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Management FINAL

Total questions: 114

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the function of "Planning" in Henri Fayol's management theory primarily involve?

a)

Setting organizational goals and defining objectives

b)

Influencing and guiding employees

c)

Structuring and arranging resources

d)

Monitoring and evaluating progress

2.

Which function of management involves structuring and arranging resources, such as people, materials, and financial assets?

a)

Organizing

b)

Planning

c)

Controlling

d)

Leading

3.

What is the primary focus of the function of "Leading" in Henri Fayol's management theory?

a)

Analyzing variances

b)

Setting organizational goals

c)

Monitoring performance

d)

Influencing and guiding employees

4.

Which management function involves monitoring and evaluating progress towards goals, comparing actual performance with planned objectives?

a)

Controlling

b)

Leading

c)

Planning

d)

Organizing

5.

Select the item listed that best describes the key outcomes or results of motion study pioneered by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth.

a)

Designed workspaces & processes considering worker comfort and efficiency.

b)

Decrease efficiency to maximize worker satisfaction and trust in leadership,

c)

 

Reduce the focus on incremental study of motions and time.

d)

Increase the number of motions in a task or job responsibility.

6.

What listed best describes the work of Elton Mayo and his conclusions through the Hawthorne Studies draw regarding the impact of group dynamics on employee productivity?

a)

Proved that group dynamics have no significant effect on work outcomes.

b)

Maintained that variances in performance are solely attributed to individual skills.

c)

Highlighted focus on workers' feelings and attitudes that have no influence on their work.

d)

Emphasized the crucial role of groups, group norms, and group behavior in influencing work performance.

7.

According to Max Weber, bureaucracies are characterized by seven elements, including the theory that people should be hired because their technical training or education qualifies them to do the job well.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Which of the following is an example of an internal strength in a SWOT analysis?

a)

Limited resources

b)

Changing consumer preferences

c)

Economic downturns

d)

Unique products or services

9.

External factors in a SWOT analysis that have the potential to benefit the organization are known by which of the following:

a)

Threats

b)

Strengths

c)

Opportunities

d)

weaknesses

10.

Managers use a two-step process to make sense of external environments consisting of just environmental scanning and interpreting information.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

What is the primary purpose of conducting a SWOT analysis in business?

a)

 

To gain insights into market trends

b)

To prioritize financial goals

c)

To understand internal capabilities and the external environment

d)

To evaluate customer satisfaction

12.

Best practice steps for upholding workplace ethics in the organization include all EXCEPT these listed:

a)

Conduct regular ethics training to educate employees on ethical standards.

b)

Eliminate the need to address ethical violations promptly.

c)

Encourage open communication channels for employees to raise ethical concerns.

d)

Develop and communicate a clear code of conduct for employees

13.

Using one’s influence to harm others in the company is known as:

a)

Production Deviance

b)

Personal Aggression

c)

Political Deviance

d)

Political Aggression

14.

Business prioritization of Social Responsibility is merely a moral obligation and does not ensure the overall success and sustainability of a business as a strategic approach.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

A SWOT analysis is primarily used to predict future sales growth by analyzing consumer spending patterns and economic forecasts.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Scientific management, which involved thorough study and testing of different work methods to identify the best, most efficient ways to complete a job, was developed by

a)

Mary Parker Follett

b)

Frederick Taylor

c)

Max Weber

d)

Elton Mayo

17.

Which listed is a recommended best practice for upholding workplace ethics?

a)

Conducting optional ethics training for all levels of employees

b)

Developing and communicating a clear Code of Conduct for employees

c)

Ensure an environment where employees can abstain from valuing varying perspectives

d)

Ensuring an open environment where ethical standards are optional for all employees

18.

You discover that one of your employees has alerted the Federal Trade Commission about company executive who has been sharing insider information about the company with an
investment firm. The following are steps you consider, EXCEPT

a)

Say nothing to avoid putting yourself on the Federal Trade Commission’s radar

b)

Review the company’s code of ethics with all your subordinates

c)

Talk with HR to ensure that the whistleblower’s identity is protected

d)

Reinforce the whistleblower’s actions to others in the company as a way to safeguard the company’s ethical reputation

19.

