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Worksheets

Cisco Networking Final Exam Questions

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which three types of nodes should be assigned static IP addresses on a network? (choose three)

a)

printers

b)

servers

c)

tablets

d)

mobile laptops

e)

gateways

2.

Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers (choose 2)

a)

The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6

b)

The Destination Address field is new in IPv6

c)

The version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6

d)

The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6

e)

The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6

3.

Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

a)

Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable

b)

A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins

c)

A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged

d)

Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order

4.

What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (choose two)

a)

RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files

b)

RAM is a component in Cisco routers

c)

The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM

d)

The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle

e)

RAM provides nonvolatile storage

5.

Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

a)

New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.

b)

Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.

c)

A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.

d)

A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.

6.

An employee is having connectivity issues. Why might a network technician try to ping the default gateway from the employee laptop?

a)

to verify that the SVI interface on the switch is configured correctly

b)

to verify connectivity with the device that provides access to remote networks

c)

to verify that an IP address was provided by the DHCP server

d)

to determine if the laptop address is included in the DNS server

7.

Which type of static route creates a gateway of last resort?

a)
  • default static route

b)
  • floating static route

c)
  • summary static route

d)
  • standard static route

8.

Which two scenarios would benefit the user the most by adding quality of service (QoS) to the network? (Choose two.)

a)
  • A student is communicating via Skype with a friend in another country.

b)
  • Students are updating information about their sport activities on the class Facebook page.

c)
  • A student is sending emails to a friend.

d)
  • Students are watching a lecture from a YouTube site.

9.

An attacker is sitting in front of a store and wirelessly copies emails and contact lists from nearby unsuspecting user devices. What type of attack is this?

a)
  • bluejacking

b)
  • bluesnarfing

c)
  • smishing

d)
  • RF jamming

10.

What type of attack targets an SQL database using the input field of a user?

a)
  • XML injection

b)
  • SQL injection

c)
  • Cross-site scripting

d)
  • buffer overflow

11.

What is an example of cloud computing?

a)
  • a service that offers on-demand access to shared resources

b)
  • a network infrastructure that spans a large geographic area

c)
  • a continuous interaction between people, processes, data, and things

d)
  • an architectural style of the World Wide Web

12.

Which two criteria are used to help select a network medium for a network? (Choose two.)

a)
  • the types of data that need to be prioritized

b)
  • the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal

c)
  • the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

d)
  • the cost of the end devices that are used in the network

e)
  • the number of intermediate devices that are installed in the network

13.

Which command would a technician use to display network connections on a host computer?

a)
  • ipconfig

b)
  • nslookup

c)
  • netstat

d)
  • tracert

14.

Which type of network model describes the functions that must be completed at a particular layer, but does not specify exactly how each protocol should work?

a)
  • reference model

b)
  • protocol model

c)
  • hierarchical design model

d)
  • TCP/IP model

15.

Which three IPv4 header fields have no equivalent in an IPv6 header? (Choose three.)

a)
  • protocol

b)
  • fragment offset

c)
  • flag

d)
  • identification

e)
  • TTL

16.

How are port numbers used in the TCP/IP encapsulation process?

a)
  • Source port and destination port numbers are randomly generated.

b)
  • Destination port numbers are assigned automatically and cannot be changed.

c)
  • If multiple conversations occur that are using the same service, the source port number is used to track the separate conversations.

d)
  • Source port numbers and destination port numbers are not necessary when UDP is the transport layer protocol being used for the communication.

17.

What is the key difference between a type 1 hypervisor and a type 2 hypervisor?

a)
  • A type 1 hypervisor runs on specialized systems and a type 2 hypervisor runs on desktop computers.

b)
  • A type 1 hypervisor supports all server OS virtualization and a type 2 hypervisor supports Linux and Mac virtualization.

c)
  • A type 1 hypervisor supports server virtualizations and a type 2 hypervisor only supports workstation virtualization.

d)
  • A type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the system hardware and a type 2 hypervisor requires a host OS to run.

