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Econ- Macro and Micro

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
In this type of economy, the people decide the supply, demand, and price.  
a)
Market 
b)
Traditional
c)
Command 
d)
Mixed
2.
This type of economy is passed down through family traditions. They learn from their parents. 
a)
Traditional 
b)
Market 
c)
Mixed 
d)
Command 
3.

Which type of economy has central ownership, the government, and lack of individual choice?

a)

Market

b)

Mixed

c)

Command

d)

Traditional

4.
Which type of economy is usually paired with a Communist government?
a)
Mixed
b)
Market
c)
Command
d)
Traditional
5.
Which two groups of people are represented in the circular flow model?
a)
Buyers and Sellers
b)
Producers and Consumers
c)
Government and Private Individuals
d)
Households and Businesses
6.

Focusing on a narrow range of products/services that can be produced most efficiently and cost-effectively.

a)

subsistence

b)

specialization

c)

scarcity

d)

bartering

7.

Payment for public goods and services by citizens.

a)

savings

b)

debt

c)

tax

d)

capital

8.

It refers to the lowest wage permitted by law below which if paid by employer will subject him to penalty from the government.

a)

minimum wage

b)

maximum salary

c)

maximum wage

d)

minimum salary

9.

It is consumed to fuel day to day expenditures.

a)

debt

b)

spending

c)

capital

d)

investments

10.

It is the amount of interest due per period, as a proportion of the amount lent, deposited or borrowed.

a)

investment rate

b)

accrued interest

c)

interest rate

d)

compound interest

11.

A person who takes the risks that is necessary to seek new business opportunities and develop new ways of doing things.

a)

inventor

b)

scientist

c)

entrepreneur

d)

government

12.

What is used to calculate the price elasticity of demand?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

13.

The market for wheat is in equilibrium at price P with supply at 40 million tonnes. Due to a drought in the growing season, supply falls to 20 million tonnes. Which immediate action should be taken to maintain the equilibrium price of P?

a)

grant a subsidy to farmers equivalent to PP1

b)

impose an indirect tax equivalent to PP2

c)

plant more wheat to increase supplies to 40 million tonnes

d)

use existing stocks of wheat to increase supplies by 20 million tonnes

14.

The diagrams show the initial demand curve D1 and supply curve S1 for steel in the European Union (EU). In 2018 European steel firms experienced rising energy prices. Which diagram shows the likely impact of this?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

15.

The table shows a competitive market in equilibrium in two periods. What could explain the change from period 1 to period 2?

a)

an increase in the price of a complement

b)

an increase in the price of a substitute

c)

the imposition of a minimum price of 60 cents by a government

d)

the imposition of an indirect tax on suppliers

16.

The diagram shows the market for sugar which is initially in equilibrium at a price of OP. A government then fixes a maximum price of OP1. What will happen as a result?

a)

a reduction in farmers’ revenue equal to PRSP1

b)

expenditure on sugar will be equal to PRMO

c)

farmers’ revenue would be P1UNO

d)

producer surplus will be P1SP2

17.
  1. The division of labor can lead to increased productivity because: 

  1.  

a)
  1. It reduces the need for specialized skills.

b)
  1. It allows for economies of scale. 

c)
  1. It eliminates the need for trade. 

d)
  1. It promotes competition among workers. 

18.
  1. One of the disadvantages of the division of labor is: 

a)
  1. Increased efficiency in production. 

b)
  1. Higher levels of job satisfaction. 

c)
  1. Monotony and boredom for workers. 

d)
  1. Increased opportunities for skill development. 

19.
  1. Specialization, which is closely related to the division of labor, refers to: 

a)
  1. The geographical distribution of economic activities. 

b)
  1. The concentration of resources in specific industries. 

c)
  1. The focus on producing a narrow range of goods or services. 

d)
  1. The cooperation between firms in a market. 

20.
  1. The government's intervention in a mixed economy is primarily aimed at: 

a)
  1. Achieving income equality among the population. 

b)
  1. Promoting economic growth and development. 

c)
  1. Eliminating private ownership of resources. 

d)
  1. Maximizing consumer satisfaction and utility. 

21.

According to Adam Smith, everyone makes decisions that are best for themselves

a)

MACRO Economics

b)

Opportunity Costs

c)

Invisible Tradeoff Theory

d)

Invisible Hand Theory

22.

Government or other central authority makes all economic decisions

a)

Mixed Economies

b)

Traditional Economies

c)

Market Economies

d)

Command Economies

23.
If the US dollar appreciates relative to the Canadian dollar, what is a likely outcome?
a)
trade surplus in US
b)
trade deficit in Canada
c)
trade deficit in both
d)
trade surplus in Canada
24.
Prices at which currencies are traded is called...
a)
Exchange Currency
b)
Exchange Rate
c)
Foreign Exchange Market
d)
Local Currency Demand
25.
The value of all the final goods and services produced within a nation in a given year.
a)
Gross Domestic Product
b)
per capita GDP
c)
Gross National Product
26.
A product that one country SELLS to another.
a)
import
b)
export
27.
The factories, machines, and technology that people use to make products to sell.
a)
capital goods
b)
human capital
c)
entrepreneurship
28.

