are the three categories of your Maintenance Status Codes?

a)

Not Mission Capable (NMC)

b)

Mission Capable (MC)

c)

Fully Mission Capable (FMC)

d)

Partially Mission Capable (PMC)

20.

Of your Maintenance Status Code categories, which code identifies that the aircraft is capable of performing all of its assigned missions (Status Code 1)?

a)

Partially Mission Capable (PMC)

b)

Not Mission Capable (NMC)

c)

Fully Mission Capable (FMC)

21.

Of your Maintenance Status Code categories, which code identifies that the aircraft is capable of performing one, but not all of its assigned missions (Status Code 2)?

a)

Partially Mission Capable (PMC)

b)

Not Mission Capable (NMC)

c)

Fully Mission Capable (FMC)

22.

Of your Maintenance Status Code categories, which code identifies that the aircraft cannot perform any of its assigned missions (Status Code 3)?

a)

Partially Mission Capable (PMC)

b)

Not Mission Capable (NMC)

c)

Fully Mission Capable (FMC)

23.

What rate measures the percent of a fleet available to accomplish mission requirements?

a)

Aircraft Availability Rate

b)

Mission Capability (MC)

c)

Not Mission Capable (NMC)

d)

Fix Rate

24.

What rate measures the percentage of aircraft that landed with a landing status Code 3 (NMC) condition?

a)

Total Abort Rate

b)

Break Rate

c)

Repeat/Recur Rate

d)

Fix Rate

25.

What rate measures the percentage of broken (code 3) aircraft returned to flyable status in a certain amount of hours?

a)

Fix Rate

b)

Flying Scheduling Effectiveness

c)

System Reliability Rate

d)

CANN Rate

26.

What rate shows what percentage of time a selected system can be expected to perform without having a malfunction?

a)

System Capability Rate

b)

Can Not Duplicate (CND) Rate

c)

System Reliability Rate

d)

Departure Reliablity Rate

27.

What rate shows what percentage of time a selected system can be expected to perform without having a failure, and is an excellent tool for determining the relative health of an aircraft system?

a)

System Capability Rate

b)

Deferred Discrepancy Rate

c)

Air Abort Rate

d)

System Reliability Rate

28.

What codes are used to reflect how a system performed during the sortie?

a)

Aircraft Status Codes

b)

Maintenance Status Codes

c)

System Status (Capability) Codes

d)

Symbol Codes

29.

Of your system status (capability) codes, which code identifies that an aircraft system was flown with a known discrepancy, and no additional discrepancies were noted?

a)

System Capability Code 4

b)

System Capability Code 7

c)

System Capability Code 2

d)

System Capability Code 0

30.

Of your system status (capability) codes, which code identifies that an aircraft system used and performed satisfactorily?

a)

System Capability Code 3

b)

System Capability Code 1

c)

System Capability Code 6

d)

System Capability Code 8

31.

Of your system status (capability) codes, which code identifies that an aircraft system used and performed satisfactorily, minor malfunction exists, system is capable of further missions?

a)

System Capability Code 2

b)

System Capability Code 7

c)

System Capability Code 4

d)

System Capability Code 6

32.

Of your system status (capability) codes, which code identifies that an aircraft system performed unsatisfactorily, but did not cause an abort?

a)

System Capability Code 0

b)

System Capability Code 4

c)

System Capability Code 1

d)

System Capability Code 3

33.

Of your system status (capability) codes, which code identifies that an aircraft system performed unsatisfactorily, and did cause an abort?

a)

System Capability Code 2

b)

System Capability Code 4

c)

System Capability Code 6

d)

System Capability Code 8

34.

Of your system status (capability) codes, which code identifies that an aircraft system was out of commission prior to takeoff?

a)

System Capability Code 5

b)

System Capability Code 3

c)

System Capability Code 7

d)

System Capability Code 1

35.

Of your system status (capability) codes, which code identifies that an aircraft system was installed, but not used?

a)

System Capability Code 4

b)

System Capability Code 0

c)

System Capability Code 3

d)

System Capability Code 6

36.

Of your system status (capability) codes, which code identifies that an aircraft system was not installed?

a)

System Capability Code 7

b)

System Capability Code 2

c)

System Capability Code 5

d)

System Capability Code 3

37.

Of your system status (capability) codes, which code identifies that an aircraft system has suspected or known radiological/biological contamination?

a)

System Capability Code 4

b)

System Capability Code 0

c)

System Capability Code 8

d)

System Capability Code 5

38.

Which rate measures how effectively scheduled maintenance is or was performed, and uses a weighted point system for its calculation?

a)

Maintenance Scheduling Effectiveness (MSE) Rate

b)

Departure Reliability Rate

c)

Deferred Discrepancy Rate

d)

Flying Scheduling Effectiveness (FSE) Rate

39.

Which rate provides a measurement for assessment of the effectiveness of flying programs/schedules?

a)

Fix Rate

b)

Flying Scheduling Effectiveness (FSE) Rate

c)

CANN Rate

d)

Maintenance Scheduling Effectiveness (MSE) Rate

40.