18.

Which two types of messages are used in place of ARP for address resolution in IPv6? (Choose two.)

a)
  • neighbor solicitation

b)
  • neighbor advertisement

c)
  • broadcast

d)
  • echo reply

e)
  • echo request

19.

A PC has sent an RS message to an IPv6 router attached to the same network. Which two pieces of information will the router send to the client? (Choose two.)

a)
  • prefix length

b)
  • DNS server IP address

c)
  • prefix

d)
  • subnet mask in dotted decimal notation

e)
  • administrative distance

20.

A user can access a file share resource on a server located in the same office but cannot access the internet. What is the possible cause?

a)
  • The switch is malfunctioning.

b)
  • The default gateway address is misconfigured on the PC.

c)
  • The DHCP server is disconnected.

d)
  • The IPv4 address and subnet mask are misconfigured on the PC.

21.

Refer to the exhibit.  How many bits are represented by each group of four hexadecimal values contained between the colons in an IPv6 address?


2001 : 0db8 : 0000 : 1111 : 0000 : 0000 : 0000 : 0200

a)
  • 32

b)
  • 16

c)
  • 64

d)
  • 4

e)
  • 8

22.

Which wireless technology allows a customer to connect to a payment terminal in the store with a smartphone?

a)
  • Wi-Fi

b)
  • GPS

c)
  • Bluetooth

d)
  • NFC

23.

What data encoding technology is used in copper cables?

a)
  • modulation of light rays

b)
  • pulses of light

c)
  • electrical pulses

d)
  • modulation of specific frequencies of electromagnetic waves

24.

Which two TCP header fields are used to confirm receipt of data? (Choose two.)

a)
  • preamble

b)
  • acknowledgment number

c)
  • FCS

d)
  • checksum

e)
  • sequence number

25.

What are two characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose two.)

a)
  • A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.

b)
  • Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.

c)
  • Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

d)
  • Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.

e)
  • The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.

26.

Which troubleshooting tool can be used to determine the current TCP open connections on a PC?

a)
  • netstat

b)
  • nslookup

c)
  • tracrt

d)
  • ping

e)
  • ipconfig

27.

By having narrow viewing angles, an ATM mitigates what kind of attacks?

a)
  • quid pro quo

b)
  • identity fraud

c)
  • dumpster diving

d)
  • shoulder surfing

28.

Match the IPv6 field with its description.

  • Payload Length:

a)

This 8-bit field uses a decremental counter to generate an IPv6 Time Exceeded message for the unsuccessful delivery of the message.

b)

This 20-bit flow label field in the IPv6 header is used by the source to label those packets for which the source requests special handling by the IPv6 routers

c)

This 16-bit field indicates the length of the data portion of the IPv6 packet.

d)

This 8-bit field is equivalent to the IPv4 Differentiated Services (DS) field.

29.

Match the IPv6 field with its description.

  • Hop Limit:

a)

This field contains a 4-bit binary value set to 0110 that identifies this as an IP version 6 packet.

b)

This field indicates the data payload type that the packet is carrying, enabling the network layer to pass the data to the appropriate upper-layer protocol.

c)

This 8-bit field uses a decremental counter to generate an IPv6 Time Exceeded message for the unsuccessful delivery of the message.

d)

This 16-bit field indicates the length of the data portion of the IPv6 packet.

30.

Match the IPv6 field with its description.

  • Version:

a)

This field contains a 4-bit binary value set to 0110 that identifies this as an IP version 6 packet.

b)

This field indicates the data payload type that the packet is carrying, enabling the network layer to pass the data to the appropriate upper-layer protocol

c)

This 16-bit field indicates the length of the data portion of the IPv6 packet.

d)

This 8-bit field uses a decremental counter to generate an IPv6 Time Exceeded message for the unsuccessful delivery of the message.

31.