Which change would best indicate that a country has experienced economic development?

a)

an appreciation in the country’s currency

b)

an improvement in the average citizen’s quality of life

c)

an improvement in the country’s trade balance

d)

an increase in the country’s real GDP

29.

Which change would best indicate that a country has experienced economic development?

a)

an appreciation in the country’s currency

b)

an improvement in the average citizen’s quality of life

c)

an improvement in the country’s trade balance

d)

an increase in the country’s real GDP

30.

What is the best measure of the economic cost of an increase in unemployment?

a)

the additional social security benefits paid plus the loss of tax revenue from newly unemployed workers

b)

the loss of potential exports

c)

the money value of the additional social security benefits paid

d)

the output the unemployed workers could have produced

31.

In an open economy, what is most likely to cause the money supply to fall?

a)

a balance of payments surplus

b)

an increase in the ratio of cash reserves to total deposits in the commercial banking sector

c)

central bank bond purchases from the non-bank private sector

d)

government borrowing from the commercial banking sector

32.

What is the primary goal of supply-side policies?

a)

To increase unemployment by cutting jobs.

b)

To reduce government spending and lower taxes.

c)

To focus solely on environmental regulations.

d)

To increase economic growth by enhancing productive capacity.

33.

Name one type of supply-side policy.

a)

Increased government spending

b)

Regulation of industries

c)

Tax cuts

d)

Exchange rate increase

34.

What is the effect of deregulation on the economy?

a)

Deregulation has no impact on competition or innovation in the market.

b)

Deregulation always leads to economic decline due to lack of control.

c)

Deregulation can stimulate economic growth by increasing competition / Innovation.

d)

Deregulation guarantees increased government revenue and stability.

35.

What role does government spending play in interventionist policies?

a)

Government spending reduces inflation and stabilizes prices.

b)

Government spending has no impact on economic growth or market dynamics.

c)

Government spending stimulates economic activity to increase potential

d)

Government spending is primarily used for tax cuts and deregulation.

36.

Supply-side policies are often centred on:

a)

Raising inflation

b)

Investing in capital - human and infrastructure

c)

Changing the base rate of interest

d)

Changing laws

37.

The tools of fiscal policy are...

a)

Interest rates

b)

Taxes and Government spending

c)

Checks and balances

d)

Open market operations

38.

Fiscal policy is actions taken by ______________ to stabilize the economy.

a)

The federal Reserve

b)

The Air force

c)

the government

d)

Wall street

39.

Expansionary fiscal policies are laws aimed at reducing unemployment. How might Congress use expansionary fiscal policy?

a)

Decrease the discount rate

b)

Increase taxes

c)

Decrease government spending

d)

Increase government spending and decrease taxes

40.

Contractionary fiscal policy are law aimed at reducing inflation. How might Congress use contractionary fiscal policy?

a)

Decrease government spending and increase taxes

b)

Decrease taxes

c)

Send stimulus checks to every person in the economy

d)

Increase government spending

41.

Which is an example of expansionary fiscal policy?

a)

The Federal reserve lowers the discount rate

b)

The government raises taxes on all citizens by 5%

c)

The government increases spending by building more infrastructure

d)

The federal reserve increases the reserve requirement

42.

Which is an example of automatic stabilizer?

a)

Stimulus checks that congress had to vote on

b)

A paycheck from your employer

c)

Unemployment Insurance

d)

Interest on your savings account

43.

Balance of payment is measured as

a)

Difference between visible items of exports and imports

b)

Difference between invisible items of exports and imports

c)

Difference between external and internal flow of gold

d)

Difference between all receipts of foreign exchange and payment of foreign exchange

44.

Balance of trade is measure as

a)

Difference between import and export of goods

b)

Difference between import and export of services

c)

Difference between import and export of capital

d)

Difference between all exports and all imports

45.

Current account records transactions relating to

a)

Export and import of goods

b)

Non factor and factor income

c)

Current transfers

d)

All of these

46.

Balance of payments is in this equilibrium when

a)

Capital account balance + capital account balance is not equal to zero

b)

Capital account balance + capital account is not positive number

c)

Capital account balance + capital account balance is not negative number

d)

All of these

47.

Which of the following is a primary income in the Balance of Payments?

a)

Profits from foreign investments

b)

Exports of goods

c)

Imports of services

d)

Domestic investments

48.
How many firms are there in a perfect competition?
a)
1
b)
2-5
c)
Many
49.
Why does no one firm dominate in a perfect competition?
a)
No firm wants to
b)
Each firm sells to different people
c)
Each firm produces so little of the total supply that they cannot influence prices
d)
One firm will eventually dominate and make it a monopoly
50.
An industry that is dominated by a few large firms is 
a)
monopolistic competition.
b)
a monopoly.
c)
perfect competition.
d)
an oligopoly.
51.
Which scenario is an example of a monopoly? 
a)
A local water company is the sole provider of water for a small town.
b)
A dry cleaner specializes in environmentally friendly cleaning methods.  
c)
A farmer produces green beans for sale at a farmer's market.
d)
A small number of cereal companies produce most of the cereal on the market.
52.
In the 1990s, AT&T controlled 80% of the phone industry and was the ONLY provider of long distance phone service. This is an example of
a)
A monopoly
b)
Monopolistic Competition
c)
Perfect Competition
d)
Oligopoly
53.
What is not part of perfect competition?
a)
buyer/ seller are well informed
b)
sellers cannot enter/ exit market easily
c)
low prices
d)
few barriers of entry
54.