What is an occurrence different from what was scheduled or planned for a sortie?

a)

Aircraft Status

b)

Work Unit Code

c)

Deviation

d)

Maintenance Performance Indicator

41.

For the FSE Rate, how often are any deviations from the schedule recorded?

a)

Monthly

b)

Daily

c)

Quarterly

d)

Yearly

42.

Which rate measures the percentage of total departures that did not have a delay, primarily used by Air Mobility Command/Mobility Air Forces units?

a)

Departure Reliability Rate

b)

Break Rate

c)

FSE Rate

d)

MSE Rate

43.

What are the two types of departure reliability?

a)

Logistics

b)

Squadron

c)

Worldwide

d)

Flight

44.

Of the two types of departure reliability, which one applies to the unit/base level?

a)

Logistics

b)

Worldwide

45.

Of the two types of departure reliability, which one applies to the MAJCOM/HQAF level?

a)

Logistics

b)

Worldwide

46.

What rate measures the average number of sorties or hours flown per authorized aircraft?

a)

FSE Rate

b)

Mission Capability

c)

Sortie/Hourly Utilization Rate

d)

CANN Rate

47.

What rate measures the reduction or loss of sorties due to deviations, both chargeable and non-chargeable?

a)

Attrition Rate

b)

Fix Rate

c)

Ground Abort Rate

d)

FSE Rate

48.

By categorizing types of _________, strategic planners can prioritize corrective actions to try and minimize attrition’s effect on the Air Force’s ability to perform its mission with assigned resources.

a)

Scheduling

b)

Deviations

c)

Attrition

d)

Maintenance

49.

For ACC bases/CAF units, the Spare Factor will generally not exceed what for a given day of flying?

a)

70%

b)

40%

c)

100%

d)

20%

50.

During planned sortie surges, who may determine spare factor?

a)

OG/CC

b)

WG/CC

c)

MXG/CC

d)

POTUS

51.

What rate measures the percentage of scheduled flights that could not be flown at its scheduled time and date, or within the grace period?

a)

Air Abort Rate

b)

Ground Abort Rate

c)

Total Abort Rate

52.

What rate measures the percentage of unsuccessful missions once the aircraft is airborne?

a)

Ground Abort Rate

b)

Total Abort Rate

c)

Air Abort Rate

53.

What rate measures the percentage of scheduled missions/flights that could not be accomplished due to aborts?

a)

Total Abort Rate

b)

Air Abort Rate

c)

Ground Abort Rate

54.

What rate measures the average number of awaiting maintenance and awaiting parts write-ups at least three days old that do not impair mission effectiveness or have any corrective action taken?

a)

Air Abort Rate

b)

Deferred Discrepancy Rate

c)

FSE Rate

d)

Break Rate

55.

What two categories make up your Deferred Discrepancy Rate?

a)

Awaiting Parts (AWP)

b)

Maintenance Scheduling Effectiveness (MSE)

c)

Partially Mission Capable (PMC)

d)

Awaiting Maintenance (AWM)

56.

For your Deferred Discrepancy Rate, it will be tracked by _ measurements taken seven days apart and a final measurement taken at the end of the month

a)

3

b)

1

c)

5

d)

8

57.

What rate measures the component of sortie generation where parts are removed from one aircraft to install on another to return it to service?

a)

Break Rate

b)

Cannibalization (CANN) Rate

c)

Fix Rate

d)

Total Abort Rate

58.

What "Action Taken" code will be used to track CANNs?

a)

S

b)

T

c)

R

d)

U

59.

What rate measures the percentage of discrepancies that during normal troubleshooting cannot be recreated on the ground or on a test station?

a)

Can Not Duplicate (CND) Rate

b)

Fix Rate

c)

Deferred Discrepancy Rate

d)

CANN Rate

60.

What rate measures the total number of repeat and recur write-ups that occur over a month based on the total number of pilot reported discrepancies (PRD)?

a)

Break Rate

b)

FSE Rate

c)

Repeat/Recur Rate

d)

Air Abort Rate

61.

A _________ discrepancy is one that occurs on the very next sortie after a completed maintenance action has been taken for the same issue

a)

Recur

b)

Repeat

62.

A _________ discrepancy is one that occurs within the second through fourth sortie after a completed maintenance action has been taken against the same issue

a)

Repeat

b)

Recur

63.

What section is responsible for researching and identifying repeat and recur write-ups and documenting them as such?

a)

MXG/CC

b)

Pro Super

c)

Debrief

d)

Maintenance Management

64.

What rate measures the averaged elapsed timed between inherent failures of a mechanical or electronic system during normal system operation?

a)

Maintenance Scheduling Effectiveness (MSE) Rate

b)

Mission Capable (MC) Rate

c)

Break Rate

d)

Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)

65.

What the two categories of the Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) rate?

a)

Inherent Failure

b)

Induced Failure

c)

Operational Failure

d)

Mechanical Failure

66.

What is a failure that occurs when the system itself fails?

a)

Induced

b)

Purposeful

c)

Inherent

d)

Accidental

67.

What is a failure that is caused by a failure of another asset or an external force acting on a system?

a)

Intentional

b)

Inherent

c)

Coincidental

d)

Induced