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Worksheets

MGT1100 FA revision

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Alison has an idea for improving the efficiency of her work area. When she approached her supervisor, she was asked to shepherd the idea through the approval, implementation, and evaluations processes. Alison has become a ________.

a)

supervisor

b)

change agent

c)

group leader

d)

job coach

2.

Organisations need change because ________.

a)

the future is unpredictable

b)

the environment is stable

c)

external and internal factors create the forces for change

d)

employees get bored with the status quo

3.

The technology change in the manufacturing process of New Ideas, Inc.'s products to make the process more efficient is the result of a competitor lowering its price. Therefore, it was a(n) ________ force of change.

a)

external

b)

internal

c)

marketplace

d)

economic

4.

First he was all about innovation. Next it was efficiency. Now Snyder's strategy is customer responsiveness. These changes in strategy are indicative of ________ force of change.

a)

internal

b)

marketplace

c)

economic

d)

external

5.

The two metaphors commonly used to describe the two views of the change process are ________.

a)

smooth water and troubled water

b)

calm waters and white-water rapids

c)

shallow water and falling water

d)

burning bridge and water over the dam

6.

In the ________ metaphor, change is normal and expected and managing it is a continual process.

a)

calm waters

b)

white-water rapids

c)

smooth water

d)

water over the dam

7.

Lewin's three-step process is consistent with the ________ theory of organisational change.

a)

white-water rapids

b)

shallow waters

c)

smooth waters

d)

calm waters

8.

The unfreezing step of the change process can be thought of as ________.

a)

changing to a new state

b)

sustaining a change over time

c)

changing the organisational structure

d)

preparing for the needed change

9.

A company that decides to decentralise its sales procedures is managing ________ changes.

a)

technological

b)

people

c)

strategy

d)

structural

10.

Technological changes usually involve the introduction of new equipment, ________.

a)

tools, or operating methods

b)

tools or people

c)

operating methods, or structure

d)

people, or structure

11.

________ is the term used to describe change methods that focus on people and the nature and quality of interpersonal work relationships.

a)

Commercial development

b)

Organisational development

c)

Career development

d)

Comprehensive development

12.

When Joshua proposed cross-training his employees so absences and vacations would not pose such a problem in productivity, his employees objected. Their resistance came from their _________.

a)

belief that ambiguity would increase

b)

fear that they would be forced out of their habits

c)

concern over personal loss of income

d)

belief that Joshua's changes would harm the organisation

13.

Back2Work succeeded because it offered personalised assistance to its clients — people who had lost jobs — beginning with having a live person answer every phone call. When management proposed an automated answering service with a directory tree ("Press 1 for a company directory", for example), Cathy was concerned the company would lose customers. Cathy's resistance stemmed from her ________.

a)

belief that uncertainty would increase

b)

fear that she would be forced out of her habit

c)

concern over personal loss

d)

belief that the change was incompatible with the goals and interests of the organisation

14.

Which one of the following techniques for reducing resistance to change assumes that much of the resistance lies in misinformation?

a)

Negotiation

b)

Education and communication

c)

Participation

d)

Facilitation and support

15.

How can managers increase the likelihood of making change happen successfully?

a)

They should realise that they are just change agents, not change leaders.

b)

They should discourage entrepreneurial mindsets.

c)

They should give individual employees a role in the change process.

d)

They should adapt the changes made by their competitors.

16.

The effect of planning on managers is that it forces them to ________.

a)

generate higher profits

b)

anticipate and respond to change

c)

eliminate uncertainty

d)

work at cross purposes

17.

Which one of the following is among the reasons why managers should plan?

a)

When work activities are coordinated around plans, inefficiencies become obvious.

b)

Uncertainty can be eliminated and the organisation can be insulated from change with planning.

c)

Planning eliminates the need to set goals.

d)

Planning eliminates the need to measure work effort.

18.

When formal planning fails to lead to higher performance, which one of the following is most likely to be the reason for the failure?

a)

A participative style of planning was used.

b)

Managers were allowed too much autonomy.

c)

The company emphasised the control function over other functions.

d)

External forces constrain managers' options.

19.

Most companies' plans can be classified as either ________ or ________.

a)
short-term or long-term
b)
tactical or financial
c)
internal or external
d)
strategic or operational
20.

Strategic plans are usually ________.

a)

short term, directional, and standing

b)

short term, specific, and standing

c)

long term, directional, and single use

d)

long term, specific, and standing

21.

Long-term plans are defined as those with a time frame beyond ________.

a)

five years

b)

three years

c)
one year
d)

seven years

22.