During a two-year study, code-named Project Oxygen, Google analyzed traits of most effective leaders. The top attributes for success in the findings include all listed EXCEPT

a)

Micromanaging often to engage trust and creativity among your team

b)

Empower the people to make decisions and tailor their processes

c)

Be a good coach at all levels

d)

Be product and results-oriented

20.

Social responsibility involves a business’s obligation to pursue policies, make decisions, and take actions that benefit communities.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Which listed best describes innovation in the organizational context?

a)

Creating new products, services, processes, or business models that add value

b)

Adopting competitor strategies, new products, services, and processes

c)

Reducing operational costs across all business lines

d)

Maintaining the status quo equity of business services and processes

22.

Which of the following is an example of process innovation?

a)

Introducing an automated assembly line

b)

Launching a new smartphone

c)

Developing a new business model

d)

Changing leadership structure

23.

In Lewin’s Change Model, which stage involves solidifying and institutionalizing new behaviors after change has been implemented?

a)

Refreeze

b)

Change

c)

Transition

d)

Unfreeze

24.

What is the primary purpose of the "Unfreeze" stage in Lewin's Change Model?

a)

Prepare the organization to accept that change is necessary

b)

Implement the change

c)

Solidify new behaviors

d)

Train employees on new systems

25.

Which of the following is the first step in Kotter’s 8-Step Change Model?

a)

Create a sense of urgency

b)

Create a vision

c)

Form a guiding coalition

d)

Communicate the vision

26.

What role does leadership play in successful change management?

a)

Communicating, empowering employees, and managing resistance

b)

Controlling the change without feedback

c)

Avoiding involvement in the change process

d)

Delegating all responsibility to all management

27.

Why do people typically resist change in organizations?

a)

Fear of the unknown and loss of control

b)

They are excited about new opportunities

c)

They have been trained for the change

d)

Trust in leadership

28.

What is the main purpose of an organizational strategy?

a)

To guide a company's decisions and actions toward long-term goals

b)

To reduce costs and maximize work process efficiencies

c)

To increase the size of the workforce

d)

 

To compete solely on price

29.

Which of the following is NOT a key element of organizational strategy?

a)

Competitive Disadvantage

b)

Mission and Vision

c)

SWOT Analysis

d)

Core Competencies

30.

What type of strategy is concerned with decisions like mergers and acquisitions?

a)

Corporate Strategy

b)

Business-Level Strategy

c)

Functional Strategy

d)

Customer Strategy

31.

What is the purpose of conducting a competitive advantage review?

a)

To understand market positioning and resource allocation

b)

To increase the workforce

c)

To reduce the company’s pricing strategies

d)

To emulate competitors' strategies

32.

Why is it important for a company to align resources with its strategic priorities?

a)

To ensure all parts of the organization work toward unified goals

b)

To minimize innovation and change management

c)

To reduce competition across customer segments

d)

To avoid financial losses among the supply chain vendors

33.

What is the first step in the planning process?

a)

Set goals

b)

Track progress

c)

Make decisions

d)

Develop action plans

34.

What is one benefit of setting S.M.A.R.T. goals?

a)

They help identify strengths and weaknesses

b)

They reduce the need for performance feedback

c)

They guarantee short- and long-term success

d)

They ensure goals are never changed

35.

What is a method for maintaining flexibility in planning?

a)

Adopt an options-based approach

b)

Never adjust the action plan

c)

Use top-down management

d)

Set only long-term goals

36.

What should be included in an effective action plan?

a)

Steps, people, resources, and time period

b)

A list of alternatives

c)

The goal’s flexibility

d)

Only the people involved

37.

Which step in decision-making involves generating a range of possible solutions?

a)

 

Identify alternatives

b)

Implement the decision

c)

Gather information

d)

Monitor and evaluate

38.

