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Chemistry question bank

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Based on the information provided, what group of elements did William Ramsey discover?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 15

c)

Group 17

d)

Group 18

2.

Which statement best describes Moseley's contribution to the modern Periodic Table?

a)

Recognizing that elements in the Periodic Table have similar properties

b)

Grouping elements in the Periodic Table based on their physical properties

c)

Predicting the properties of missing elements in the Periodic Table

d)

Providing a basis for ordering elements in the Periodic Table

3.

The best explanation for the organization of Mendeleev's Periodic Table by atomic mass rather than atomic number is that —

a)

atomic mass is unrelated to the chemical reactivity of elements

b)

Mendeleev organized the table prior to the discovery of the atomic number

c)

different isotopes of elements have different atomic masses

d)

atomic numbers are not affected by the chemical reactivity of elements

4.

In the 1860s, Dmitri Mendeleev designed a Periodic Table of elements based on extensive research and observations. He left several gaps in his Periodic Table for elements that had yet to be discovered.

a)

Non-metal, Mass: 72

b)

Metalloid, Mass: 78

c)

Reactive metal, Mass: 71

d)

Metalloid, Mass: 74

5.

J. Priestly discovered that many carbon-containing materials burn in the presence of oxygen gas. However, the rest of the elements in the carbon family do not react the same way. What explains this phenomenon?

a)

Reactivity decreases going down a family.

b)

Electron affinity increases going up a family.

c)

The other elements in the family have a greater density.

d)

Oxygen is a diatomic element that reacts with other reactive nonmetals.

6.

A piece of gold foil was hit with alpha particles that mostly went right through the foil. This showed that the gold atoms are mostly empty space. What is the physical property of gold that led Rutherford to select it for his experiment?

a)

Gold is ductile.

b)

Gold is unreactive.

c)

Gold can be flattened.

d)

Gold has a positive charge.

7.

Using the Periodic Table, predict which elements will have similar chemical properties or reactivity.

a)

Cadmium, calcium, and carbon

b)

Magnesium, strontium, and barium

c)

Rubidium, yttrium, and zirconium

d)

Nitrogen, sulfur, and bromine

8.

From which of the following atoms would it be the most difficult to remove an electron?

a)

Sodium

b)

Aluminum

c)

Sulfur

d)

Chlorine

9.

Which of the following describes the properties of noble gases?

a)

They have high boiling points.

b)

They are highly reactive.

c)

They are generally unreactive.

d)

They are solid at room temperature.

10.

The reactivity trends on the Periodic Table depend on valence electrons. What family on the Periodic Table is identified as the most reactive nonmetals?

a)

1

b)

12

c)

13

d)

17

11.

Which of the following conclusions is not supported by the data in the above table?

a)

Atomic radii can be measured for these elements.

b)

Atomic radii increase from left to right.

c)

Atomic radii decrease from left to right.

d)

Atomic radii increases from top to bottom.

12.

Rubidium has a lower ionization energy than sodium. One reason for this is that the —

a)

number of protons is increasing

b)

number of energy levels is decreasing

c)

valence electrons are farther from the nucleus

d)

number of neutrons is increasing

13.

A sample of Element X is found to contain 72.15% of isotope type 1 (84.9118 amu) and 27.85% of isotope type 2 (86.9092 amu). Calculate the average atomic mass.

a)

A 85.13 amu

b)

B 85.47 amu

c)

C 86.21 amu

d)

D 86.49 amu

14.

Calculate the atomic mass of the unknown element X described below.

a)

A 204 amu

b)

B 206 amu

c)

C 207 amu

d)

D 208 amu

15.

Which statement correctly explains the composition of the nucleus of Rubidium-87?

a)

A Rubidium-87 has 37 protons and 37 electrons.

b)

B Rubidium-87 has 37 protons and 37 neutrons.

c)

C Rubidium-87 has 37 protons and 50 electrons.

d)

D Rubidium-87 has 37 protons and 50 neutrons.

16.

What does the following hyphen notation of Helium-3 mean?

a)

A An atom of Helium-3 has two protons, two electrons, and one neutron.

b)

B An atom of Helium-3 has one proton, two electrons, and three neutrons.

c)

C An atom of Helium-3 has two protons, two electrons, and three neutrons.

d)

D An atom of Helium-3 has two protons, two electrons, and two neutrons.