Match the IPv6 field with its description.

  • Flow Label:

a)

This 16-bit field indicates the length of the data portion of the IPv6 packet.

b)

This 20-bit flow label field in the IPv6 header is used by the source to label those packets for which the source requests special handling by the IPv6 routers

c)

This 8-bit field is equivalent to the IPv4 Differentiated Services (DS) field.

d)

This 8-bit field uses a decremental counter to generate an IPv6 Time Exceeded message for the unsuccessful delivery of the message

32.

Match the IPv6 field with its description.

  • Next Header:

a)

This field indicates the data payload type that the packet is carrying

b)

This field contains a 4-bit binary value set to 0110 that identifies this as an IP version 6 packet.

c)

This 16-bit field indicates the length of the data portion of the IPv6 packet.

d)

This field indicates the data payload type that the packet is carrying, enabling the network layer to pass the data to the appropriate upper-layer protocol

33.

Match the IPv6 field with its description.

  • Traffic Class:

a)

This 20-bit flow label field in the IPv6 header is used by the source to label those packets for which the source requests special handling by the IPv6 routers

b)

This 8-bit field is equivalent to the IPv4 Differentiated Services (DS) field.

c)

This 16-bit field indicates the length of the data portion of the IPv6 packet.

d)

This field contains a 4-bit binary value set to 0110 that identifies this as an IP version 6 packet.

34.

Which nslookup command would return the DNS information of www.cisco.com?

a)
  • nslookup = cisco

b)
c)
  • nslookup

d)
35.

Which two addressing schemes use hexadecimal numbers? (Choose two.)

a)
  • IPv6 addresses

b)
  • IPv4 multicast addresses

c)
  • MAC addresses

d)
  • IPv4 broadcast addresses

e)
  • destination port numbers

36.

Which two application protocols retrieve emails from remote servers? (Choose two.)

a)
  • SSH

b)
  • IMAP

c)
  • POP

d)
  • SMTP

e)
  • FTP

37.

Which network connection type provides the highest data link speed?

a)
  • DSL

b)
  • fiber

c)
  • cable

d)
  • satellite

38.

What are the two functions of the physical layer? (Choose two.)

a)
  • It adds the sending and destination IP addresses to the message.

b)
  • It scans incoming and outgoing signals for potential security breaches.

c)
  • It provides a connection to the network through the local media.

d)
  • It provides information about the type of user application used in the transmission.

e)
  • It encodes the signal to be transported based on the requirements of the local media.

39.

Host A wants to send a message to another host on the local IPv6 network. What are the first two steps Host A will take to determine the MAC address of the receiving host? (Choose two.)

a)
  • Host A will send a neighbor solicitation message to an all-nodes multicast address (FF02::1).

b)
  • Host A will sends a neighbor advertisement message to a broadcast address.

c)
  • Host A will check its ARP table entries to see if the destination host MAC information is already in the table.

d)
  • Host A will send a router solicitation message to the all-router multicast address (FF02::2).

e)
  • Host A will review entries in its neighbor cache to see if the destination host information is already in the cache.

40.

A user purchases a new switch for the home office to accommodate faster speeds for a newly purchased laptop. The controller has 10/100/1000 MBPS ports, and the computer comes with a 10/100 NIC. What actual bandwidth will the laptop receive if it is plugged into a port on the switch?

a)
  • 100 MBPS

b)
  • 10 MBPS

c)
  • The laptop will not connect.

d)
  • 1000 MBPS

41.

What are the two main functions of a layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)

a)
  • To provide payload scanning on the local network.

b)
  • To connect local devices to a default gateway.

c)
  • To provide wireless connectivity to the home network.

d)
  • To connect multiple remote routers to gigabit ports.

e)
  • To connect end-user devices on the same local network.

42.

Which switch forwarding method provides the lowest latency?

a)
  • store-and-forward

b)
  • fast-forward

c)
  • store-and-forward with error checking disabled

d)
  • fragment-free

43.