What prevents firms from entering a monopoly?

a)

Barriers to Entry

b)

Technology

c)

Price

d)

Barriers to Travel

55.
Choose the example that goes best with an oligopoly.
a)
apples
b)
cell phone providers
c)
utilities
d)
clothing
56.

Which of the following industries is an example of a monopoly?

a)

utilities/water

b)

department stores

c)

auto industry

d)

commercial airlines

57.

When companies that form on oligopoly cooperate together to set or fix prices at a given level, they are engaging in

a)

Monopoly

b)

Vertical Integration

c)

Collusion

58.

In which market structure do firms have significant pricing power?

a)

Monopolistic Competition

b)

Perfect Competition

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Monopoly

59.

Which market structure is characterised by differentiated products?

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Monopoly

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Monopolistic Competition

60.

What is a natural barrier to entry in a monopoly?

a)

High start-up costs

b)

Government regulations

c)

Control of a key resource

d)

All of the above

61.

Which of the following is NOT a Market Structure?

a)

Perfect Competition

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Monopoly

d)

Corporation

62.

Differentiation is _________________.

a)

having identical products.

b)

copying another business.

c)

small differences that make your product unique.

d)

having control of the market value.

63.
This is a tax on imports that is used to increase price of foreign products and raise government revenue. 
a)
tariff
b)
quota
c)
subsidy
d)
embargo
64.
Tariffs and Quotas can benefit nations imposing them by...
a)
Raising revenue
b)
increasing variety of goods
c)
lowering prices
d)
increasing consumption 
65.
Infant industries can be helped in the world market by giving those industries a 
a)
subsidy
b)
quota
c)
embargo
d)
tariff
66.

Sending goods to another country to sell.

a)

import

b)

export

67.

Bringing goods in from another country to sell.

a)

import

b)

export

68.
When a country exports more than it imports.
a)
trade surplus
b)
trade deficit
69.

When a country imports more than exports, it will have....

a)

trade surplus

b)

trade deficit

70.
The dollar weakens.
a)
appreciate
b)
depreciate
71.

What is invisible trade?

a)

The trade of services

b)

The trade of goods

c)

The trade of physical products

d)

The trade of raw materials

72.

What is visible trade?

a)

The trade of digital products

b)

The trade of goods

c)

The trade of intellectual property

d)

The trade of services

73.

What is a trade deficit?

a)

When a country's exports exceed its imports

b)

When a country's imports exceed its exports

c)

When a country's exports and imports are equal

d)

When a country's trade is completely restricted

74.

What is a benefit of having a global brand for businesses?

a)

Access to wider markets

b)

Higher unit costs

c)

Supply chain issues

d)

Increased language barriers

75.

Economic growth is a situation where an economy's real GDP increase.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Which of the following is most likely a characteristic of a developing country?

a)

Low employment rate

b)

High GDP

c)

High technology

77.

True or False Developing Countries have strong infrastructure

a)

True

b)

False

78.

More resources:

a)

Land

b)

Labor

c)

Capital

d)

Consumer

79.

What is a public good?

a)

A good that is both non-excludable and non-rivalrous

b)

A good that is excludable but non-rivalrous

c)

A good that is non-excludable but rivalrous

d)

A good that is both excludable and rivalrous

80.

What is an externality?

a)

A benefit or cost that affects a third party not directly involved in the market transaction

b)

A cost that affects only the buyer in a market transaction

c)

A benefit that affects only the seller in a market transaction

d)

A benefit or cost that only affects the buyer and seller in a market transaction

81.

What is asymmetric information?

a)

Information that is only known to the seller in a market transaction

b)

Information that is only known to the buyer in a market transaction vice versa

c)

Information that is known to both the buyer and seller in a market transaction

d)

Information that is not known to either the buyer or seller in a market transaction

82.

What is the effect of subsidies in addressing market failure?

a)

To encourage the consumption of a good

b)

To discourage the consumption of a good

c)

To increase the price of a good

d)

To decrease the price of a good

83.

What is the role of indirect taxation in addressing market failure?

a)

To encourage the consumption of a good

b)

To discourage the consumption of a good

c)

To provide a revenue source for the government

d)

To provide a subsidy for the production of a good

84.

What is the effect of advertising in addressing market failure?

a)

To increase the demand for a good

b)

To decrease the demand for a good

c)

To provide information about a good

d)

To increase the supply of a good

85.

What is the primary goal of government intervention in the market?

a)

To increase the price of goods

b)

To decrease the price of goods

c)

To increase government revenue

d)

To address market failure and promote market efficiency