17.

Hydrogen has three isotopes, which include hydrogen, deuterium, and tritium, with atomic masses of about 1 amu, 2 amu, and 3 amu, respectively. Considering the average atomic mass of hydrogen that appears on the Periodic Table, which statement is correct?

a)

The average atomic mass of an element is the mean of all of the isotopes of that element.

b)

The average atomic mass of an element is closest to that of the isotope with the highest atomic mass unit.

c)

The average atomic mass of an element is usually closest to that of the isotope with the highest natural abundance.

d)

The average atomic mass of an element is closest to that of the isotope with the lowest natural abundance.

18.

Which element has the same s and p configuration for the 4th principal energy level as the element Cl has for its 3rd principal energy level?

a)

F

b)

I

c)

Br

d)

Kr

19.

Choose the electron configurations which are possible for an unexcited atom. Example 1 - 1s²2s²2p⁴ Example 2 - 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p³3d¹ Example 3 - 1s²2s²2p⁸3s¹ Example 4 - 1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹

a)

1, 3, & 4

b)

1 & 4

c)

2 & 3

d)

2 only

20.

Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for arsenic?

a)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d¹⁰ 4p³

b)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d⁶ 4p⁶

c)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d¹⁰ 4p³

d)

1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 2d¹⁰ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d⁵

21.

What is the electron configuration for an atom of polonium at ground state?

a)

[Xe]6s²5d¹⁰6p⁴

b)

[Xe]6s²4f¹⁴5d¹⁰6p⁴

c)

[Xe]6s²6f¹⁴6d¹⁰6p⁴

d)

[Xe]6s²6d¹⁰6p⁴

22.

The Lewis valence dot electron structures are used to illustrate the number of valence electrons of atoms of representative elements. Considering this, use the Periodic Table to predict the number of “dots” that should be drawn around Antimony (Sb) to represent its Lewis Dot Structure.

a)

2

b)

5

c)

6

d)

8

23.

Electron configurations can be represented in an abbreviated form also known as the Noble Gas Configuration for an element. What is the correct name and Noble Gas Configuration for the element with the following configuration?

a)

Zirconium - [Kr]5s²4d²

b)

Zirconium - [Xe]5s²4d²

c)

Strontium - [Kr] 5s²4d²

d)

Strontium - [Ar] 5s²4d²

24.

Choose the correct Lewis Dot diagram for NaCl.

a)

Na:Cl

b)

Na:Cl with dots

c)

Na^1+ : Cl^1-

d)

Na^1- : Cl^1+

25.

Choose the correct Lewis Dot diagram for NH₃.

a)

H-N-H with dots

b)

H-N-H without dots

c)

H-N-H with two dots on N

d)

H-N-H with one dot on each H

26.

Choose the correct Lewis Dot diagram for MgO.

a)

Mg:O with dots

b)

Mg:O without dots

c)

Mg^2+ : O^2-

d)

[Mg]^2+ : [O]^2-

27.

Using the characteristics of the electron configuration of elements, which elements are described below in order from A to D?

a)

Mn, Sr, V, Br

b)

Br, Li, Al, Sc

c)

Br, P, Sr, Sc

d)

N, Li, He, H

28.

What is the identity of the element with the electron configuration of 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²3d¹⁰?

a)

Ca

b)

Cd

c)

Zn

d)

P

29.

What is the correct name for the following compound? Li₂S

a)

Dilithium monosulfide

b)

Lithium disulfide

c)

Sulfuric lithate

d)

Lithium sulfide

30.

What is the correct name for the following compound? H₂O

a)

Hydrogen oxide

b)

Hydrogen oxolate

c)

Dihydrogen monoxide

d)

Hydrogen dioxide

31.

What is the correct name for the following compound? Al₂(SO₄)₃

a)

Dialuminum trisulfate

b)

Aluminum sulfate

c)

Aluminum trisulfide

d)

Sulfuric aluminate

32.

What is the formula for potassium fluoride?

a)

KF₂

b)

K₂F

c)

KF

d)

K₂F₂

33.

What is the name of the compound NiSO₄?

a)

Nickel (II) sulfate

b)

Nickel (II) sulfite

c)

Nickel (II) sulfide

d)

Nickel (II) sulfuroxide

34.