Which three solutions are examples of physical access control? (Choose three.)

a)
  • protocol

b)
  • password

c)
  • motion detector

d)
  • smart card

e)
  • mantrap-style entry system

44.

Which is the advantage of using an automated patch service on an enterprise network?

a)
  • Administrators can obtain reports on the updates needed by each system.

b)
  • Each computer needs to connect to the vendor’s service to download patches.

c)
  • Administrators can only approve updates with the consent of the users.

d)
  • Users can disable or circumvent updates.

45.

Which Apple security feature ensures that only authentic, digitally-signed software that an Apple-notarized software developer has created is permitted to be installed?

a)
  • Gatekeeper

b)
  • XProtect

c)
  • MRT

d)
  • Security-focused hardware

46.

What is a characteristic of a nftables host-based firewall?

a)
  • to use a simple virtual machine in the Linux kernel

b)
  • to use a profile-based approach to firewall functionality

c)
  • to allow Linux system administrators to configure network access rules that are part of the Linux kernel Netfilter modules

d)
  • to be a rule-based access control and logging system for Linux

47.

Which statement describes an advanced persistent threat (APT)?

a)
  • an attack by threat actors performing unauthorized network probing and port scanning on the targeted network

b)
  • an attack that modifies the operating system through malware and creates a backdoor on the infected system

c)
  • an attack that takes advantage of algorithms in a piece of legitimate software to generate unintended behaviors

d)
  • a continuous attack that uses elaborated espionage tactics involving multiple threat actors and sophisticated malware to gain access to the targeted network

48.

Which application attack replaces a Windows code file with a malicious one and launches an attack when a Windows application calls the code file?

a)
  • Replay

b)
  • XML injection

c)
  • LDAP injection

d)
  • DLL injection

49.

Which two actions demonstrate effective active listening techniques when assisting a customer with a problem? (Choose two.)

a)
  • correcting the customer when they use incorrect technical terms or jargon

b)
  • stopping the customer so you can ask questions as you think of them

c)
  • re-asking questions the customer has already answered when describing the problem

d)
  • allowing the customer to explain the problem

e)
  • Let the customer know that you are listening by interjecting phrases such as “I understand,” “I see,” and “OK.”

50.

A trouble ticket placed by a Ubuntu Linux user states that the wired network connection on the computer intermittently fails. Which command can be entered at the Linux CLI to quickly see the number of transmit and receive errors occurring on the Ethernet interface?

a)
  • ipconfig /all

b)
  • show interfaces eth0

c)
  • ifconfig

d)
  • show ip interface brief

51.

A user reports that the computer occasionally loses connectivity when streaming videos from the web. The technician suspects that a network hardware issue may exist in a device located between the computer and the internet edge router. Which documentation would the technician use to determine where network devices are located in the path from the user to the edge router?

a)
  • three-layer enterprise network design model

b)
  • logical topology map

c)
  • cloud service architecture diagram

d)
  • physical topology map

52.

Which statement accurately describes the measurement of the speed of network transmissions between a client and a server?

a)
  • Throughput equals the combined bandwidth of the links in the path from the client to the server.

b)
  • Bandwidth equals the speed at which a file can be downloaded from a server to a client.

c)
  • Internet speed tests measure the bandwidth of the links between a client and a server.

d)
  • Throughput is lower than bandwidth due to latency from client to server.

53.

What are two characteristics of a remote-access SSL VPN? (Choose two.)

a)
  • clients have no awareness of the VPN

b)
  • a VPN gateway device is needed at both ends of the VPN tunnel

c)
  • the client initiates the VPN connection

d)
  • the VPN is established between the client PC and a VPN gateway

e)
  • traffic between the client and VPN gateway is sent in clear text

54.

Match the definition to the type of cloud.

  • hybrid cloud:

a)

intended for a specific organization or entity, such as the government

b)

made up of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures bound together by technology

c)

services made available to the general population

55.