During brainstorming, what should be prioritized initially?

a)

Idea quantity over quality

b)

Feasibility of ideas

c)

Criticism of ideas

d)

Ideal quality over quantity

39.

Which of the following is a key principle of effective brainstorming?

a)

Encourage creative thinking and novelty

b)

Focus on fewer ideas to save time

c)

Encourage participants to critique ideas early

d)

Limit participation to top managers so that more front-line employees can be involved

40.

What should be done after a brainstorming session is completed?

a)

Evaluate and prioritize the generated ideas

b)

Discard all unconventional ideas

c)

Implement all the ideas immediately

d)

Avoid discussing the ideas further

41.

Which of the following statements about change management is FALSE?

a)

Organizations can thrive without change management processes because employees naturally adapt to all changes.

b)

Organizational restructuring often requires adaptation and careful management of transitions.

c)

Proper change management helps prevent resistance, decreased morale, and failure of change initiatives.

d)

Change is inevitable in the business environment due to new technology, mergers, and market demands.

42.

Which of the following statements about steps leaders take to manage change is FALSE?

a)

When employees naturally adapt to change, training and support are not necessary.

b)

Leaders should monitor progress and adjust the change process as needed.

c)

Continuous communication helps employees understand the change and its impact.

d)

Leaders should create a clear vision to explain the reason for the change.

43.

Which of the following is NOT a step in Kotter’s 8-Step Change Model?

a)

Appoint a Change Officer to lead the process

b)

Create a Sense of Urgency

c)

Build a Guiding Coalition

d)

Communicate the Vision

44.

What is the primary focus of Kotter’s 8-Step Change Model?

a)

Guiding organizations through successful and sustainable change

b)

 

Expanding into global markets

c)

 

Increasing profits through rapid change

d)

Reducing employee headcount during organizational change

45.

What is an example of a business-level strategy?

a)

 

Starbucks using a premium coffee experience to differentiate itself

b)

IKEA adapting its store layout for the Indian market

c)

 

Disney acquiring Pixar to expand content offerings

d)

Toyota's use of lean manufacturing processes

46.

Which statement listed best describes functional departmentalization?

a)

 

A structure focused on product lines.

b)

A flexible structure designed to promote innovation.

c)

A structure where the company is organized around product lines.

d)

A structure where employees are grouped based on their areas of expertise.

47.

Which of the following is a key benefit of decentralization?

a)


 

More rigid organizational control.

b)

Lower employee autonomy.

c)

Greater control over decision-making.

d)

Faster decision-making at lower levels.

48.

Matrix organizations are best suited for companies that need:

a)

Efficient production with minimal cross-functional collaboration.

b)

Connected employees so that they align functions and teamwork.

c)

Localized workers to increase the number of tasks in a specific job.

d)

High levels of innovation with less focus on efficiency.

49.

A wide span of control refers to an enterprise having more levels of management in the organization.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

What is the importance of organizational design process?

a)

To centralize decision-making authority.

b)

To create stability in changing customer preferences.

c)

To adapt to changing environments and meet customer needs.

d)

The configuration of departments and jobs within the company.

51.

Which of the following is a benefit of teams in an effective organization?

a)

Greater innovation and diversity of ideas.

b)

Accountability and coordination within departments.

c)

 

Increased decision-making time.

d)

Higher participation and conformity.

52.

What is one of the disadvantages of utilizing a team approach in an organizational strategy?

a)

Accountability challenges.

b)

Reduced autonomy for managers.

c)

They often lead to lower performance.

d)

Teams tend to create less commitment to projects.

53.

Which type of team is characterized by possessing the autonomy for managing daily responsibilities and reporting to management on broader goals?

a)


 

Cross-functional teams

b)

 

Functional teams

c)

Project teams.

d)

Self-managed teams.

54.

Which listed best characterizes cross-functional teams?

a)

To ensure that all employees from the same department work together.

b)

The level of autonomy varies based on the project and the organization.

c)

To monitor the performance of all teams within the organization.

d)

Have more autonomy to make decisions based on their project scope

55.