Short-term plans are those covering ________ or less.

a)
two years
b)

three years

c)
three months
d)
one year
23.

Top executives are mainly involved in ________ planning.

a)
contingency
b)
operational
c)

departmental

d)
strategic
24.

________ is a process of setting mutually-agreed upon goals and using those goals to evaluate employee performance.

a)
Performance Appraisal System
b)
Employee Engagement Strategy
c)
360-Degree Feedback Process
d)
Management by Objectives (MBO)
25.

Which one of the following is the first step in MBO?

a)

The organisation's overall objectives and strategies are formulated.

b)

Unit managers collaboratively set specific objectives for their units with their managers.

c)

Action plans are specified and agreed upon by managers and employees.

d)

Major objectives are allocated among divisional and departmental units.

26.

The main reason strategic management is important is ________.

a)

it allows an organisation to anticipate economic recessions

b)

it can make a difference in how well an organisation performs

c)

it reduces uncertainty

d)

it simplifies the environment

27.

Patrick expects each person he hires for his online business to be involved in studying trends

involving new technology, competitors, and customers. These employees are involved in

________.

a)

external analysis

b)

internal analysis

c)

economic analysis

d)

industry analysis

28.

Computer peripherals provider Ascent plans to enter a new market in another country. Which

one of the following represents a threat for Ascent?

a)

Ascent's profit margin in the previous year was its lowest on record and it will require longterm

planning to improve margins.

b)

Ascent lacks the resources to enter the market on its own and has to find a partner in the new market.

c)

Ascent will have to plan its entry carefully as the laws in the country do not favour foreign

businesses.

d)

Ascent needs to improve its service capabilities in the new country as this is an important

source of revenue.

29.

Brutus' Fried Chicken patented the recipe for the spices used in the coating of the chicken.

The patent protection lasts for 17 years. Brutus' Fried Chicken will view this patent protection as

a(n) ________.

a)

threat until the patent expires

b)

opportunity during the time of the patent protection

c)

weakness because the patent cannot be renewed

d)

cost of doing business

30.

Helen, the owner of Crazy Cupcakes, is conducting a SWOT analysis of her company.

Which one of the following represents an opportunity for expansion?

a)

The production process was found to be highly efficient and wastage was kept to a minimum.

b)

In a taste test, Crazy Cupcakes products ranked higher than competitors in the taste and

texture segments.

c)

There has been a trend toward personalised cupcakes for a variety of occasions.

d)

One of Crazy Cupcakes competitors has added cookies to its product line.

31.

The major value-creating capabilities of the organisation are known as its ________.

a)

strengths

b)

competitive advantages

c)

core competencies

d)

resources

32.

The combined external and internal analyses are called ________.

a)

Competitor analysis

b)
Porter's Five Forces
c)

Value Chain analysis

d)
SWOT analysis
33.

Lower-level managers are responsible for ________ strategies.

a)

stability

b)

functional

c)

corporate

d)

tactical

34.

What are the three main types of corporate strategies?

a)

Growth, stability, and renewal

b)

Stability, focus, and turnaround

c)

Growth, cost leadership, and differentiation

d)

Stability, differentiation, and focus

35.

Organisations grow by using strategies of ________.

a)

concentration, integration, or stabilisation

b)

integration, diversification, or differentiation

c)

integration, diversification, or functionalisation

d)

concentration, integration, or diversification

36.

Hendricks Ceramics sells items it buys from ceramic factories. If it were to purchase one of

these factories, it would be engaging in ________ integration.

a)

forward vertical

b)

backward vertical

c)

horizontal

d)

Focused

37.

An organisation that is diversifying its product line is exhibiting what type of corporate strategy?

a)

Turnaround strategy

b)

Retrenchment strategy

c)

Growth strategy

d)

Diversification strategy

38.

During the Great Recession, Malcolm's Racing Bikes lost a considerable amount of its

business because customers could no longer afford the expensive models in his shop. He was

very near bankruptcy. Malcolm began carrying a line of less expensive bikes to appeal to

recreational bicyclists and families and also opened a repair service. Malcolm used a ________

strategy.

a)

retrenchment

b)

diversification

c)

turnaround

d)

reorganisation

39.

Which of the following is a competitive force under the five forces model?

a)

Past rivalry with competitors

b)

Bargaining power of distributors

c)

Vertical integration

d)

Threat of new entrants

40.

When one gas station lowers its price a penny, the station on the other corner of the

intersection lowers its price, followed by the gas stations on the next block, and so on, until

nearly every gas station in town has lowered its prices. This situation illustrates ________.

a)

intense rivalry among competitors

b)

a differentiation strategy

c)

the threat of substitutes

d)

a cost leadership strategy

41.

