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NS510 Exam 2 - Fall 2025

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

GI

(a)  

2.

Which esophageal disorder is described as a precancerous lesion and is associated with GERD?

a)

achalasia

b)

esophageal strictures

c)

Barrett's esophagus

d)

esophageal diverticula

3.

A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with C. diff infection. The patient is experiencing abdominal pain and distention, fever, and tachycardia. What is the priority nursing intervention?

a)

Administer ordered antibiotics

b)

Administer IV fluids

c)

Make patient NPO

d)

Ambulate the patient

4.

What is the correct order for an abdominal assessment?

a)

inspection, palpation, auscultation, percussion

b)

inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

c)

auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion

d)

palpation, inspection, auscultation, percussion

5.

The nurse is teaching a client about colonoscopy preparation. Which of the following should the nurse include? SATA

a)

The patient should avoid fiber 48 hours before the procedure

b)

The patient should maintain a clear or full liquid diet 24 hours before the procedure

c)

The osmotic laxative solution should be completed the evening before and 4-6 hours before the procedure

d)

Stool may remain dark brown after colonoscopy preparation

e)

Abdominal cramps and bloating are normal up to 24 hours after the procedure

6.

Which of the following should be avoided in patients with GERD? SATA

a)

Caffeine

b)


High protein meals

c)

Fatty foods

d)


Chocolate

e)


Alcohol

7.

Which patient is at highest risk of having a gastric ulcer?

a)

52-year-old with insulin dependent diabetes and HTN

b)


27-year-old who lifts weights and follows a high protein diet

c)


75-year-old who takes NSAIDs for chronic lower back pain

d)


36-year-old with a right femur fracture following a motor vehicle accident

8.

A client has returned to his room following an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Before offering fluids, the nurse should give priority to assessing the clients:

a)


Gag reflex

b)


Urine output

c)


Level of consciousness

d)


Blood pressure

9.

A client has just had a colonoscopy. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

a)


Mild abdominal cramps

b)


Small amount of rectal bleeding

c)


Flatulence

d)


Severe abdominal pain with a rigid abdomen

10.

After a barium enema, what is an important instruction the nurse should give the client?

a)

Remain NPO for 8 hours

b)

Expect stools to be white for up to 72 hours

c)

Avoid dairy products for 24 hours

d)

Limit fluid intake to prevent diarrhea

11.

GU/Renal

(a)  

12.

A client has a renal colic due to renal lithiasis. What is the nurse's first priority in managing care for this client?

a)

Restrict fluids

b)


Request the central supply department to send supplies for straining urine

c)

Encourage the client to drink at least 500 mL of water each hour

d)

Administer an opioid analgesic as prescribed

13.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching about UTI prevention to a patient who was admitted with a UTI. Which of the following teaching points should the nurse include? SATA

a)


Empty bladder completely

b)


Encourage intake of orange juice as it makes urine more acidic and decreases bacterial colonization

c)

Avoid taking tub baths as bath water harbors bacteria

d)

Wipe perineal area from front to back

e)

Encourage caffeine as it is a diuretic

14.

A patient is admitted with acute renal colic and diagnosed with a kidney stone. What is the primary factor contributing to the formation of kidney stones?

a)


High fluid intake

b)


Low protein diet

c)

Concentrated urine supersaturated with stone components

d)


High calcium diet

15.

Musculoskeletal

(a)  

16.

What is the gold standard for testing bone density?

a)

CT Scan

b)

DEXA

c)

MRI

d)

Xray

17.

How is pin site care demonstrated?

a)

Cleaning with a designated swab for each pin

b)

Leave the pins open to air and avoid cleaning the site

c)

Cleaning the pins with the same swab to avoid wasting

18.

What should the nurse be most concerned about when dealing with a compound fracture?

a)

The patient's weight bearing status

b)

Immobilization

c)


Pain

d)

Infection

19.

A patient begins to experience pain that is out of proportion for their recent knee replacement. They later demonstrate pain and paralysis. The nurse knows to expect what emergency procedure?

a)

Fasciotomy

b)

Craniotomy

c)

Biopsy

d)

Amputation

20.

Which of the following are posterior hip precautions?

a)

No flexing of the hip greater than 90 degrees

b)

Do not put a pillow between the legs

c)

Do not cross the legs

d)

Try to rotate the hip internally to increase ROM

21.

A 48-year-old patient with a fracture of the left femur has Buck’s traction in pace while waiting for surgery. To assess for pressure areas on the patient’s back and sacral areas and to provide care the nurse should do which of the following?

a)


Loosen the traction and help the patient turn to the unaffected side

b)

Place a pillow between the patient’s legs and gently turn to each side

c)

Turn the patient partially to each side with assistance of another nurse

d)

Have the patient lift the buttocks by bending and pushing with the right leg

22.

A patient with a right lower leg fracture will be discharged home with an external fixation device. Which of the following with the nurse teach?

a)

You will need to check and clean the pin insertion sites daily

b)

The external fixator can be removed for your bath or shower

c)

You will need to remain on bed rest until bone healing is complete

d)

Prophylactic antibiotics are used until the external fixator is removed

23.

A patient with a newly fractured radius complains of increased pain and new numbness/tingling after getting a cast put on. Which of the following assessments is the priority?

a)

Capillary refill of the fingers distal to the injury

b)

Blood pressure

c)

O2 saturation

d)

Asking patient to rate their pain on a scale of 0-10

24.