Match the definition to the type of cloud.

  • private cloud:

a)

intended for a specific organization or entity, such as the government

b)

intended for exclusive use by multiple organizations with shared functional needs

c)

made up of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures bound together by technology

56.

Match the definition to the type of cloud.

  • Community:

a)

made up of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures bound together by technology

b)

services made available to the general population

c)

intended for exclusive use by multiple organizations with shared functional needs

57.

Match the definition to the type of cloud.

  • public cloud:

a)

intended for a specific organization or entity, such as the government

b)

services made available to the general population

c)

made up of two or more distinct cloud infrastructures bound together by technology

58.

Match the applications protocols to their respective transport protocols.

  • HTTP:

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

59.

Match the applications protocols to their respective transport protocols.

  • SMTP:

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

60.

Match the applications protocols to their respective transport protocols.

  • FTP:

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

61.

Match the applications protocols to their respective transport protocols.

  • TFTP:

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

62.

Match the IPv6 addresses to the appropriate unicast category.

  • Loopback:

a)

::/128

b)

fe80::530:3bff:fe22:70d5

c)

1/128

d)

fc00::/7

63.

Match the IPv6 addresses to the appropriate unicast category.

  • Unspecified:

a)

::/128

b)

1/128

c)

fe80::530:3bff:fe22:70d5

d)

2001:db8:2626:ae44:208a:8899:6060:3be6

64.

Match the IPv6 addresses to the appropriate unicast category.

  • Link Local:

a)

fe80::530:3bff:fe22:70d5

b)

1/128

c)

::/128

d)

fc00::/7

65.

Match the IPv6 addresses to the appropriate unicast category.

  • Global Unicast:

a)

fc00::/7

b)

2001:db8:2626:ae44:208a:8899:6060:3be6

c)

1/128

d)

fe80::530:3bff:fe22:70d5

66.

Match the IPv6 addresses to the appropriate unicast category.

  • Unique Local:

a)

fc00::/7

b)

1/128

c)

fe80::530:3bff:fe22:70d5

d)

2001:db8:2626:ae44:208a:8899:6060:3be6

67.

Match each DHCP message type with its description.

DHCPDISCOVER

a)

A client initiating a message to find a DHCP server

b)

The DHCP server confirming that the address lease has been accepted

c)

The client accepting the IP address provided by the DHCP server

d)

A DHCP server responding to the initial request by a client

68.

Match each DHCP message type with its description.

DHCPOFFER:

a)

A client initiating a message to find a DHCP server

b)

A DHCP server responding to the initial request by a client

c)

The DHCP server confirming that the address lease has been accepted

d)

The client accepting the IP address provided by the DHCP server

69.

Match each DHCP message type with its description.

DHCPREQUEST:

a)

The client accepting the IP address provided by the DHCP server

b)

The DHCP server confirming that the address lease has been accepted

c)

A client initiating a message to find a DHCP server

d)

The client accepting the IP address provided by the DHCP server

70.

Match each DHCP message type with its description.

DHCPACK:

a)

A DHCP server responding to the initial request by a client

b)

A client initiating a message to find a DHCP server

c)

The client accepting the IP address provided by the DHCP server

d)

The DHCP server confirming that the address lease has been accepted

71.

Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

a)

data link

b)

network

c)

physical

d)

session

e)

transport

72.

Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

a)
  • A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.

b)
  • Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.

c)
  • Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.

d)
  • A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.

73.

An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees.

What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)

a)
  • scalability

b)
  • security

c)
  • integrity

d)
  • fault tolerance

e)
  • quality of service

74.

What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

a)

192.0.2.199

b)

198.51.100.201

c)

203.0.113.211

d)

209.165.201.223

75.