What is the name of the compound AlPO₄?

a)

Aluminum phosphate

b)

Aluminum phosphide

c)

Aluminum phosphite

d)

Aluminum phosphoroxide

35.

What is the name of the compound N₂O₃?

a)

Sodium dioxide

b)

Dinitrogen trioxide

c)

Dinitrogen oxide

d)

Nitrous oxide

36.

What is the formula for the compound formed by iron (II) ions and chromate ions?

a)

Fe₂(CrO₄)₃

b)

Fe(CrO₄)₂

c)

FeCrO₄

d)

Fe₂CrO₄

37.

What is the formula for calcium carbonate?

a)

CaCO

b)

CaCO₃

c)

Ca₂(CO₃)₃

d)

Ca₃CO

38.

What is the formula for tin (IV) oxide?

a)

Tn₄O₂

b)

SnO₂

c)

SnO

d)

TnO₂

39.

What is the formula for barium nitrate?

a)

BaNO₂

b)

Ba₂NO₃

c)

Ba(NO₃)₂

d)

Ba(NO₄)₂

40.

Which of the following is a possible compound formed from Ca²⁺ and NO₃⁻¹?

a)

Ca₂NO₃

b)

Ca(NO₃)₂

c)

Ca₃NO₂

d)

CaNO

41.

Students were asked to review the Safety Data Sheet for a chemical prior to beginning an investigation. What is the formula for the substance listed on the Safety Data Sheet?

a)

Al(OH)₃

b)

AlOH₃

c)

AlHO₃

d)

AlO₃

42.

Using the Nutrition Facts label above, which of the following formulas is correct for the highlighted ingredient?

a)

Na₂PO₃

b)

NaPO

c)

Na₃(PO₄)₂

d)

Na₃PO₄

43.

Which of the following compounds are correctly named? 1. HCl – Hydrochloric acid 2. H₂SO₄ – Hydrogen sulfate 3. Fe₂O₃ – Iron (II) oxide 4. NiBr₂ – Nickle bromide 5. SrS – Strontium sulfide 6. AlF₃ – Aluminum trifluoride

a)

1 and 5

b)

1, 2, 3, and 5

c)

1, 3, 4, and 5

d)

1, 5, and 6

44.

According to the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) Theory, which of the following chemicals would most likely have the shape of the model seen above?

a)

Xenon tetroxide

b)

Oxygen difluoride

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Sulfur trioxide

45.

During exam review, one student quizzes another’s knowledge of molecular shape. The card reads: "I am a molecule that has two covalent single bonds and no lone pair on the central atom." Which molecule-molecular shape pair matches the description on the card?

a)

HCN, Linear

b)

BeH₂, Linear

c)

H₂O, Bent

d)

CO₂, Linear

46.

What characteristic of metallic bonds allows metals to be malleable and ductile?

a)

The tightly held valence electrons in metallic bonds allow the atoms in a metal to move freely.

b)

The strong connection between atoms in metallic bonds allow the bonds to bend without breaking.

c)

The sea of free electrons in metallic bonds allow the atoms to move when stressed without changing the properties of the substance.

d)

The crystal structure of atoms in metallic bonds allows the metal to maintain a constant pattern when force is applied.

47.

What characteristic of metallic bonds cause metals to be shiny?

a)

The tightly held valence electrons in metallic bonds cause metals to be opaque and unable to absorb light.

b)

The free electrons on the surface of a metal emit light at the same frequency that the light hits them.

c)

The strong connection between atoms in metallic bonds cause photons to be reflected instead of absorbed.

d)

The crystal structure of atoms in metallic bonds maintain a consistent structure that causes light to be reflected.

48.

What characteristic is responsible for the high electrical conductivity of a metal?

a)

Free-floating electrons

b)

Strong bond between metallic ions

c)

Ions are displaced easily in the lattice

d)

Electrostatic attractive force between two atoms

49.

A metallic bond is the strongest of the three major bonds. A sea of electrons delocalized within a strong lattice of cations is a characteristic of metallic bonds. What determines the strength of metallic bonds?

a)

Ductility

b)

Malleability

c)

High electronegativity difference

d)

Balanced positive and negative charges

50.

Which of the following is the mass in grams of 4.25 x 10^3 mol of N2?

a)

2.35 x 10^-4 g

b)

1.52 x 10^2 g

c)

5.95 x 10^4 g

d)

1.19 x 10^5 g

51.