In the team development model, which listed best describes the norming stage?

a)

The stage where collaboration and idea sharing are established.

b)

The phase of conflict and tension within the team.

c)

The final stage of team development where goals are achieved

d)

The stage where teams break up after completing their task.

56.

What does departmentalization refer to in an organizational design strategy?

a)

The process of grouping jobs based on similar tasks or products.

b)

The division of labor where individuals specialize in specific tasks.

c)

Decision-making is distributed throughout the company.

d)

Decision-making is concentrated at the top of the organization.

57.

What is one of the primary benefits of managing diversity in the workforce?

a)

Less time spent on Affirmative Action Programs

b)

Higher employee turnover

c)

Improved economic impacts through alignment with customers.

d)

Increased uniformity in ideas.

58.

Which of the following is an example of an affirmative action program?

a)

A team is formed to handle conflicts among employees.

b)

A business implements flexible work hours for parents.

c)

A company sets specific hiring targets for minority groups

d)

A company offers sensitivity training to its employees.

59.

What is one key difference between affirmative action and diversity management?

a)

Diversity management focuses on legal compliance, while affirmative action encourages inclusiveness.

b)

Affirmative action emphasizes team building, while diversity management emphasizes hiring quotas.

c)

Affirmative action focuses on policies and practices primarily in areas such as employment and education.

d)

Diversity management is required by law, whereas affirmative action is voluntary.

60.

Which of the following best defines the term “glass ceiling”?

a)

An informal barrier that prevents women and minorities from advancing to higher-level positions in organizations.

b)

A structural barrier that prevents companies from promoting individuals based on merit.

c)

The limitation on the number of minority employees that can be hired by a company.

d)

A strategy used to improve diversity by promoting more employees from underrepresented groups.

61.

Which of the following is NOT a method for improving diversity management within an organization?

a)

Mentoring programs for underrepresented groups.

b)

Implementing flexible work policies

c)

Avoiding difficult conversations about race or gender issues.

d)

Conducting regular diversity training and awareness sessions.

62.

Which key strategy listed is a best practice that managers should implement to ensure a more effective culture for diversity and inclusion.

a)

Continuous training and education that fosters an inclusive culture.

b)

Minimizing interactions between different cultural groups to reduce conflict.

c)

 

Enforcing strict uniformity in dress code and workplace behavior.

d)

Standardizing the work processes across departments.

63.

Job enrichment differs from job enlargement because job enrichment focuses on:

a)

Giving employees additional decision-making authority and increased tasks.

b)

Reducing the number of tasks while maintaining the same level of authority.

c)

Increasing the number of tasks, but not the decision-making authority.

d)

Assigning more routine tasks to workers.

64.

Task significance is a core job characteristic that best relates to:

a)

 

The variety of tasks performed by an employee.

b)

The job's perceived impact on others inside or outside the organization.

c)

The amount of autonomy provided to employees.

d)

The degree to which a worker completes a task from start to finish.

65.

Task identity refers to importance of the job’s impact on others.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

An inconsistent leader lacks clarity and consistency in which areas?

a)

Decision-making and communication

b)

All listed depict an inconsistent leader

c)

Technological adoption

d)

 

Financial management

67.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic psychological needs identified in Self-Determination Theory (SDT)?

a)

Recognition

b)

Autonomy

c)

Competence

d)

Relatedness

68.

Which of the following managerial actions could undermine an employee's sense of autonomy?

a)

Micromanaging their tasks

b)

Encouraging team-building activities

c)

Offering skill development workshops

d)

Providing constructive feedback

69.

Which of the following best describes 'expectancy' in the context of motivation?

a)

Belief that effort leads to desired performance

b)

The intrinsic motivation from the task itself

c)

Value of the reward to the individual

d)

Belief that performance will be rewarded

70.