A network technician attempts to ping www.example.net from a customer computer, but the ping fails. Access to mapped network drives and a shared printer are working correctly. What are two potential causes for this problem? (Choose two.)

a)
  • The Windows domain or workgroup name that is configured on the computer is incorrect.

b)

The target web server is down.

c)
  • The computer has been assigned a static IP address.

d)

DNS service is unavailable on the customer network.

e)
  • The HTTP protocol is not working properly on the target server.

76.

Which statement is true about the CSMA/CD access method that is used in Ethernet?

a)
  • When a device hears a carrier signal and transmits, a collision cannot occur.

b)

All network devices must listen before transmitting.

c)
  • A jamming signal causes only devices that caused the collision to execute a backoff algorithm.

d)
  • Devices involved in a collision get priority to transmit after the backoff period.

77.

What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?

a)

1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

b)
  • C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

c)
  • 0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

d)
  • 106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

78.

A tourist is traveling through the countryside and needs to connect to the internet from a laptop. However, the laptop only has Wi-Fi and Ethernet connections. The tourist has a smartphone with 3G/4G connectivity. What can the tourist do to allow the laptop to connect to the internet?

a)
  • Use the smartphone to access web pages and then pass the web pages to the laptop.

b)

Enable tethering and create a hotspot.

c)
  • Use an Ethernet cable to connect the smartphone to the laptop.

d)
  • Use the smartphone to access the internet through a satellite connection and then share that connection with the laptop.

79.

A cable installation company is trying to convince a customer to use fiber-optic cabling instead of copper cables for a particular job. What is one advantage of using fiber-optic cabling compared to copper cabling?

a)
  • The installation skills required for fiber-optic cabling are lower.

b)
  • Fiber-optic cabling can transmit signals without attenuation.

c)

Fiber-optic cabling is completely immune to EMI and RFI.

d)
  • The cost of fiber-optic connectors is lower.

80.

Which wireless RF band do IEEE 802.11b/g devices use?

a)
  • 5 GHz

b)

2.4 GHz

c)
  • 900 MHz

d)
  • 60 GHz

81.

A user is setting up a home wireless network. A global address is to be used in NAT translations for traffic flowing through the wireless router. How is this global address assigned?

a)
  • The default gateway IP address of the LAN device is used as the global address for NAT translations through the wireless router.

b)
  • The network administrator will choose an available IP address from the LAN and configure the global addressing of the wireless router.

c)

The wireless router will act as a DHCP client in order to receive global addressing from the ISP.

d)
  • The host devices will select an unused IP address on the LAN for performing NAT through the wireless router.

82.

A cyber criminal sends a series of maliciously formatted packets to the database server. The server cannot parse the packets and the event causes the server crash. What is the type of attack the cyber criminal launches?

a)

DoS

b)
  • man-in-the-middle

c)
  • packet Injection

d)
  • SQL injection

83.

What three best practices can help defend against social engineering attacks? (Choose three.)

a)
  • Enable a policy that states that the IT department should supply information over the phone only to managers.

b)
  • Add more security guards.

c)

Resist the urge to click on enticing web links.

d)

Educate employees regarding policies.

e)

Do not provide password resets in a chat window.

84.

What type of route is indicated by the code C in an IPv4 routing table on a Cisco router?

a)
  • static route

b)
  • default route

c)

directly connected route

d)
  • dynamic route that is learned through EIGRP

85.

A workstation connected to an Ethernet switch port is experiencing connectivity problems. The network technician chooses to use the bottom-up troubleshooting method to identify the issue. What are two possible causes of physical layer network problems that the technician should check? (Choose two.)

a)
  • logical addressing issues

b)
  • incorrect MAC address assigned

c)

cables plugged into wrong ports

d)
  • incorrect subnet mask on an interface

e)

improperly terminated cables

86.

Which Apple security feature ensures that only authentic, digitally-signed software that an Apple-notarized software developer has created is permitted to be installed?

a)
  • XProtect

b)
  • MRT

c)
  • Security-focused hardware

d)
  • Gatekeeper