Injury and Violence

(a)  

25.

A patient in an ED is diagnosed with a concussion. The patient is accompanied by a spouse who insisted on staying in the room and answering all questions. The patient avoids eye contact and has a sad affect and slumped shoulders. Assessment of which additional problem has priority?

a)

Risk of intimate partner violence

b)

Risk of self injury

c)

Major depression

d)

Migraine headaches

26.

The nurse reinforces education about IPV for a group of graduate nurses. Which are appropriate for the nurse to include? SATA

a)

a. IPV is most common in low income families

b)

b. IPV is rare in same sex partnerships

c)

c. The abusive partner often demonstrates jealousy and possessiveness

d)

d. Victims may not leave due to financial concerns or fear of harm

e)

e. Violence against a female often intensifies during pregnancy

27.

The nurse caring for an older adult suspects elder abuse. Which action is appropriate?

a)

collect proof of abuse before notifying authorities

b)

confront the caretakers about suspicion of abuse

c)

notify the authorities of suspected abuse

d)

report abuse if the older adult giver permission

28.

One of the most common forms of abuse in vulnerable citizens like children and the elderly is ___________

a)

Physical abuse

b)

Emotional abuse

c)

Neglect

d)

Financial abuse

29.

Which assessment data should a school nurse recognize as a sign of physical neglect?

a)

The child is often absent from school and seems apathetic and tired.

b)

The child is very inseure and has poor self-esteem

c)

The child has multiple bruises on various body parts

d)

The child has sophisticated knowlege of sexual behaviors

30.

Endocrine

(a)  

31.

Which type of insulin is typically used for mealtime (bolus) coverage?

a)

Glargine

b)

Determir

c)

Lispro

d)

NPH

32.

A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Which of the following is the primary defect in type 1 DM?

a)

Insulin resistance

b)

Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic β cells

c)


Inadequate insulin secretion

33.

Which of the following is a common manifestation of diabetes insipidus (DI)?

a)


Polyuria with high specific gravity

b)


Polyuria with low specific gravity

c)


Oliguria with high specific gravity

d)

Oliguria with low specific gravity

34.

What is a critical nursing intervention for a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

a)


Administering hypertonic saline

b)


Encouraging increased oral fluid intake

c)


Administering potassium-sparing diuretics

d)


Placing the patient on fluid restriction

35.

A patient with hyperthyroidism is at risk for thyrotoxicosis (thyroid storm). Which of the following is a key sign of this medical emergency?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Hypothermia

c)

Severe tachycardia

d)

Hypotension

36.

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for developing Cushing's syndrome?

a)


A patient with a tumor on the pituitary gland, which is causing too much ADH to be secreted

b)

A patient taking glucocorticoids for several weeks

c)

A patient with a tuberculosis infection

d)

A patient who is post-op from an adrenalectomy

37.

A nurse is caring for a client 2 hours after a total thyroidectomy. Which assessment finding requires the nurse’s priority intervention?

a)

A hoarse voice when the client speaks

b)

A respiratory rate of 22/min with shallow breathing

c)

Tingling around the mouth and fingertips

d)

A small amount of serosanguinous drainage on the neck dressing

38.

A nurse is caring for a client with Addison’s disease who was admitted to the hospital and started on IV hydrocortisone for suspected Addisonian crisis. Which assessment finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

a)

Blood pressure increasing from 82/50 mm Hg to 104/68 mm Hg

b)

Blood glucose decreasing from 140 mg/dL to 90 mg/dL

c)

New onset bilateral crackles in the lower lung fields

d)

Serum potassium increasing from 5.1 mEq/L to 5.7 mEq/L

39.

A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client with Cushing’s syndrome. Which of the following nursing interventions are appropriate based on the client’s expected clinical manifestations? Select all that apply.

a)

Monitor for signs of infection such as fever or redness

b)

Encourage a diet high in sodium and low in potassium

c)

Assess for bone pain or history of recent fractures

d)

Monitor blood glucose levels regularly

e)

Place the client on fall precautions

40.

A nurse is caring for a client admitted with myxedema coma who has been started on IV levothyroxine and warmed with a heated blanket. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding appropriately to treatment?

a)

Heart rate increases from 48/min to 62/min

b)

Temperature increases from 97.0°F (36.1°C) to 99.5°F (37.5°C)

c)

Blood pressure decreases from 132/80 mm Hg to 120/76 mm Hg

d)

New onset of mild tremors and irritability

41.

A nurse is caring for a client who received NPH insulin at 0730. At 1130, the client reports feeling shaky and sweaty. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Offer the client a snack containing protein and complex carbohydrates

b)

Administer the client’s scheduled dose of long-acting insulin

c)

Recognize that the client is likely at the peak of NPH insulin and check blood glucose

d)

Notify the provider of a possible adverse reaction to insulin

42.

Dosage Calc: IV (no drip rates)

(a)  

43.

Octreotide 50 mcg IV push over 3 minutes is ordered twice daily for diarrhea. When using an Octreotide concentration of 100 mcg/mL, calculate the milliliters the nurse would administer with each dose.

(a)  

44.

A provider prescribes 0.9% NaCl 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 4 hours. The nurse should set the IV infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hour?

(a)  

45.

A nurse is preparing to administer lactated ringers 750mL IV to infuse over 6 hours. The nurse should set the IV infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr? Enter number only, no unit of measure.

(a)