In the expectancy theory of motivation, 'instrumentality' refers to the:

a)

Belief that performance will be rewarded

b)

Effort an employee puts into their work

c)

 

Alignment of employee values with company goals

d)

Usefulness of the tools provided to employees

71.

Which ineffective leadership style hampers employee growth and undermines trust and morale within the team?

a)

Micromanagement

b)

Inconsistent Leadership

c)

Toxic Leadership

d)

Laissez-Faire Leadership

72.

Which of the following is NOT a factor in the expectancy theory of motivation?

a)

Competence

b)

Expectancy

c)

Instrumentality

d)

Valence

73.

As a best practices to 'foster autonomy and growth,' managers should:

a)

 

Allow employees to take ownership of their work and make decisions

b)

 

Focus only on team achievements

c)

Limit professional development opportunities to avoid employee fatigue

d)

Micromanage tasks to ensure quality

74.

Which leadership style is most associated with fostering personal growth, encouraging innovation, and building strong trust and respect?

a)

Transformational Leadership

b)

Situational Leadership

c)

Servant Leadership

d)

 

Transactional Leadership

75.

Which best practice involves being transparent in decision-making and recognizing contributions fairly?

a)

Ensure Fairness and Equity

b)

Set Clear and Challenging Goals

c)

Use Positive Reinforcement

d)

Foster Autonomy and Growth

76.

What is one key reason for setting clear and challenging goals using the SMART framework?

a)

To provide direction and drive higher performance

b)

To reduce the need for employee commitment

c)

To make goals easy to achieve

d)

To focus on short-term achievements

77.

How can managers effectively balance intrinsic and extrinsic motivation?

a)

By combining intrinsic motivators like autonomy with extrinsic rewards like bonuses

b)

By treating all tasks as equally intrinsic and extrinsic motivators

c)

By eliminating extrinsic rewards to focus on intrinsic motivation

d)

 

By prioritizing extrinsic rewards over intrinsic motivators

78.

Which best practice emphasizes the importance of showing appreciation and cultivating connectedness among employees?

a)

Promote a Supportive Work Environment

b)

Understand Individual Needs

c)

Provide Meaningful Rewards

d)

Set Clear and Challenging Goals

79.

Which of the following is a physical barrier to effective communication?

a)

Noisy environments

b)

Stress and emotions

c)

Stereotypes or preconceived notions

d)

 

Language differences

80.

Cultural differences are considered psychological barriers to effective communication.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Which exercise encourages swapping roles and discuss after the activity?

a)

Listening Skills Activity

b)

Role-play Activity

c)

Barriers Discussion

d)

Group Presentation

82.

Which leadership style involves inspiring and motivating followers to achieve extraordinary outcomes by articulating a compelling vision and challenging the status quo?

a)

Transformational Leadership

b)

Transactional Leadership

c)

Servant Leadership

d)

Autocratic Leadership

83.

Which leadership style is also known as participative leadership?

a)

Democratic Leadership

b)

Visionary Leadership

c)

 

Transactional Leadership

d)

 

Transformational Leadership

84.

Servant leaders prioritize the needs and well-being of their followers and exhibit which of the following traits?

a)

All listed describe Servant leaders

b)

Empathy and humility

c)

Commitment to serving others

d)

Support for personal and professional growth

85.

Which leadership style involves adapting leadership approaches based on the readiness and maturity of followers

a)

 

Situational Leadership

b)

 

Democratic Leadership

c)

 

Transformational Leadership

d)

Servant Leadership

86.