A cost leadership strategy requires a firm to ________.

a)

maintain the lowest cost structure

b)

maintain the lowest prices to its customers

c)

aim at a cost advantage in a niche market

d)

match its competition's prices

42.

Every fast food hamburger restaurant chain wants you to believe their product is the best

because it is stored or prepared uniquely. Each of these is pursuing a ________.

a)

low cost leadership strategy

b)

differentiation strategy

c)

focus strategy

d)

quality strategy

43.

Which of the following strategies involves a cost advantage or a differentiation advantage in a narrow segment?

a)

Retrenchment strategy

b)

Functional strategy

c)

Focus strategy

d)

Leadership strategy

44.

The first three activities of the human resource management process involve ________.

a)

providing employees with flexible job assignments

b)

identifying and selecting competent employees

c)

providing employees with up-to-date knowledge and skills

d)

retaining competent and high-performing employees

45.

The final three activities of the human resource management process ensure ________.

a)

that the organisation retains competent and high-performing employees

b)

that the organisation selects and trains competent employees

c)

the best compensation packages for the new hires

d)

that employees are continuously provided with up-to-date knowledge and skills

46.

An assessment that defines jobs and the behaviours necessary to perform them is known as a ________.

a)

job description

b)

job specification

c)

job preview

d)

job analysis

47.

A written statement that explains the job content, environment, and conditions of employment is called a ________.

a)

job specification

b)

job preview

c)

job manual

d)

job description

48.

A ________ states the minimum qualifications that a person must possess to successfully perform a given job.

a)

job description

b)

job preview

c)

job analysis

d)

job specification

49.

_______ are a temporary involuntary termination that can last from a few weeks to several years.

a)

Layoffs

b)

Attritions

c)

Discharges

d)

Retirements

50.

________ is an Internet-based learning where employees participate in multimedia simulations or other interactive modules.

a)

Podcasts

b)

E-learning

c)

Mobile learning

d)

Videoconferencing

51.

Wayne hosts his first regional sales meeting during which he meets individually with his employees and shows them a chart of their sales numbers for each month compared to their budgeted quota for the year to date. Additionally, Wayne and each employee set mutually agreed-upon budget goals for the remaining six months of the fiscal year. Wade is utilising the ________ method of performance appraisal.

a)

BARS

b)

critical incident

c)

MBO

d)

multiperson comparison

52.

Early research on leadership traits ________.

a)

sought to prove that charisma was an essential trait of leadership

b)

focused on behavioural traits rather than physical traits of a leader

c)

found consistent and unique traits that would apply to all effective leaders

d)

focused on characteristics that might differentiate leaders from nonleaders

53.

Which one of the following describes the leadership style in which a leader tends to centralise authority, dictate work methods, make unilateral decisions, and limit employee participation?

a)

Authoritarian style

b)

Autocratic style

c)

Democratic style

d)

Laissez-faire style

54.

Connie sees her role as someone who provides direction and resources for her team then gets out of their way and lets them do their work however they think best. Connie uses the ________ style of leadership.

a)

laissez-faire

b)

autocratic

c)
participative
d)

facilitative

55.

According to the University of Iowa behavioral studies, group members' satisfaction levels were generally ________.

a)

higher under a supportive leader in the long run

b)

improved when the leader was production oriented

c)

maintained when the leader was directive in the short run

d)

higher under a democratic leader than under an autocratic one

56.

The University of Michigan studies used the two dimensions of ________ and ________ to study behavioural characteristics of leaders.

a)

employee oriented; production oriented

b)

consideration; initiating structure

c)

task; people

d)

decision-making; employee development

57.

The ________ leadership theory is a contingency theory that focuses on followers' readiness.

a)

transformational

b)

situational

c)

transactional

d)

autocratic

58.

According to Hersey and Blanchard, a high task-low relationship situation calls for the ________ leadership style.

a)

delegating

b)

telling

c)

participating

d)

selling

59.

Don has been on the job only a few days. He still has a lot to learn but pays close attention whenever his job coach gives him tips. The best style for the job coach to use is ________.

a)

telling

b)

selling

c)

participating

d)

delegating

60.

Evidence indicates that transformational leadership is strongly correlated with ________.

a)

lower turnover rates and lower levels of goal attainment and follower well-being

b)

lower turnover rates and higher levels of productivity and creativity

c)

higher turnover rates and lower levels of productivity and employee satisfaction

d)

higher turnover rates and higher levels of employee satisfaction and follower well-being