A student has a 5.00 gram sample of calcium chloride (CaCl2) solid. How many moles of calcium chloride are contained in this sample?

a)

378 moles of CaCl2

b)

0.0662 moles of CaCl2

c)

555 moles of CaCl2

d)

0.0451 moles of CaCl2

52.

A three (3.00) mole sample of K₂S would have how many atoms of potassium?

a)

2.01 x 10²³

b)

1.21 x 10²⁴

c)

1.81 x 10²⁴

d)

3.61 x 10²⁴

53.

How many atoms of silicon would there be in a sample that contained 4.66 x 10³⁰ grams?

a)

9.99 x 10⁶⁹⁰

b)

9.99 x 10⁵²

c)

1.69 x 10⁶⁹⁰

d)

1.69 x 10⁵²

54.

How many atoms are in a 591 g sample of gold?

a)

3.00 atoms

b)

116,000 atoms

c)

1.81 x 10²⁴ atoms

d)

3.60 x 10²⁵ atoms

55.

How many atoms are in a sample containing 4.000 moles of carbon?

a)

6.022 x 10²³ atoms

b)

2.408 x 10²⁴ atoms

c)

7.233 x 10²⁴ atoms

d)

2.893 x 10²⁵ atoms

56.

Calculate the number of molecules present in .20 moles of H₂O.

a)

2.9 x 10²⁵ molecules

b)

5.1 x 10²² molecules

c)

1.2 x 10²³ molecules

d)

2.4 x 10²³ molecules

57.

How many atoms of NaCl are present in 11.0 moles?

a)

58 atoms

b)

642 atoms

c)

6.62 x 10^24 atoms

d)

3.51 x 10^25 atoms

58.

How many Mg atoms are present in 3.00 moles of MgCl₂?

a)

1.81 x 10^24

b)

3.02 x 10^24

c)

12.0 x 10^25

d)

16.0 x 10^23

59.

How many Mg atoms are found in 1.00 mole of MgO?

a)

3.01 x 10^23

b)

6.02 x 10^23

c)

1.20 x 10^24

d)

6.02 x 10^25

60.

What is the percent composition of carbon in compound benzene (C₆H₆) to two significant digits?

a)

8% carbon

b)

17% carbon

c)

50% carbon

d)

92% carbon

61.

What is the percent composition, to two significant digits, for each element in sodium chloride (NaCl)?

a)

23% Na, 35% Cl

b)

39% Na, 61% Cl

c)

50% Na, 50% Cl

d)

61% Na, 39% Cl

62.

The molecular formula for butane is C₄H₁₀. Determine the percent composition for each element in the compound.

a)

25.00% C, 18.90% O

b)

40.00% C, 60.00% O

c)

82.70% C, 17.30% H

d)

92.30% C, 7.70% H

63.

What is percent composition of the element hydrogen in the compound methane, CH₄?

a)

16.0%

b)

25.1%

c)

74.9%

d)

100.0%

64.

The molecular formula for the simple sugar glucose is C₆H₁₂O₆. Which compound represents the empirical formula for glucose?

a)

CH₂O

b)

C₀.₅H₀.₅O₀.₅

c)

C₂H₄O₂

d)

C₁₂H₂₄O₁₂

65.

The molecular formula for phosphorous pentoxide is P₄O₁₀. What is its empirical formula?

a)

PO₂.₅

b)

P₀.₄O

c)

P₂O₈

d)

P₂O₅

66.

Which is an example of an empirical formula?

a)

H₂O₂

b)

NaHCO₃

c)

N₂H₈

d)

P₃O₉

67.

Which of the following could represent a molecular formula for CH₂O?

a)

C₂H₃O₂

b)

C₆H₁₂O₆

c)

C₄H₃O₄

d)

C₄H₂O₄

68.

A molecule of glucose is comprised of 6 atoms of carbon, 12 atoms of hydrogen, and 6 atoms of oxygen. According to the information given above, what is the molecular formula of glucose?

a)

CHO

b)

CH₂O

c)

C₆H₁₂O₆

d)

2CH₃O

69.

A molecule of glucose is comprised of 6 atoms of carbon, 12 atoms of hydrogen, and 6 atoms of oxygen. Refer to the above information. What is the empirical formula of glucose?

a)

CHO

b)

CH₂O

c)

C₆H₁₂O₆

d)

2CH₃O