Positive reinforcement is only effective when used occasionally.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

Providing meaningful rewards means offering the same reward to all employees to ensure fairness.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

'Valence' in motivation theory refers to the value or importance an individual places on the expected reward.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

The Hierarchy of Needs Theory suggests that managers should ensure basic needs are met before focusing on social belonging, recognition, and opportunities for personal growth.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

In high context cultures, communication is typically direct, and clarity is highly valued.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

In the culture based on particularism, the focus is more on relationships than on strictly following the rules

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Which of the following best describes a low context culture?

a)

messages are conveyed with a focus on clarity and detail

b)

relationships are prioritized and communication is indirect

c)

building relationships before discussing business is crucial

d)

communcation relies heavily on shared understanding and non verbal cues

93.

what is a key feature of communitarian cultures?

a)

job titles are earned based on skill and knowledge

b)

group loyalty is highly valued and decisions are made collectively

c)

work and personal lives are kept seperate, and relationships are secondary

d)

decision making is quick and individuals do not need to consult others

94.

which cultural dimension is associated with the belief that one's environment can be controlled to achieve personal goals?

a)

external direction

b)

internal direction

c)

synchronous time

d)

achievement

95.

in which type of culture are work and personal lives seen as highly interconnected, with an emphasis on building strong relationships?

a)

diffuse culture

b)

universalist culture

c)

specific culture

d)

achievement culture

96.

In a ______ culture, people earn their status based on knowledge and skills, and anyone can challenge decisions if they have a logical argument.

a)

achievement

b)

achieving

97.

Cross cultural communication involves recoginizing the ways in which different cultural backgrounds influence ____, values, language, and non verbal cues.

a)

perceptions

b)

Perception

98.

Which type of control relies on the hierachical authority to enforce rules and influence employee behavior through rewards and punishments?

a)

self- control

b)

concertive control

c)

objective control

d)

bureaucratic control

99.

Normative control is based on the shared values and beliefs of the organization and if often created by hiring employees whose attitudes align with organizational valuess

a)

True

b)

False

100.

Self control or self management, involves workers setting their team organizational goals, monitoring progress, and rewarding themselves for achieving goals.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Which type of control measures organizational performance across multiple areas, such as finances, customers, internal operations, and innovation and learning?

a)

bureaucratic control

b)

balanced scoreboard

c)

normative control

d)

performance dashboard

102.

Objective control can be divided into which two types?

a)

Behavior control and output (results) control

b)

Normative control and behavior control

c)

Bureaucratic control and concertive control

d)

Self- control and balanced scorecard

103.

Which of the following best describes concertive control?

a)

control through hierarchical authority and rules

b)

Control through self- directed goals and rewards

c)

Control through work group values and beliefs

d)

control through widely shared organizational values

104.

What is the primary purpose of implementary access controls in an organization?

a)

To create complex digital codes for data security

b)

to encrypt sensitive data

c)

to restrict access to certain data to authorized personnel only

d)

to prevent malware from infecting systems

105.

Which of the following adds an extra layer of security by requiring both something that user knows and something they have?

a)

two factor authentication

b)

access control

c)

firewall

d)

encryption

106.

Which device helps prevent unauthorized access between an organizations internal network and external networks?

a)

firewall

b)

authentication tool

c)

Virus detector

d)

malware scanner

107.

Which of the following is an inventory management strategy that focuses on ordering materials only they are needed in the production process to reduce holding costs?

a)

ABC analysis

b)

Just in Time (JIT)

c)

Economic Order Quantity (EOQ)

d)

Total Quality Management (TQM)

108.

Which of the following best describes capacity planning in operations management?

a)

Determining the production capacity needed to meet demand

b)

optimizing supply chain logistics through capacity management

c)

reducing capacity defects through continuous improvement

d)

ensuring customer expectations are consistently met to support capacity needs

109.

Data encryption ensures that unauthorized users cannot read sensitive data, even if they gain access to it.

a)

true

b)

false

110.

Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses only on the outcome of production rather than optimizing the process.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Lean management focuses on reducing waste without sacrificing productivity in the process

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Feedback should focus on personal attributes rather than behaviors to help recipent understand the problem more clearly.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

In ____ management, all employees are encouraged to take ownership of their work processes and contribute ideas for improvement, fostering a culture of quality

a)

Total Quality Management

b)

.

114.

One of the principles of effective feedback is to __ ______, which ensures that the recipient knows exactly what behavior needs attention.

a)

be specifc

b)

,